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Comprehensive MLT Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

QC level 1 was out of range by 1 2S today. Which of the following describe the same level result of yesterday’s run?

a)

It was out 1 2S as well.

b)

It was acceptable, within range.

c)

I cannot tell from this information.

d)

It was out 1 3S

2.

One mole of any element or compound is equal to that element of compound’s

a)

Molecular weight

b)

Atomic weight

c)

Atomic mass

d)

All options are the same

3.

Choose the parameter that is NOT a measure of central tendency.

a)

Mean

b)

SD

c)

Mode

d)

Average

4.

If I state that all values should be within a 95% confidence interval (meaning that 95% of all results are within this range), what do I mean?

a)

Results are within 1 SD

b)

Results are within 2 SD

c)

Results are within 3 SD

d)

Results are within 4 SD

5.

In a First Order kinetic reaction, the enzyme is

a)

dependent of the amount of substrate

b)

dependent on the amount of cofactor

c)

Independent of the amount of substrate

d)

Independent of the amount of cofactor

6.

In a colorimetric reaction, as the intensity of color increases, the concentration of analyte tested

a)

Decreases

b)

Remains unchanged

c)

Increases

d)

Does nothing

7.

What happens to Absorbance when the Concentration increases?

a)

stays the same

b)

increases

c)

decreases

8.

Which of the following is a source used in spectroscopy?

a)

a) LASER

b)

b) Tube light

c)

c) Sodium vapour lamp

d)

d) Tungsten lamp

9.

Drawing of calibration curve can be done by taking which of the following in X-axis?

a)

Concentration

b)

Absorbance

c)

Optical density

d)

Transmittance

10.
When a measurement is repeatable and consistent it is said to have...
a)
High precision
b)
Low precision
c)
High accuracy
d)
Low accuracy
11.

The ability to repeat a test and obtain, consistently, the same result is

a)

Accuracy

b)

Precision

c)

Variance

d)

Disperson

12.

There is an M-spike in the gamma region of a SPE, plasma cells seen on the peripheral blood smear, and an elevated amount of IgG. This is consistent with

a)

MGUS

b)

Waldenstrom’s Macroglobulinemia

c)

Multiple Myeloma

d)

Lymphoma

13.

Check all the following that are correct pairs.

a)

Hexokinase - Glucose

b)

Biuret - Total Protein

c)

Urease - BUN

d)

Jaffe - CRE

e)

ISE - Na

14.

Choose the specimen that is acceptable for Magnesium testing.

a)

Plasma from green top, moderately hemolyzed

b)

Serum, slightly hemolyzed

c)

Plasma from EDTA, no hemolysis

d)

Plasma from a red top, no hemolysis

15.

What type of blood cell is this?

a)

Lymphocyte

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Monocyte

d)

Eosinophil

16.

What type of blood cell is this?

a)

Basophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Monocyte

d)

Eosinophil

17.

What type of blood cell is this?

a)

Basophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Monocyte

d)

Eosinophil

18.

A decrease in WBC is termed as ________ whereas an increase is termed _________.

a)

Leucocytosis, Leucocytopenia

b)

Thrombocytopenia, Thrombocytosis

c)

Lymphocytopenia, Lymphocytosis

d)

Leucocytopenia, Leucocytosis

19.

Which of the following WBC is associated with allergy?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Monocytes

20.

When performing a manual differential count, the MT should count a minimum of _______ cells?

a)

50

b)

100

c)

200

d)

400

21.

Which of the following correctly illustrates the maturation phases of a neutrophil?

a)

Blast > Promyelocyte > Metamyelocyte > Myelocyte > Band Neutrophil > Segmented Neutrophil

b)

Blast > Promyelocyte > Segmented Neutrophil > Myelocyte > Band Neutrophil > Metamyelocyte

c)

Promyelocyte > Blast > Myelocyte > Metamyelocyte > Band Neutrophil > Segmented Neutrophil

d)

Blast > Promyelocyte > Myelocyte > Metamyelocyte > Band Neutrophil > Segmented Neutrophil

22.

Macrophages are present in blood

a)

True

b)

False

23.

The appropriate field to count WBCs is the area of which red cells are slightly touching each other

a)

True

b)

False

24.

What is the function of white blood cells?

a)

carry oxygen

b)

fight infection

c)

carry nutrients

d)

clot blood

25.

Which WBC is most numerous?

a)

basophil

b)

eosinophil

c)

neutrophil

d)

monocytes

26.

What is the average life span of an erythrocyte?

a)

10 days

b)

12 days

c)

120 days

d)

8000 days

27.

Which of the following cells are able to leave the bloodstream?

a)

erythrocytes

b)

leukocytes

c)

electrocytes

d)

thrombocytes

28.

What type of Leukocyte am I?

a)

Basophil

b)

Monocyte

c)

Lymphocyte

d)

Eosinophil

e)

Neutrophil

29.

What type of Leukocyte am I?

a)

Basophil

b)

Monocyte

c)

Lymphocyte

d)

Eosinophil

e)

Neutrophil

30.

This cell is

a)

A lymphocyte

b)

Nucleated RBC

c)

Monocyte

d)

Basophil

31.

Identify this cell.

a)

Myeloid blast

b)

Lymphoblast

c)

Monocyte

d)

Promyelocyte

32.

Identify the large cell in this image.

a)

Blast

b)

Promyelocyte

c)

Myelocyte

d)

Metamyelocyte

e)

Band

33.

In Blood Bank, which is NOT a transfusion reaction:

a)

TACO

b)

TRALI

c)

DAT

d)

TA-GHVD

34.

A patient with type O blood can only safely receive which ABO type(s) of Red Blood Cells?

a)

O

b)

A

c)

AB, A, B, or O

d)

A or O

35.

Cryoprecipitate contains a concentrated form of which of the following coagulation factors:

a)

Protein C, protein S, antithrombin

b)

Factor VII, factor IX, factor XI

c)

Factor XII, prekallikrein, high molecular weight kininogen

d)

Factor VIII, Von Willebrand factor, fibrinogen

36.

The reason that a group O patient cannot receive group A red cells is:

a)

Anti-B in the red cell unit

b)

Anti-A in the patient

c)

Anti-B in the patient

d)

They can receive group A cells

37.

Which of the following antibodies are found in the type O plasma?

a)

Anti-A

b)

Anti-B

c)

Anti-A and Anti-B

d)

No Anti-A or Anti-B

38.

Which of the following is the best storage temperature for platelets?

a)

35-37°C

b)

22-24°C

c)

1-4°C

d)

-20°C

39.

Identify the ANA staining pattern.

a)

Speckled

b)

Homogeneous

c)

Nuclear Membrane

d)

Nucleolar

40.

Which type of Red Blood Cells could a person with type AB blood safely receive?

a)

Any type

b)

AB only

c)

A or B

d)

AB or O

41.

Foreign substance that triggers an immune response.

a)

antibody

b)

Antigen

c)

agglutination

d)

blood cell

42.

The clumping due to the interaction of antibody and antigen:

a)

agglutination

b)

clumping

c)

aggregation

d)

antigen

43.

phenotype is ?

a)

physical representation of a trait (what you see)

b)

the gene copies that you have

c)

alleles

d)

codominant

44.

Gentotype is?

a)

related to agglutination

b)

determined by the Gods

c)

What genes you have (alleles)

d)

your phenotype

45.

Blood type A has which antibodies?

a)

anti-A

b)

anti-B

c)

anti-D

d)

anti-AB

46.

blood type B has which antibodies?

a)

anti-A

b)

anti-B

c)

none

d)

anti-D

47.

blood type AB has which antibodies?

a)

None

b)

anti-A

c)

anti-B

d)

anti-D

48.

What are the antigens in the ABO system?

a)

D

b)

A and B

c)

O

d)

AB and O

49.

Which of the test is not done in lavender/pink topped tube

a)

serum glucose

b)

CBC

c)

HbA1c

d)

Blood bank testings

50.

Identify the additive in blue collection tube

a)

EDTA

b)

Sodium citrate

c)

Potassium oxalate

d)

Sodium fluoride

51.

Which one of the following does not have additives?

a)

Red topped tube

b)

Blue topped tube

c)

Green topped tube

d)

Grey topped tube

52.

Which comes the last in order of draw of blood sample collection?

a)

Grey topped tube

b)

Red topped tube

c)

Lavender topped tube

d)

Blood culture bottles

53.

Find out the test not done with citrate tube

a)

Prothrombin time(PT)

b)

Fibrinogen assay

c)

activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT))

d)

Lactate

54.

EDTA prevents blood clotting by binding to which ion?

a)

Bicarbonate

b)

phosphorus

c)

Calcium

d)

potassium

55.

An inflammation reaction involves the

a)

release of histamines.

b)

agglutination of bacteria.

c)

production of immunoglobulin.

d)

vaseconstriction of blood vessels.

56.
The first line of defense against antigen is the _________ system.
a)
respiratory
b)
digestive
c)
integumentary
d)
lymphatic
57.

The cells which provide signals to B cells for complete activation

a)

T regulatory

b)

T cytotoxic

c)

T helper

d)

All of the above

58.

How many types of antibodies are there?

a)

Five

b)

Three

c)

Two

d)

Four

59.
A small injected dose of a pathogen that stimulates the production of antibodies is:
a)
histamine
b)
interferon
c)
pathogen
d)
vaccine
60.
An organism that enters a life form and causes disease or sickness is a/an:
a)
macrophage
b)
pathogen
c)
vaccine
d)
flu
61.
This refers to the type of immunity developed from exposure to a pathogen:
a)
active acquired immunity
b)
passive acquired immunity
c)
innate immunity
d)
attenuated immunity
62.
A type of cell that "digests" pathogens is known as a/an:
a)
helper T cell
b)
macrophage
c)
suppressor T cell
d)
plasma cell
63.
A type of T cell that destroys infected cells is a:
a)
cytotoxic T cell
b)
helper T cell
c)
memory T cell
d)
suppressor T cell
64.
Virus replication may be slowed down by the natural production or administration of this signaling protein:
a)
interferon
b)
histamine
c)
plasma cell
d)
antibodies
65.
Innate and adaptive immunity are the same thing.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
66.

What is the final product of secondary hemostasis?

a)

Platelet plug

b)

Fibrin Clot

c)

Normal blood flow

d)

B and C

67.

What is the appropriate ratio of antocoagulant and blood for Hemostasis testing?

a)

1:5

b)

1:7

c)

1:9

d)

No correct answer

68.

Another name of Factor VIII?

a)

Anti-Hemophilic A factor

b)

Anti-Hemophilic B factor

c)

Stuart Factor

d)

Hageman Factor

69.

D-Dimer is a degradation product of

a)

Thrombin

b)

Tissue Factor

c)

Platelet

d)

Fibrin net

70.

How long for sample stability for APTT testing at Room temperature?

a)

4 hrs.

b)

6 hrs.

c)

24 hrs.

d)

72 hrs.

71.

What is the correct order of processes involved in hemostasis?

a)

coagulation, vascular spasms, platelet plug forms

b)

platelet plug forms, vascular spasms, coagulation

c)

vascular spasms, coagulation, platelet plug forms

d)

vascular spasms, platelet plug forms, coagulation

72.
Which genotype represents a sickle cell carrier? (Remember it is recessive)
a)
SS
b)
ss
c)
Ss
73.
Which genotype represents a patient that suffers from sickle cell disease? (it is recessive)
a)
ss
b)
Ss
c)
SS
d)
sy
74.
How many copies of the sickle cell gene are needed for a person to have the disorder?
a)
0
b)
1
c)
2
d)
3
75.
Sickle red blood cells have a decreased ability to carry 
a)
nutrients
b)
wastes
c)
oxygen
d)
proteins
76.
What is anemia?
a)
Increase in total number of blood cells
b)
inherited hemoglobin disorder
c)
decrease in number of RBCs or amount of hemoglobin in the blood
d)
group of inherited hemoglobin disorders
77.
What is polycythemia?
a)
increase in total number of blood cells
b)
inherited disease
c)
disorder of immune system
d)
white blood cells
78.
What is Thalassemia?
a)
Lymphatic vessels
b)
Group of inherited hemoglobin disorders resulting in decreased production of hemoglobin and anemia
c)
Disorders of immune system
d)
White blood cells
79.

Assume the biomolecule pictured in the illustration is normal. The entire molecule is called ____________.

a)

Hemoglobin S

b)

Heme

c)

Iron (Fe)

d)

Beta-Chains

e)

Hemoglobin

80.

Hemoglobin is classified as which type of biomolecule...

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Lipid

d)

Nucleic Acid

e)

None of the above.

81.

Hemoglobin is made up of ___ protein chains.

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

1

e)

8

82.

1 Hemoglobin can carry ___ molecules of oxygen.

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

1

e)

8

83.

This part of hemoglobin is responsible for binding oxygen.

a)

Hemoglobin S

b)

Heme

c)

Iron (Fe)

d)

Beta-Chains

e)

Hemoglobin

84.

Contains iron at its center.

a)

Hemoglobin S

b)

Heme

c)

Iron (Fe)

d)

Beta-Chains

e)

Hemoglobin

85.

Proteins are made of many ____ bonded together.

a)

amino acids

b)

enzymes

c)

polypeptides

86.

What is the special type of bond that forms between two amino acids?

a)

hydrogen bond

b)

ionic bond

c)

peptide bond

87.

What happens during transcription?

a)

a new strand of DNA is made

b)

a mRNA strand is made from a DNA template

c)

an amino acid chain is made from a mRNA strand

88.

What happens during translation?

a)

a new strand of DNA is made

b)

a mRNA strand is made from a DNA template

c)

an amino acid chain is made from a mRNA strand

89.

Where in the cell does translation occur?

a)

cell membrane

b)

mitochondria

c)

nucleus

d)

ribosome

90.

What is a mutation?

a)

a random change in the DNA

b)

a random change in the amino acid chain

c)

an error that occurs when the mRNA is made

91.

What does an enzyme do?

a)

slows down chemical reactions

b)

speeds up chemical reactions

c)

increases the temperature of the reaction

92.

What binds to the enzyme during the reaction?

a)

active site

b)

protein

c)

products

d)

substrate

93.

What happens to an enzyme when the temperature gets very hot?

a)

The reaction slows down because the molecules are moving too slowly.

b)

The reaction performs at the optimum speed.

c)

The reaction does not occur because the enzyme has denatured.

94.
What is the purpose of PCR?
a)
To produce millions of copies of DNA.
b)
To produce millions of copies of a specific region of DNA
c)
To add nucleotides to a DNA sequence
d)
To watch polymerase work.
95.
What does PCR stand for?
a)
Polymerase Chronic Reagent
b)
Principle Chorionic Reliability
c)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
d)
Probably Cannot React
96.

Based on this image, what is the first biochemical test you should perform? (Assume the sample is from a wound culture - BRIGHT YELLOW colonies)

a)

Catalase

b)

Coagulase

c)

NB disk

d)

Oxidase

97.

Interpret this blood type

a)

A Positive

b)

B Negative

c)

O Positive

d)

AB Negative

98.

Identify the urine crystal (ph 6.0)

a)

Calcium oxalate

b)

Triple phosphate

c)

Uric acid

d)

Calcium carbonate

99.

Identify this urine element

a)

Hyaline cast

b)

WBC cast

c)

RTE

d)

Waxy cast

100.

Choose the statement that is correct.

a)

This is chronic leukemia

b)

This is acute leukemia

c)

This is an increase in monocytes

d)

This is normal

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