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CBT 2025

Total questions: 300

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In what ventricular structure is cerebrospinal fluid not produced by the choroid plexus?

a)

Roof of the fourth ventricle

b)

Floor of the third ventricle

c)

Lateral recess of the foramen of Luschka

d)

Temporal horn of the lateral ventricle

e)

Roof of the third ventricle

2.

What is another name for the medial striate artery?

a)

Tentorial artery (of Bernasconi and Cassinari)

b)

McConnel capsular artery

c)

Frontopolar artery

d)

Recurrent artery of Heubner

e)

Medial lenticulostriate artery

3.

What midbrain anatomic structure is responsible for pain modulation?

a)

Superior colliculus

b)

Substantia nigra

c)

Crus cerebri

d)

Red nucleus

e)

Periqueductal gray matter

4.

A patient has an intractable nosebleed following transsphenoidal pituitary surgery. What artery likely is injured?

a)

Middle meningeal artery

b)

Infraorbital artery

c)

Sphenopalatine artery

e)

Anterior ethmoidal artery

5.

From superior to inferior (rostral to caudal), what are the correct layers, in order, of the roof of the third ventricle?

a)

Fornix, tela choroidea, velum interpositum, tela choroidea, and choroid plexus

b)

Choroid plexus, velum interpositum, tela choroidea, and fornix

c)

Fornix, velum interpositum, tela choroidea, choroid plexus, and tela choroidea

d)

Tela choroidea, fornix, tela choroidea, velum interpositum, and choroid plexus

e)

Fornix, velum interpositum, and choroid plexus

6.

The lateral cord of the brachial plexus is formed from what structure(s)?

a)

Anterior divisions of the upper and middle trunks

b)

Nerve roots C5, C6, and C7

c)

Posterior divisions of the superior, middle, and inferior trunks

d)

Anterior divisions of the inferior trunk

e)

Posterior divisions of the superior trunk

7.

The vertebral artery often is divided into numbered segments. What segment exits the axial and curves posteromedially in a groove on the atlas and enters the foramen magnum?

a)

V2

b)

V3

c)

V4

d)

V5

e)

V6

8.

In this spinal cord cross-sectional image, what letter corresponds to the location of the spinothalamic tract?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

9.

What blood vessel is at risk of injury during a Chiari decompression?

a)

Lateral medullary segment of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

b)

Telovelotonsillar segment of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

c)

Tonsillomedullary segment of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

d)

Posterior spinal artery

e)

V2 segment of the vertebral artery

10.

Number 2 in this image represents what structure?

a)

Pars orbitalis

b)

Premotor gyrus

c)

Pars triangularis

d)

Angular gyrus

e)

Supramarginal gyrus

11.

In brain dead, what happens to the intracranial pressure (ICP) as the mean arterial pressure (MAP) rises ?

a)

Cerebral autoregulation increases ICP

b)

Cerebral autoregulation decreases ICP

c)

The lack of cerebral autoregulation causes an increase in ICP

d)

The lack of cerebral autoregulation causes a decrease in ICP

e)

Cerebral autoregulation maintains a relatively constant ICP

12.

A patient has a hormone-producing pituitary microadenoma that puts him at risk (if left untreated) for peripheral neuropathies, cardiac arrhytmias, and sleep apnea. What hormone is the adenoma producing ?

a)

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH

b)

Growth hormone

c)

Prolactin

d)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

e)

Follicle-stimulating hormone

13.

What is the mechanism of action for temozolamide (Temodar) ?

a)

Microtubule inhibitor

b)

DNA cross-linking

c)

Anti-VEGF antibody

d)

DNA alkylation

e)

Topoisomerase inhibitor

14.

What component of the blood-brain barrier is most responsible for its integrity, creation, and maintenance ?

a)

Astrocytic foot processes

b)

Arachnoid “cap” cells

c)

Pericytes

d)

Endothelial cells

15.

A 52-year-old woman with a history of decompressive left hemicraniectomy for a large middle cerebral artery territory infarction presents with new-onset headache, vomiting, and lethargy. Her CT scan is shown in this image. What is the next appropriate step for her management?

a)

Cranioplasty

b)

Surgical evacuation

c)

Contralateral craniectomy

d)

Lumbar spinal fluid drain

16.

What is the brain’s response to rising PCO2 with regard to cerebral blood flow (CBF) and intracranial pressure (ICP) ?

a)

Decrease CBF and increase ICP

b)

Increase CBF and decrease ICP

c)

Decrease CBF and decrease ICP

d)

Increase CBF and keep ICP constant

e)

Increase CBF and increase ICP

17.

How do cytotoxic and vasogenic edema differ ?

a)

Cytotoxic edema responds better to steroids than does vasogenic edema

b)

The blood-brain barrier is closed in cytotoxic edema and disrupted in vasogenic edema

c)

Cells shrink in vasogenic edema but expand in cytotoxic edema

d)

Cytotoxic but not vasogenic edema occurs after ischemic injury

e)

Protein expand the extracellular space in cytotoxic edema

18.

What typically prevents axonal regeneration in the central nervous system ?

a)

Reduced axonal growth factors following injury

b)

Astrocytic scarring

c)

Lack of progenitor cells

d)

Lack of directional markers and/or architecture

19.

Apert syndrome is distinguished from Crouzon syndrome as individuals with Apert, and not Crouzon, syndrome tend to have:

a)

Absence of a cleft palate

b)

Normal intelligence

c)

Mental retardation

d)

Complex syndactyly

e)

Craniosynostosis

20.

What involuntary movement disorder typically persists during sleep?

a)

Hemifacial spasm

b)

Blepharospasm

c)

Athetosis

d)

Facial myokymia

21.

A 49-year-old man presents with left elbow pain. His symptoms have not improved with rest, ice, splinting and analgetics. He has noticed progressive weakness in extension of his thumb and fingers without weakness of his wrist or arm. There is no sensory loss. What is the suspected diagnosis ?

a)

Radial nerve neuropathy in the upper arm

b)

Tennis elbow

c)

Posterior interosseous neuropathy

d)

C8 radiculopathy

e)

Radial tunnel syndrome

22.

A man with lethargy, confusion, and one episode of seizures underwent an MRI of the brain, shown in these images. What is the likely diagnosis?

a)

Infiltrative glioma

b)

Acute infarct

c)

Osmotic demyelination

d)

Brainstem encephalitis

23.

A woman is referred to you for treatment of a cerebellopontine angle tumor. She has obvious weakness of the right side of her face. She does have some motion but has no motor contraction over her forehead, she cannot close her eye completely, and she has noticeable asymmetry of her mouth when attempting to smile. What is her House-Brackmann classification grade?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

e)

6

24.

An 81-year-old man with a history of hip replacement 3 weeks ago complicated by a mild myocardial infarction is brought to the hospital with an acute-onset middle cerebral artery stroke. The patient has been maintained on warfarin, and the INR is 2,3. The platelet count is 120,000. In this patient, what is an absolute contraindication to thrombolysis ?

a)

Age over 80 years

b)

Hip replacement within 3 weeks of presentation

c)

Recent history of myocardial infarction

d)

INR of 2,3

e)

Platelet count of 120,000

25.

A 30-year-old man with a history of homocystinuria develops a headache followed by hemiparesis and focal epilepsy. He is brought to the emergency room for evaluation. What is the most sensitive imaging modality to detect this patient disease ?

a)

Noncontrast CT scan

b)

T2-weighted MRI

c)

Angiogram

d)

Whole body PET CT

e)

Perfusion-weighted imaging

26.

What is classically described as the cause of an immediate coma in a patient after a head injury without evidence of an intracranial mass or ichemia ?

a)

Severe concussion

b)

Diffuse axonal injury

c)

Dural sinus thrombosis

d)

Atlantoaxial dislocation

27.

A 7-year-old boy is reffered to your office by his endocrinologist after an MRI was obtained during a workup for precocious puberty. The MRI reveals a nonenhancing T1 isointense and T2 isointense lesion within the hypothalamus. Other than precocious puberty, there are no focal findings on exam. While you are interviewing his parents, you notice that the patient occasionally has brief episodes of laughter. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the natural history of the described seizures ?

a)

Low-grade astrocytoma; good seizure control with dietary modifications

b)

Germ cell tumor; excellent control of seizures with ethosuximide

c)

Hypothalamic hamartoma; poor seuzire response to medications

d)

Lipoma; good control of seizures with topiramate

28.

Following trauma to his arm, a patient is unable to abduct and oppose his thumb. He has weakness in forearm pronation and wrist and finger flexion. What other physical exam finding is this patient expected to have ?

a)

Benediction sign and claw hand deformities

b)

Ape hand and benediction sign deformities

c)

Claw hand and wrist drop deformities

d)

Wrist drop and benediction sign deformities

29.

A 69-year-old man incidentally was found to have 85% stenosis of his right internal carotid artery. According to the North American Symptomatic Carotid Endarterectomy Trial (NASCET), what management option is the most likely to prevent a future stroke in the patient ?

a)

Warfarin therapy

b)

Carotid angioplasty

c)

Statin therapy

d)

Carotid endarterectomy

e)

Aspirin therapy

30.

A 78-year-old woman presents to the emergency room after experiencing dizzinesss and syncope. A neurologic exam revealed decrease pain/temperature sensation on the right side of the body, a left facial palsy, decreased pain/temperature sensation on the left side of the face, left-sided hearing loss, ptosis, nausea, vomiting, and vertigo. An infarction in what vessel is suspected ?

a)

Vertebral/posterior inferior cerebellar artery

b)

Anterior inferior cerebellar artery

c)

Superior cerebellar artery

d)

Short circumferential pontine basilar perforators

e)

Artery of Percheron

31.

A patient with a history of intravenous drug use is seen in clinic with new-onset severe back pain. An MRI is obtained that demonstrates bony erosion and collapse of the L2/L3 disk. What is the next step in the management of this patient ?

a)

Perform a lumbar puncture, and send spinal fluid cultures

b)

Obtain a CT scan of the spine

c)

Obtain blood cultures

d)

Obtain a bone scan

e)

Schedule follow up with a repeat MRI in 4 to 6 weeks

32.

Multiple sclerosis is a contraindication to what procedural treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?

a)

Microvascular decompression

b)

Percutaneous radiofrequency rhizotomy

c)

Percutaneous glycerol injection into the Meckel cave

d)

Percutaneous balloon microcompression

e)

Stereotactic radiosurgery

33.

A woman with a known pituitary macroadenoma presents to the emergency room with a sudden, intense headache and a new-onset ophthalmoplegia with her chronic visual field cuts. She endorses photophobia. After imaging confirms the most likely diagnosis, what is the next step in her management?

a)

Sumatriptan administration

b)

Follow-up with repeat imaging in 6 weeks

c)

Repeat pituitary lab work as an outpatient

d)

Observation

e)

Preparation for transsphenoidal decompression immediately

34.

Over 95% of vestibular schwannomas present with progressive unilateral or asymmetric sensorineural, high-frequency hearing loss. In general, what is considered the definition of serviceable hearing ?

a)

Pure tone audiogram of 40 dB or less; speech discrimination score of at least 40%

b)

Pure tone audiogram of 60 dB or less; speech discrimination score of at least 60%

c)

Pure tone audiogram of 60 dB or less; speech discrimination score of at least 40%

d)

Pure tone audiogram of 40 dB or less; speech discrimination score of at least 60%

e)

American Academy of Otolaryngology–Head and Neck Surgery (AAO-HNS) class C or D

35.

A 50-year-old woman presents with an acute onset of severe headache, bitemporal hemianopsia, and cranial nerve III palsy. She is alert and conversant. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management ?

a)

Rapid administration of corticosteroids

b)

Cerebral angiography

c)

Administration of nimodipine

d)

Obtaining an erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein concentration, and blood cultures

e)

Intracranial pressure monitoring

36.

A 19-year-old man presents following a motor vehicle collision complaining of lower extremity weakness. He is found to have a thoracic spine Chance fracture. He has full strength in his upper extremities. He has sensation in his lower extremities and perineum, and his motor strength in his lower extremities ranges from 4-/5 to 4/5. What is his American Spinal Injury Association (ASIA) impairment scale score ?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

37.

A patient presents in the emergency room with a cervical spine fracture and the following radiographic findings: a triangular bone fragment fractured off the anterior inferior vertebral body, retrolisthesis of the caudal vertebrae, and disruption of the facet joints and the disk space. What type of fracture is suspected ?

a)

Avulsion fracture

b)

Clay-shoveler fracture

c)

Jefferson fracture

d)

Teardrop fracture

e)

Locked facets

38.

A 37-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of the “worst headache of my life.” The CT shows intraventricular hemorrhage that you suspect resulted from hemorrhage entering through the lamina terminalis. You are suspicious of an aneurysm at what location ?

a)

Middle cerebral artery bifurcation

b)

Posterior communicating artery

c)

Internal carotid artery terminus

d)

Anterior communicating artery

e)

Basilar artery tip

39.

An 82-year-old woman presents to the neurosurgery clinic with typical trigeminal neuralgia. She has substantial medical comorbidities and would like to avoid surgery. The patient opts for stereotactic radiosurgery. What factor would predict a favorable outcome ?

a)

Absence of atypical pain

b)

Using a radiation dose less than 60 Gy

c)

Prior successful surgical microvascular decompression

d)

Decreased sensation in the affected nerve prior to treatment

e)

Trigeminal neuralgia related to multiple sclerosis

40.

A 35-year-old woman presents with spontaneous neck pain. A noncontrast head CT demonstrates subarachnoid hemorrhage, and an angiogram reveals a lesion suspicious for an intradural vertebral artery dissection. What is the appropriate treatment for this finding

a)

Observation if asymptomatic

b)

Immediate heparinization followed by oral anticoagulation

c)

Immediate surgery or endovascular treatment

d)

Delayed surgery to allow for swelling resolution

e)

Nonoperative treatment followed by a delayed angiogram in 5 to 7 days to assess healing

41.

What structure is indicated by the arrow in this image from an endoscopic third ventriculostomy ?

a)

Optic chiasm

b)

Pituitary stalk

c)

Tip of basilar artery

d)

Fornix

e)

Mammillary bodies

42.

A 3-year-old boy presents with a history of spinal cord de-tethering and excision of a thoracic dermal sinus tract during infancy. What is the most likely spinal cord lesion seen on the current T2 MRI shown in this image ?

a)

Syrinx

b)

Ependymoma

c)

Astrocytoma

d)

Dermoid tumor

e)

Epidermoid tumor

43.

An 8-year-old child with a history of myelomeningocele repair after birth presents with progressive leg weakness and a neurogenic bladder. An MRI of lumbar spine, shown in this image, suggests:

a)

Syringomyelia secondary to a tethered
spinal cord

b)

Idiopathic syringomyelia

c)

Spinal lipoma

d)

Dermoid tumor

e)

Thickened filum terminale

44.

A 3-month-old baby has an abnormal head shape. Based on the 3D reconstruction imaging of the skull, shown in this image, what syndrome is suspected ?

a)

Pierre Robin syndrome

b)

Treacher Collins syndrome

c)

Pfeiffer syndrome

d)

Goldenhar syndrome

e)

Moebius syndrome

45.

An 11-month-old boy presents with macrocrania and failure to thrive. An MRI of the brain, shown in this image, confirms what likely type of hydrocephalus ?

a)

Communicating hydrocephalus

b)

Obstructive hydrocephalus secondary
to a Dandy-Walker malformation

c)

Obstructive hydrocephalus secondary
to aqueductal stenosis

d)

Obstructive hydrocephalus secondary
to a posterior fossa tumor

e)

Obstructive hydrocephalus secondary
to a vein of Galen aneurysm

46.

Obstructive hydrocephalus secondary
to a vein of Galen aneurysm

a)

Acute odontoid fracture

b)

Os odontoideum

c)

Clival chordoma

d)

Condylar fracture

e)

Ligamentous injury

47.

The MRI shown in this image suggests that the cause of the cervicothoracic syringomyelia in this child is due to:

a)

An idiopathic cause

b)

Trauma

c)

A Chiari malformation

d)

Tethered cord due to a cervical dermal
sinus tract

e)

A craniocervical ependymoma

48.

A child presents with a second episode of middle cerebral artery stroke. The cerebral angiogram, shown in this image, suggests:

a)

Anterior communicating artery aneurysm

b)

Arteriovenous malformation

c)

Cavernous malformations

d)

Moyamoya disease

e)

Vein of Galen malformation

49.

A 6-year-old boy presents with new-onset seizures. MRI of the brain, shown in this image, demonstrates an enhancing temporal mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Anaplastic astrocytoma

b)

Ependymoma

c)

Ganglioglioma

d)

Meningioma

e)

Primitive neuroectodermal tumor

50.

An endoscope-assisted strip craniectomy procedure for an infant with sagittal craniosynostosis, shown in this image, followed by helmet therapy will have the best cosmetic outcome if it is performed at what age ?

a)

18 months

b)

12 months

c)

9 months

d)

6 months

e)

3 months

51.

A 24-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a single midline gunshot wound to the forehead. On arrival, he is GCS 7T with bilateral sluggishly reactive pupils and localizing in the left upper extremity to noxious stimulus. His non-contrast head CT is depicted (Figure 1). This patient is most at risk for what acute complication of penetrating brain injury ?

a)

Cavernous-carotid fistula

b)

Traumatic arterial dissection

c)

Arteriovenous malformation

d)

Venous sinus thrombosis

e)

Traumatic intracranial aneurysm

52.

A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department after an intoxicated fall and head injury. He has a moderate occipital headache and nausea without vomiting. On exam, the patient has normal vital signs and no focal neurological deficits. His non-contrast head CT is shown (Figure 1). The volume of the hematoma is measured to be 35 cm³. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient ?

a)

Posterior fossa craniotomy for evacuation of hematoma

b)

Close neurological monitoring with serial head CT imaging

c)

Burr hole evacuation of hematoma

d)

External ventricular drain for CSF diversion and intracranial pressure monitoring

e)

Embolization of the transverse sinus

53.

A 5-month-old infant was a passenger in a car seat in a high-speed crash resulting in ejection. On exam, she only demonstrates right parietal scalp swelling. A head CT scan shows separation of the lambdoid suture and faint hypodensity in the subjacent brain (Figure 1). CT scanning of the cervical spine and other routine trauma investigations were negative. She was discharged in stable condition after 1 day. Which of the following is the most active concern for outpatient follow-up?

a)

Hypopituitarism

b)

Traumatic meningoencephalocele

c)

Atlanto-occipital instability

d)

Chronic subdural hematoma

e)

Hydrocephalus

54.

A 23-year-old male involved in a motor vehicle accident exhibits neurological decline from an initial GCS of 15 to 8, with a neurological exam notable for left hemiparesis and right dilated pupil. What is the most appropriate initial step in management of this patient ?

a)

Hypertonic (3%) saline 250 mL bolus

b)

Right temporal burr hole placement

c)

Intubation and Hyperventilation

d)

Fosphenytoin 15–18 mg/kg IV rapid infusion

e)

Mannitol 1 mg/kg IV bolus

55.

A 25-year-old man presents after assault with bilateral contusions and subarachnoid hemorrhage. His admission GCS is 4T, and an ICP monitor is placed. ICP steadily increases despite sedation, CSF diversion, hyperosmolar therapy, and hypothermia. What additional non-surgical intervention is most appropriate ?

a)

Acetazolamide

b)

Maintain CPP > 60 mmHg

c)

10 mg IV dexamethasone

d)

Hyperventilate with goal PCO₂ < 30 mmHg

e)

Increase PEEP > 10 mmHg

56.

A patient initially presents after closed head injury with a GCS of 14. Head CT demonstrates a small amount of pneumocephalus. Two hours later, the patient becomes unresponsive (GCS 4). A repeat head CT is obtained (Fig. 1). What is the most appropriate next step in management ?

a)

Lumbar puncture to rule out meningitis

b)

Repeat head CT with fine cuts to identify a basal skull fracture

c)

Administer 1 g/kg of mannitol

d)

Surgical evacuation of pneumocephalus

e)

Treatment with high flow oxygen

57.

A 17-year-old sustains a gunshot wound to the head. On examination, he has decorticate posturing on the right and he localizes on the left. His left pupil is 2 mm larger than the right but is still reactive. His non-contrast head CT (see figures) demonstrates metal and bone fragments within the left frontal region with an associated subdural hematoma with midline shift. What is the most appropriate management of this patient ?

a)

Right frontal ventriculostomy placement

b)

Craniotomy, hematoma evacuation, superficial debridement

c)

Superficial debridement of wound

d)

Craniotomy, hematoma evacuation, removal of all bone and metal fragments

e)

Expectant care

58.

A 22-year-old man without a significant medical history presents with progressive midthoracic pain. An MRI examination of the spine is shown in these images. What is the most likely diagnosis ?

a)

Astrocytoma

b)

Ependymoma

c)

Metastasis

d)

Tumefactive demyelination

59.

A patient presents after a motor vehicle accident (MVA) with the head CT shown in the figure. His GCS is 14. His blood alcohol level is 0.31%. What is the most appropriate initial management?

a)

Bifrontal craniotomy and evacuation of SDH

b)

Intubate, sedate, and monitor ICP

c)

Placement of ventriculostomy

d)

Bifrontal decompressive craniectomy

e)

Admit to ICU for observation

60.

A 54-year-old man underwent an MRI of the spine. Sagittal and axial postcontrast T1-weighted images are shown in these images. What is the patient’s likely diagnosis ?

a)

Leptomeningeal metastasis

b)

Neurofibroma

c)

Schwannoma

d)

Meningioma

61.

A woman underwent a head CT, shown in these images. What is the likely diagnosis ?

a)

Infiltrative tumor

b)

Acute infarct

c)

Intracranial hemorrhage

d)

Meningitis

62.

A 38-year-old man who sustained a gunshot wound to the head underwent an emergent CT scan, shown in this image. What finding portends the worst prognosis ?

a)

Presence of both entry and exit wounds

b)

Involvement of the inner and outer tables
of the calvaria

c)

Bullet tract crossing the deep midline
structures

d)

Presence of metallic fragments along
the bullet trajectory

e)

Presence of an open comminuted fracture

63.

A man is reported to have a “string of pearls” appearance on his angiogram. What is the likely diagnosis ?

a)

Severe carotid artery stenosis

b)

Dural arteriovenous fistula

c)

Fibromuscular dysplasia

d)

Arteriovenous malformation

e)

Carotid artery dissection

64.

A 29-year-old female presents after a motor vehicle accident with left hemiplegia, weak localization on right, and a dilated unreactive right pupil. Her head CT is shown. What is the most appropriate surgical management ?

a)

Placement of brain tissue oxygenation and ICP probe

b)

Decompressive right hemicraniectomy

c)

Craniotomy and hematoma evacuation

d)

Temporal burr hole and hematoma drainage

e)

Placement of ventriculostomy

65.

Sagittal CT and MRI STIR sequences of the cervical spine are shown in these images. What is the injury type demonstrated?

a)

Hangman fracture

b)

Clay-shoveler fracture

c)

Jefferson fracture

d)

Flexion-distraction injury

e)

Locked facets

66.

What is true regarding the lesion shown in this CT image? ?

a)

Usually heals well with traction and
immobilization

b)

Usually considered stable

c)

Constitutes the most common type
of fracture at this site

d)

Fracture occurs above the transverse
band of the cruciform ligament

e)

Most likely fracture type to progress
to nonunion

67.

What is a characteristic of the injury shown on this CT scan ?

a)

Combined offset of the lateral C1
masses relative to C2 greater
than 6 mm, which suggests
disruption of the alar ligaments

b)

Frequently associated with diving
head first into shallow water

c)

High frequency of neurologic injury

d)

Most commonly occurs in infants
and young children

e)

Usually warrants emergent surgical
fixation

68.

A 12-year-old boy presents complaining of left eye visual loss and occasional headache. Endocrine evaluation reveals the presence of mild diabetes inspidus and hypothyroidism. His MRI is shown in Figure 1&2. You recommend an attempt at complete tumor resection . Which of the following is the most likely surgical complication?

a)

Hydrocephalus

b)

Seizure disorder

c)

Blindness

d)

Mutism

e)

Pan-hypopituitarism

69.

The spinal cord lesion in the T2-weighted MRI shown in this image is consistent with what disease process ?

a)

Poliomyelitis

b)

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

c)

Guillain-Barré syndrome

d)

Subacute combined degeneration

70.

The left vertebral artery usually arises from the:

a)

Arch of the aorta

b)

Brachiocephalic trunk

c)

Left common carotid

d)

Left subclavian artery

e)

Costocervical trunk

71.

A 12-year-old boy presented to the emergency department with progressive headaches, nausea, and vomiting. Axial T2 and contrast-enhanced T1-weighted imaging and apparent diffusion coefficient maps are shown in these images. What is the patient’s likely diagnosis ?

a)

Medulloblastoma

b)

Ependymoma

c)

Pilocytic astrocytoma

d)

Hemangioblastoma

e)

Metastasis

72.

A 4-week-old was transferred to the Trauma Service from an outlying emergency department after an evaluation for a seizure that included a CT scan of the head (Figure 1). What additional diagnostic investigation is most appropriate?

a)

Echocardiography

b)

Cerebral angiography

c)

Urine amino acids

d)

Skeletal survey

e)

Lumbar puncture

73.

A 34-year-old female presents with spontaneous proptosis and chemosis of the left eye. Cerebral angiography (left common carotid injection) is shown . What is the best management option?

a)

Transvenous embolization

b)

Transarterial carotid sacrifice

c)

Craniotomy

d)

Optic nerve sheath fenestration

e)

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

74.

A 17-year-old boy is struck on the right side of the head during a sports match. He is dazed initially and is taken off the field despite saying he feels fine. He becomes more sleepy over the subsequent 15 min and an ambulance is called. In the emergency department his GCS is E2V3M5 with a sluggish right pupil and weakness on the left side of his body. CT head is shown. Which one of the following is LEAST likely to be an indication for surgery in this type of pathology?

a)

Lesion volume greater than 30 cm³ with anisocoria
and 20 mm maximal thickness

b)

Lesion volume greater than 30 cm³

c)

GCS 8 or less with evidence of anisocoria

d)

Lesion volume 15 cm³ with anisocoria but no
midline shift

e)

Lesion volume 35 cm³ with atrophic brain without
midline shift

75.

A 75-year-old woman presents with a 2-month history of progressive difficulty walking, headache, and memory difficulties. Magnetic resonance imaging is shown (figure). Histopathology shows nests of small blue cells amid a pink fibrillary matrix.  What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Medulloblastoma

b)

Glioblastoma multiforme

c)

Pilocytic astrocytoma

d)

Subependymoma

e)

Meningioma

76.

A 27-year-old presents to the ED after an assault. His GCS is 15/15 but he has evidence of facial fractures involving the frontal sinus and evidence of some CSF rhinorrhea. He is admitted for observation and initial conservative management of CSF leak. On day 3 post-injury, he developed three episodes of vomiting and became drowsy. On examination he was obtunded and lethargic, but arousable. His BP was 140/90 mmHg, heart rate 59/min, respiratory rate 20/min, and oxygen saturation 92% on room air. Examination revealed a dilated right pupil, while the rest of the neurological and systemic examination was normal. Which one of the following is the most appropriate acute management?

a)

High-flow oxygen

b)

Burr hole decompression

c)

Cranialization of the frontal sinus

d)

Decompressive craniectomy

e)

Minicraniotomy

77.

A physician diagnoses a 67-year-old patient with the beginning stages of Alzheimer's disease. The patient's neurologic exam is otherwise intact. A treatment plan of deep brain stimulation to minimize the rate of brain deterioration is created. Where should the surgeon place the stimulator within the brain?

a)

Near the fornix

b)

Within the thalamus

c)

Within frontal cortex

d)

Within the midbrain

78.

A view from above into the anterior third ventricle is shown. The ideal location for performing a third ventriculostomy is indicated by which number?

a)

9

b)

6

c)

5

d)

8

e)

7

79.

A 57-year-old patient presents with head injury after falling backwards and sudden onset of agitation. Two hours later her blood pressure is 220/110 mmHg, her heart rate is 39 beats per minute, and her consciousness is fluctuating. She is intubated and ventilated. CT is shown. Regarding this type of lesion and its location, which one of the following is LEAST likely to be an indication for surgical evacuation ?

a)

Neurological dysfunction or deterioration referable to the lesion

b)

Distortion, dislocation, or obliteration of the fourth ventricle

c)

Compression or loss of visualization of the temporal horns

d)

Presence of obstructive hydrocephalus

e)

Underlying depressed skull fracture

80.

What structure does the arrow point to in the figure?

a)

Superior petrosal sinus

b)

Inferior petrosal sinus

c)

Cavernous sinus

d)

Superior ophthalmic vein

e)

Internal jugular vein

81.

A 58 year-old right handed male presents with bifrontal headaches and a partial left ophthalmoplegia. MRI results are shown. Biopsy revealed this tumor to be a chordoma. An extensive subtotal skull-based resection was performed. Which is the best choice for adjuvant therapy regimen?

a)

Procarbazine, CCNU and vincristine (PCV) chemotherapy

b)

Stereotactic radiosurgery

c)

Proton beam radiotherapy

d)

Brachytherapy

e)

Conventional fractionated radiotherapy

82.

A 41 year-old woman undergoes gross total resection for the lesion shown (Figure). Pathology confirms a grade 2 oligodendroglioma. What is the recommended course of treatment?

a)

Radiation

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Chemotherapy and radiation

d)

Serial MRI

e)

Clinical observation

83.

A 16-year-old boy presents with headaches, nausea, and blurred vision. His neurological examination is remarkable for impaired upgaze and convergence nystagmus. Contrast-enhanced MRI of the brain is shown (figure). Serum beta-HCG and alpha-fetoprotein levels are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Germinoma

b)

Embryonal carcinoma

c)

Endodermal sinus tumor

d)

Meningioma

e)

Choriocarcinoma

84.

Occlusion of which artery causes the stroke shown in the figure?

a)

Recurrent artery of Heubner

b)

Subcallosal artery

c)

Medial lenticulostriate perforator

d)

Orbitofrontal Artery

e)

Artery of Percheron

85.

A 35 year old female presents with headaches and progessive left sided hearing loss. What is the BEST treatment for the lesion depicted in the MR images?

a)

Endoscopic fenestration.

b)

Craniotomy for lesion removal.

c)

Stereotactic aspiration.

d)

Cystoperitoneal shunt.

e)

Radiation therapy

86.

What type of tumor harbors the histopathological structure seen in the figure?

a)

Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma

b)

Pilomyxoid astrocytoma

c)

Ependymoma

d)

Glioblastoma

e)

Anaplastic oligodendroglioma

87.

A view of the fundus (lateral end) of the internal acoustic meatus is shown in the figure. Which number represent the location of the cochlear nerve segment?

a)

4

b)

2

c)

3

d)

1

e)

5

88.

You are performing surgery on a patient with a suspected nerve entrapment, and discover that the nerve is severely narrowed (>50%) along the point of entrapment. What is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?

a)

Neurorrhaphy

b)

Nerve transfer

c)

Neuroplasty

d)

Internal neurolysis

e)

Nerve transposition

89.

What is the first clinically important branch given off by the upper trunk of the brachial plexus?

a)

Musculocutaneous nerve

b)

Phrenic nerve

c)

Suprascapular nerve

d)

Axillary nerve

e)

Dorsal scapular nerve

90.

Based on the cerebral angiogram, which vessel is the PRIMARY arterial blood supply for this tumor?

a)

Superior cerebellar artery.

b)

Persistent trigeminal artery.

c)

Ascending pharyngeal artery.

d)

Middle meningeal artery.

e)

Meningohypophyseal trunk.

91.

What extent of surgical resection of low grade gliomas contributes to a survival benefit?

a)

50-75%

b)

0-25%

c)

75-100%

d)

25-50%

92.

The figure is a cadaveric dissection of the anterior portion of the left cavernous sinus. What deficit would be seen with damage to this structure?

a)

Ptosis, meiosis and anhidrosis

b)

Periocular numbness

c)

Facial numbness

d)

Diplopia that corrects with head tilt

e)

Monocular blindness

93.

A 24-year-old woman presents with a history of menstrual irregularity and headache. Magnetic resonance (MR) imaging reveals a nonenhancing 1.6-cm tumor of the sellar/suprasellar region with displacement of the optic chiasm.  If the patient was noted to have a prolactin level of 265, which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy?

a)

Dopamine agonist with serial visual fields

b)

Observation

c)

Craniotomy for decompression of the optic apparatus

d)

Transsphenoidal resection

e)

Stereotactic radiosurgery

94.

On which chromosome is the gene mutation associated with the syndrome depicted by the MRI shown (figure)?

a)

22

b)

3

c)

11

d)

9

e)

17

95.

What imaging finding of a sphenoid wing meningioma significantly diminishes the possibility of safe gross-total resection?

a)

Infratemporal fossa extension

b)

Tumor size

c)

Optic canal extension

d)

Cavernous sinus invasion

e)

Cerebral edema

96.

What recess is indicated by the arrow in this image?

a)

Opticocarotid cistern

b)

Carotico-oculomotor cistern

c)

Interpeduncular cistern

d)

Lamina terminalis

e)

Cerebellopontine angle

97.

During a far lateral approach, exposure of what anatomic structure first indicates that more than the posterior one-third of the occipital condyle has been removed?

a)

Jugular bulb

b)

The dentate ligament

c)

Transverse ligament of atlas

d)

The vertebral artery

e)

The anterior condylar vein

98.

What is the most common location for the “pearly” tumor shown in this image

a)

As part of the dural along the cerebral convexities

b)

Cerebellopontine angle

c)

Thalamus

d)

Extra-calvarial

e)

Pineal gland

99.

Which one of the following PET tracers is LEAST appropriate for detection of de novo low-grade glioma?

a)

18F-FET

b)

18F-FDG

c)

18F-DOPA

d)

11C-MET

e)

18F-DOPA

100.

A sagittal T2-weighted image of a patient with a tethered cord is shown in this image. What is a characteristic of the pathology represented here?

a)

Reduced risk following folic acid supplementation

b)

Associated with Chiari 2 malformations

c)

Secondary to premature disjunction of the neural ectoderm

d)

Most cases are familial

101.

A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with the complaint of increasingly blurry vision over the past several weeks. Besides, she notes a persistent headache that is worst in the morning and occasionally awakens her from sleep. On physical exam, extraocular movements are impaired. The patient is unable to intort and extort her eye. It is also noted that there is a diminished pupillary light reflex. MRI reveals an intracranial mass. Which of the following locations is most likely affected?

a)

Trochlear nucleus

b)

Trochlear nerve

c)

Cavernous sinus

d)

Below the inferior colliculus

102.

What structure is indicated by the arrow in this image from an endoscopic third ventriculostomy?

a)

Optic chiasm

b)

Pituitary stalk

c)

Tip of basilar artery

d)

Fornix

e)

Mammillary bodies

103.

A 43-year-old female presents to the clinic with chronic headaches worsening over the past three months. Imaging identifies a colloid cyst in the third ventricle. Which of the following findings best indicates a transcortical open craniotomy for treatment of the colloid cyst compared to other possible treatment modalities?

a)

4 mm colloid cyst with small lateral ventricles

b)

4 mm colloid cyst with large lateral ventricles

c)

24 mm colloid cyst with small lateral ventricles

d)

24 mm colloid cyst with large lateral ventricles

104.

A child presents with a second episode of middle cerebral artery stroke. The cerebral angiogram, shown in this image, suggests

a)

Anterior communicating artery aneurysm

b)

Arteriovenous malformation

c)

Cavernous malformations

d)

Moyamoya disease

e)

Vein of Galen malformation

105.

During lateral osteophyte removal in an anterior decompressive discectomy, you encounter brisk bleeding in the region of the nerve root. What is the best next step?

a)

Call interventional radiology

b)

Order blood for transfusion

c)

Explore the vertebral artery

d)

Abort the procedure

e)

Apply gelfoam and pressure

106.

A 54-year-old female was taken to an emergency room after collapsing at work. She was alert and communi­cative, with a severe headache, photophobia, nuchal rigidity, and blurry vision. Computed tomography (CT) of the brain revealed diffuse subarachnoid blood in the basal cisterns, mild hydrocephalus, and no intraparenchymal hematoma. Her angiogram is depicted below. What is the clinical Hunt and Hess grade of this patient?

a)

Grade I

b)

Grade II

c)

Grade III

d)

Grade IV

e)

Grade V

107.

You are seeing a patient with multiple stab wounds to the upper extremity.  The patient has isolated deficits in finger extension and ulnar wrist extension.  What is the most likely level of injury?

a)

Radial nerve at the distal forearm

b)

Posterior interosseous nerve

c)

Radial nerve at the elbow

d)

Median nerve at the elbow

e)

Ulnar nerve at the mid forearm

108.

Which one of the following is most likely given the image below?

a)

Arachnoid cyst

b)

Cavernous sinus meningioma

c)

Craniopharyngioma

d)

Giant MCA aneurysm

e)

Pituitary macroadenoma

109.

You have diagnosed your patient with a nerve entrapment and have decided to decompress the entrapped nerve. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate for the majority of nerve entrapments?

a)

Neuroplasty

b)

Nerve transposition

c)

Internal neurolysis

d)

Neurorrhaphy

e)

Nerve transfer

110.

A 45-year-old man presents with sudden onsent headache, nausea, vomiting and visual disturbance. On examination he is apyrexial, hypotensive, and tachycardic but does not have neck stiffness or photophobia. Visual fields appear to be constricted on confrontation. CT head is abnormal therefore MRI is done. Which one of the following is appropriate acute management?

a)

Dexamethasone

b)

Formal visual field tests

c)

Pituitary profile and start empirical intra- venous hydrocortisone

d)

Lumbar puncture

e)

Transsphenoidal surgery

111.

A 40-year-old ex-IV drug abuser presents to the emergency room with a seizure. CT head with contrast shows 3 cm diameter ring enhancing lesion periventricular location. MRI is performed and the lesion is bright on DWI and dark on ADC map. Which one of the following would be the appropri- ate next step in management?

a)

Blood cultures and external ventricular drain then start intravenous antibiotics

b)

Craniotomy and excision of abscess then start intravenous antibiotics

c)

Image-guided aspiration of abscess then start intravenous antibiotics

d)

Endoscopic aspiration and irrigation

e)

Real-time ultrasound-guided excision of abscess and start intravenous antibiotics

112.

Which one of the following is most likely based on the MRI shown ?

a)

Blake's pouch cyst

b)

Chiari III malformation

c)

Dandy-Walker Malformation

d)

Joubert's syndrome

e)

Mega cysterna magna

113.

A 9-year-old is brought into the emergency room lethargic with a stiff neck and fever. Despite aggressive therapy in the ITU the child dies. Postmortem evaluation reveals that the child had primary amoebic meningoen- cephalitis. This condition is usually acquired through which one of the following means?

a)

Animal bites

b)

Drinking contaminated water

c)

Eating contaminated meat

d)

Freshwater swimming

e)

IV drug abuse

114.

A 55-year-old man presents to your office with difficulty ambulating and buttoning his shirt. It started 2 years ago but has worsened significantly over the last year. On physical exam he is unable to perform a tandem gait and has a positive Hoffman's sign bilaterally, however he has no ankle clonus and flexor plantars bilaterally. He has 4/5 strength in his hands, but 5/5 strength in all other muscle groups. Sagittal MRI is shown. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

a)

C3-C6 laminectomy with lateral mass screw fixation

b)

C3-C6 ACDF without instrumentation

c)

Cervical epidural steroid injection

d)

C3-C6 laminectomy

e)

C3-C6 bilateral foraminotomies

115.

A 27-year-old man presents to his primary care doctor with a low-grade fever, headache, and neck stiffness, which have become more both- ersome over the past 1-2 weeks. Serum is pos- itive for Borrelia burgdorferi IgM. CSF polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is also positive for this organism. The cranial nerve most commonly affected in this disease is most likely?

a)

Abducens nerve

b)

Facial nerve

c)

Glossopharyngeal nerve

d)

Oculomotor nerve

e)

Trigeminal nerve

116.

A 30-year-old woman presents with progressive difficulty using her hands and gait dysfunction. She has pain in the back of her neck that radiates into her head. She notes pain and paraesthesias in both arms that are refractory to neuropathic pain medication. Her imaging is shown in the figures. What is the most appropriate initial surgical management ?

a)

VP shunt

b)

Cyst shunt

c)

Suboccipital decompression

d)

Cervical laminectomy and duraplasty

e)

Cyst fenestration

117.

A 19-year-old female is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle accident and sustained facial injuries from hitting the dashboard. She was GCS 4/15 at the scene and was intubated for transfer. Her pupils are reactive to light. CT head was performed as part of the trauma protocol but did not show any mass lesions or fractures. As this was an isolated head injury, a decision was made to wean sedation and assess neurology, but she remained unresponsive. CT is shown below. These are most likely indicative of which one of the following ?

a)

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

b)

Diffuse axonal injury

c)

Cortical contusion

d)

Global hypoxic brain damage

e)

Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis

118.

A 32-year-old recent immigrant from Southeast Asia presents with back pain and a new kyphotic deformity after tripping up in his flat. T1and T2 WMRI are shown. Which one of the following is most likely diagnosis?

a)

Ankylosing spondylitis

b)

Discitis

c)

Multiple myeloma

d)

Pyogenic vertebral osteomyelitis

e)

Spinal tuberculosis

119.

A 62-year-old with known metastatic renal cell cancer presents with unbearable back pain and lower extremity myelopathy after a fall. Her imaging is displayed in the accompanying figures. The best management strategy of this lesion would be:

a)

Stereotactic radiosurgery

b)

Kyphoplasty/Vertebroplasty followed by
radiotherapy

c)

Conventional external beam radiotherapy

d)

Laminectomy and resection of epidural disease followed by radiotherapy

e)

Vertebrectomy with posterior stabilization followed by radiotherapy

120.

The  pathology  sample  shown  here  was  taken  from  a 30 year-old  woman  with  an  incidental  mass  found on headache  evaluation.  Which  of  the  following  pathological  hallmarks  is  demonstrated  in  the  photomicrograph?

a)

Pseudopalisading  necrosis  and  microvascular proliferation

b)

Meningothelial  nests  and  whirls

c)

Rosenthal  fibers

d)

Pseudorosettes

e)

Homer  Wright  rosettes

121.

An 8-year-old child with Down syndrome presents to the emergency department with decreased neck movements three days following an adenoidectomy and tonsillectomy. On examination, he is not in distress. He is afebrile and able to speak normally. His oral intake has been limited to small amounts of clear liquids. He is uncooperative, and so Kernig and Brudzinski signs cannot be assessed. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Eagle syndrome

b)

Atlanto-axial subluxation

c)

Velopharyngeal insufficiency

d)

Meningitis

122.

A 47-year-old diabetic woman presents with pain across her buttocks and bilateral lower extremities with ambulation, improved by leaning forward. She reports transient response to epidural injections and no response to NSAIDs and neuropathic pain medication. She has no neurologic deficit. Imaging is shown (figures). What intervention is most likely to best reduce her disability over 4 years ?

a)

L4-5 laminectomy

b)

L4-5 decompression and fusion

c)

Bilateral L4-5 hemilaminotomies with preservation of midline structures

d)

Long-term corticosteroids

e)

L4-5 dynamic interspinous spacer placement

123.

A 72-year-old male develops a worsening headache over the course of 3 weeks. There is no relevant past medical history, except for a minor head injury 6 weeks ago. On examination there is no focal deficit. CT head is shown. In the UK, which one of the following is the appropriate next management?

a)

Twist drill craniotomy

b)

Single burr hole with or without subdural drain

c)

Human prothrombin complex concentrate

d)

Dexamethasone 2 mg twice daily

e)

Minicraniotomy and excision of membranes

124.

A 55-year-old female with obesity presents for a right breast mass removal. She is considered for an erector spinae plane block that could potentially reduce her pain during and after surgery. The block is technically difficult to perform due to the patient's body habitus, but the proceduralist finally able to successfully place an ESP catheter. Which adverse effect is most likely to occur in this patient as a result of the ESP catheter placement?

a)

Shortness of breath

b)

Muscle rigidity

c)

Severe hoarseness

d)

Horner syndrome

125.

Which of the following conditions is depicted in the magnetic resonance image (MRI) shown?

a)

Holoprosencephaly

b)

Schizencephaly

c)

Polymicrogyria

d)

Periventricular nodular heterotopia

e)

Porencephaly

126.

A 45-year-old man is involved in a high-speed road traffic accident and was GCS E2V3M4 at the scene. He was intubated and ventilated and transferred to a trauma center. En route, his left pupil became sluggish and mannitol was administered. CT head scan is shown. Given the scenario and type of injury shown, which one of the following is the LEAST appropriate indication for surgery according to current guidelines?

a)

Midline shift greater than 5 mm

b)

GCS score less than 9, with or without
ICP > 20 mmHg

c)

Documented drop in GCS by 2 or more
points since injury

d)

Asymmetric or fixed and dilated pupils

e)

Thickness greater than 10 mm

127.

A 36-year-old restrained driver presented after a motor vehicle collision. What is the classification of the spinal injury illustrated in the figure ?

a)

Teardrop fracture

b)

Fracture dislocation

c)

Chance fracture

d)

Compression fracture

e)

Burst fracture

128.

Which one of the following statements regarding the lesion shown is LEAST accurate ?

a)

Pattern represents about 20% of cases
of moderate TBI cerebral contusions

b)

Due to acceleration/deceleration injury

c)

Associated with ascending transalar
herniation

d)

Decompressive craniectomy would
require cutting the anterior falx

e)

Cerebral edema usually peaks between
day 5 and 10

129.

A sagittal, upright long-cassette radiograph is shown (figure) for a 54-year-old woman with a history of T12-L5 instrumented fusion 2 months ago who now presents with back and thigh pain. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely based on her history and imaging ?

a)

Instrumentation failure

b)

Flatback syndrome

c)

Pseudarthrosis

d)

Adjacent segment disease

e)

Sagittal spinal imbalance

130.

A 16-year-old male presented to his primary care provider with right earache and pus discharge for the past four days. He had flu one week ago after which his current symptoms developed. He was started on oral antibiotic therapy. After one week, he presents to the emergency department with neck rigidity and projectile vomiting for the past 2 hours. Computed tomography (CT) of the head reveals partial opacification of the mastoid air cells and leptomeningeal enhancement. What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?

a)

Sinusitis

b)

Postauricular abscess

c)

Mastoiditis

d)

Acute otitis media

131.

A 29-year-old is assaulted and is GCS E3V4M5 at the scene. On examination there is significant bruising to the right side of his head with a 5-cm laceration and does not appear to have any focal neurological deficit. He is awaiting a CT scan when you are told he is less responsive. On examination, he is GCS E2V3M4, his right pupil is dilated and on application of painful stimulus appears to only be moving his left side. Which one of the following is most likely to be responsible for these findings?

a)

Transalar (transsphenoidal) herniation

b)

Unilateral uncal herniation

c)

Ascending transtentorial herniation

d)

Tonsillar herniation through the foramen magnum

e)

Subfalcine herniation

132.

You are asked to see a 6-month-old infant who sustained a skull fracture after his older brother accidentally pulled down the flat screen TV that landed on the infant’s head. Follow-up CT scan is demonstrated below. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Growing skull fracture

b)

Arachnoid cyst

c)

Intraparenchymal hemorrhage

d)

Normal bone healing

133.

According to randomized control trials of hemicraniectomy for malignant MCA infarction, what is the time frame for the performance of hemicraniectomy associated with reduced mortality?

a)

48 hours

b)

6 hours

c)

12 hours

d)

24 hours

e)

3 hours

134.

Which one of the following pathologies is most likely to give the appearances shown ?

a)

Anterior communicating artery aneurysm

b)

Basilar tip aneurysm

c)

Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

d)

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery aneurysm

e)

Middle cerebral artery aneurysm

135.

A 60-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with fever, back pain, and < 24 hours of acute onset 2/5 motor weakness in the lower extremities. Thoracic MRI (Figure 1) and CT (Figure 2) imaging is performed. What is the most appropriate management for this patient’s acute neurologic deficits ?

a)

Thoracic laminectomy

b)

Kyphoplasty

c)

Corpectomy and instrumented fusion

d)

Percutaneous aspiration

e)

Antibiotic therapy and external orthosis

136.

A 21-year-old female presented to the emergency department after a new-onset seizure. Before this, she was complaining of a severe headache with blurred vision for the last 2 days. Physical examination demonstrates a somnolent female with normal vitial signs and bilateral papilledema. She has mild weakness of her right face, arm, and leg. Computed tomographic (CT) imaging of the head without contrast and CT angiography of the brain with contrast are shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

a)

Intravenous  (IV) antihypertensive

b)

IV unfractionated heparin

c)

Oral aspirin

d)

Hematoma evacuation

e)

IV corticosteroid

137.

A 33-year-old man presents with spontaneous tinnitus and nausea. Which one of the following is most likely based on the imaging shown ?

a)

Arteriovenous malformation

b)

Cavernous angioma

c)

Hemangioblastoma

d)

Intracerebral hemorrhage

e)

Medulloblastoma

138.

What is the Fisher score in a patient with a 2 mm thick subarachnoid hemorrhage with no intraventricular or parenchymal extension?

a)

V

b)

I

c)

IV

d)

III

e)

II

139.

A 75-year-old man with a history of recent memory impairment is admitted with headache, confusion, and a left homonymous hemianopsia. There is no history of hypertension or malignancy. Non-contrast CT scan and GRE MRI are shown. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms and signs

a)

Multi-infarct dementia

b)

Mycotic aneurysm

c)

Amyloid angiopathy

d)

Undiagnosed hypertension

e)

Gliomatosis cerebri

140.

Which one of the following is most likely given the image below ?

a)

Arachnoid cyst

b)

Cavernous sinus meningioma

c)

Craniopharyngioma

d)

Giant cavernous aneurysm

e)

Pituitary macroadenoma

141.

The North American Symptomatic Carotid Endarterectomy Trial (NASCET) reported the surgical results in patients who underwent carotid endarterectomy (CEA). According to the trial, what is the rate of perioperative permanent disabling stroke and death related to CEA?

a)

<5%

b)

10-15%

c)

15-20%

d)

20-25%

e)

5-10%

142.

A 37-year-old man presents with seizures. Which one of the following is NOT thought to increase risk of hemorrhage in this type of lesion ?

a)

Deep venous drainage

b)

Intranidal aneurysm

c)

Prior hemorrhage

d)

Single draining vein

e)

Smoking

143.

A 27-year-old presents with a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. On examination there is no residual neurological deficit or speech disturbance. Some spots of calcification are seen on CT therefore MRI is performed. Which one of the following statements regarding this type of tumor is LEAST accurate?

a)

Functional mapping is a perquisite for resection

b)

MRS findings may include increased 2-hydroxyglutarate

c)

Prognosis is related to extent of resection

d)

The majority of patients with dominant hemisphere lesions of this type presentwith seizures

e)

Tumor margins are usually seen best on T1+gad MRI sequences

144.

What factor is most predictive of postoperative intracerebral hemorhage after carotid endarterectomy?

a)

Calcified plaque

b)

Length of stenosis

c)

Female sex

d)

Cerebral hypoperfusion

e)

Young age

145.

Which one of the following pathologies is most likely demonstrated by the angiogram ?

a)

Anterior choroidal artery aneurysm

b)

Basilar tip aneurysm

c)

MCA bifurcation

d)

PCA aneurysm

e)

Supraophthalmic aneurysm

146.

Which one of the following clinical findings would you look for in this patient ?

a)

Abducens palsy

b)

Absent corneal reflex

c)

Bitemporal hemianopia

d)

Oculomotor palsy

e)

Pituitary dysfunction

147.

You are evaluating a 45-year-old man who experienced a first-time seizure; subsequent MRI was performed and is demonstrated below. What would be useful during surgical resection of this mass?

a)

Motor mapping

b)

Awake language mapping

c)

Somatosensory evoked potentials

d)

EMG

148.

Which one of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for the finding in the angiogram ?

a)

Connective tissue disorder

b)

Infection

c)

Traumatic dissection

d)

Neoplasia

e)

Toxin

149.

A 26-year-old male presents after a motor vehicle crash with absent right and partially preserved left lower extremity motor function (more than half of left leg muscles have less than antigravity strength). Sensation to pain and temperature is markedly diminished in the left leg. Proprioception is markedly diminished in the right leg. Neuroimaging studies are obtained and depicted in Figures 1 and 2. Which spinal cord syndrome BEST describes the injury?

a)

Brown-Sequard

b)

Central cord

c)

Anterior spinal

d)

Cauda equina

e)

Posterior cord

150.

A 44 year old man with a history of blunt head trauma 4 days earlier presents with a progressively pulsatile exophthalmus, headache, and double vision. A CT head performed after his initial trauma was normal. What is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?

a)

Urgent endovascular repair

b)

Craniotomy for open repair

c)

Delayed endovascular repair

d)

Radiation

e)

A trial of manual direct compression of cervical carotid 3-4x daily

151.

A 66-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a first-time seizure and an MRI was performed which is demonstrated below. What is the next best step?

a)

Total spine MRI

b)

CT chest, abdomen, and pelvis

c)

Gamma knife

d)

Whole brain radiation

152.

The following appearances are seen during endovascular treatment of an anterior communicating artery aneurysm. What is the next appropriate management step ?

a)

Ask the anesthetist to reduce systolic
blood pressure to 100 mmHg

b)

Check pupillary reflexes and perform CT head

c)


Continue with endovascular
treatment

d)

ICP monitoringn

e)

Insertion of external ventricular drai

153.

What are the standard radiographic criteria for ventriculomegaly in order to diagnose hydrocephalus?

a)

Frontal horns are >20% of the brain width

b)

Frontal horns are >30% of the brain width

c)

Temporal horns width > 1 mm

d)

Frontal horns are >50% of brain width

e)

Temporal horns width >0.5 mm

154.

Placement of lumbar pedicle screws at L3 and L4 level should use which one of the following entry points ?

a)

The site where the transverse process joins the superior articular process just lateral to the pars interarticularis

b)

The site where the lamina joins the superior articular process just lateral to the pars interarticularis

c)

The site where the transverse process joins the inferior articular process just lateral to the pars interarticularis

d)

The site where the lamina joins the inferior articular process just lateral to the pars interarticularis

e)

The pars interarticularis

155.

You are evaluating a 33-year-old man who experienced a first-time seizure; subsequent MRI was performed and is demonstrated below. If you decided to operate on this patient, what operative adjunct would be useful in this case?

a)

Motor mapping

b)

Diffusion tensor imaging

c)

Awake language mapping

d)

Somatosensory evoked potentials

e)

EMG

156.

After invasive grid monitoring and mapping of eloquent cortex, surgical resection is recommended for a 19-year-old man with drug-resistant epilepsy. The patient’s seizures involve speech arrest with tonic posturing of the upper extremities in a “fencing posture.” Where is the likely seizure focus ?

a)

Primary motor cortex

b)

Supplementary motor area

c)

Primary sensory cortex

d)

Mesial temporal lobe

e)

Lateral temporal lobe

157.

The primary goal of dynamic stabilization techniques in the spine is best described as which one of the following ?

a)

Produce less stress on adjacent vertebral segments

b)

Reduce implant failure

c)

Reduce motion between segments compared to currently available constructs

d)

Increase the rate of spinal arthrodesis

e)

Avoid the need for pedicle screw placement

158.

A patient presented to your clinic for treatment of a low-flow indirect carotid cavernous fistula. You are performing the exposure for a direct cannulation of the superior ophthalmic vein. You have made your superior sulcus incision and opened the orbicularis oculi and orbital septum. You are unable to identify the superior ophthalmic vein, even after tracing back the supraorbital vein. What is the next best operative step?

a)

Discontinue the operation. I will not be possible to cannulate the superior ophthalmic vein in this scenario

b)

Perform a lateral orbitotomy to expose the superior ophthalmic vein in the lateral orbital wall

c)

Continue aggressive dissection within the orbital fat pad to identify the superior ophthalmic vein

d)

Make an additional eyebrow incision to facilitate an orbitofrontal bone flap. The superior ophthalmic vein will be identified running immediately under the superior rectus muscle

159.

A 55-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of progressive right hemiparesis. A contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance  image of the brain was obtained in the emergency room and  is shown  here. What is the most likely diagnosis for the lesion shown?

a)

Meningioma

b)

Glioblastoma

c)

Central nervous system(CNS) lymphoma

d)

Ependymoma

e)

Metastasis

160.

The spinal construct shown below would most likely have been used for which one of the following ?

a)

Basilar invagination in
rheumatoid arthritis

b)

C3 vertebral body metastasis

c)

Hangman fracture

d)

Jefferson fracture

e)

Type II odontoid peg fracture

161.

When counseling a patient regarding temporal lobectomy for temporal lobe epilepsy, what is the most consistent and important predictor of a very favorable outcome after surgery ?

a)

Duration of epilepsy 20 years

b)

Confirmation of laterality based on invasive monitoring

c)

Male gender

d)

Greater than 50 years old

e)

Absence of generalized seizures preoperatively

162.

Site of entry for thoracic pedicle screw is best described as which one of the following ?

a)

Where the facet joint and transverse process intersect

b)

Where the pars interarticularis and lamina intersect

c)

Where the superior facet and lamina intersect

d)

Where the inferior facet and lamina intersect

e)

Where the transverse process and lamina intersect

163.

A 14-year-old male presents with a 9 cm, highly vascular mass centered in the posterior nasal cavity and sphenopalatine foramen invading the infratemporal fossa (ITF), middle cranial fossa, and cavernous sinus. Staged surgical resection is being planned. Which of the following is the best imaging modality to evaluate this patient's vascular anatomy for preoperative planning?

a)

CT angiography (CTA)

b)

MR angiography (MRA)

c)

Angiography

d)

Doppler ultrasound

164.

A 65-year-old presents with difficulty initiating movements, rigidity, and a mild resting tremor. Which of the following neurotransmitters is likely deficient in this patient ?

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Serotonin

d)

GABA

e)

Dopamine

165.

EMG abnormalities in which one of the following muscles is LEAST specific for C5 radiculopathy?

a)

Infraspinatus

b)

Levator scapulae

c)

Pronator teres

d)

Rhomboids

e)

Supraspinatus

166.

Which one of the following is most likely based on the MRI shown ?

a)

Basilar invagination

b)

Corpus callosum agenesis

c)

Hydrocephalus

d)

Lissencephaly

e)

Type II Chiari malformation

167.

A 6-year-old boy is brought to the emergency  department by his parents  for 3 weeks of headache, 2 weeks of increasing ataxia, and 2 days of headache and vomiting. A magnetic resonance image is obtained, and postcontrast T1 sagittal imaging is shown. Based on the most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the best first treatment?

a)

Intravenous antibiotics

b)

Surgical resection

c)

Embolization

d)

Intravenous chemotherapy

e)

Craniospinal radiation

168.

MRI shows the appearances below, and the lesion is bright on T2WI and dark on fat suppression sequences and does not show any contrast enhancement. Which one of the following is most likely ?

a)

Colloid cyst

b)

Craniopharyngioma

c)

Intracranial lipoma

d)

Intraventricular hemorrhage

e)

Pericallosal aneurysm

169.

Which one of the following is most likely based on the MRI shown ?

a)

Blake’s pouch cyst

b)

Chiari III malformation

c)

Dandy–Walker malformation

d)

Joubert’s syndrome

e)

Mega cisterna magna

170.

Which one of the following is most likely based on the MRI shown?

a)

Arachnoid cyst

b)

Dandy–Walker variant

c)

Epidermoid cyst

d)

Medulloblastoma

e)

Type II Chiari malformation

171.

A child undergoes MRI scan as part of epilepsy evaluation after two seizures unrelated to febrile episodes. There are no symptoms of hydrocephalus. MRI appearances are shown, and there is no diffusion restriction. Which one of the following is most likely ?

a)

Arachnoid cyst

b)

Dandy–Walker malformation

c)

Epidermoid cyst

d)

Mega cisterna magna

e)

Type III Chiari malformation

172.

Which one of the following is most likely based on the imaging shown below ?

a)

Lissencephaly with band
heterotopia

b)

Porencephalic cyst

c)

Pachygyria

d)

Schizencephaly

e)

Semilobar
holoprosencephaly

173.

A 24-year-old man has refractory complex partial seizures localized to the left temporal lobe with EEG. MRI is consistent with left mesial temporal sclerosis. What is the most appropriate next step in his management ?

a)

Vagal nerve stimulation

b)

Corpus callosotomy

c)

Intracarotid amytal test (WADA test)

d)

Temporal lobectomy

e)

Invasive EEG monitoring

174.

Which one of the following is most likely based on the imaging shown below ?

a)

Atretic cephalocele

b)

Encephalocele
(meningoencephalocele)

c)

Gliocle

d)

Meningocele

e)

Meningoencephalocystocele

175.

A newborn infant has an apneic event with cyanosis and he was brought to the hospital. His evaluation was remarkable for developmental delay, bilateral lower-extremity frog-leg flaccid paralysis, with a large open defect in his lower back. At birth, the defect was covered by a transparent membrane, which subsequently ruptured and drained clear fluid for several weeks. Based on the imaging below, what is the cause of the infant’s apneic events ?

a)

Dermal sinus tract

b)

Dorsal enteric fistula

c)

Lipomyelomeningocele

d)

Myelocele

e)

Type II Chiari malformation

176.

A 63-year-old woman with Parkinson disease undergoes unilateral deep brain stimulator (DBS) electrode implantation. Three months later, she returns to the office with redness, pain, swelling, and purulence from the cranial incision. Culture grows methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus. What is the most appropriate management ?

a)

Removal of the implantable pulse generator (IPG) only

b)

Removal of the intracranial lead only

c)

Removal of the entire hardware system with antibiotics

d)

Removal of the implantable pulse generator (IPG) and extension with antibiotics

e)

Antibiotics only

177.

A 4 year-old boy with a history of congenital hydrocephalus and VP shunt placement near birthpresented one week following proximal shunt revision with lethargy, fevers to 38.4 C and erythema along the shunt tract. He underwent complete removal of the VP shunt system and placement of an external ventricular drain. CSF cultures grow MSSA and the patient is started on intravenous oxacillin, when should the shunt be replaced?

a)

After 21 days of negative CSF cultures

b)

After 3 days of negative CSF cultures

c)

After 1 day of negative CSF cultures

d)

After 5 days of negative CSF cultures

e)

After 10 days of negative CSF cultures

178.

You plan to perform a foramen magnum decompression on the patient shown below. Which one of the following investigations may be helpful ?

a)

CSF flow study

b)

CT cisternography

c)

CT cervical angiogram

d)

Flexion/extension X-rays

e)

Nerve conduction studies

179.

A 36-year-old man presents with a 1-year history of  gradual bilateral hearing loss, a sense of aural fullness, and progressively impaired balance. He has a history of juvenile cataracts, and his  brother and father have similar difficulties with their hearing. A brain magnetic resonance image (MRI) with contrast is shown. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

a)

Medulloblastoma

b)

Leptomeningeal metastases from unknown  primary tumor

c)

Bilateral vestibular schwannomas

d)

Glioblastoma

e)

Meningioma

180.

A 6-month-old girl with a lipomyelomeningocele is undergoing surgical detethering of their lumbar lipoma, filum sectioning, arachnoid adhesion lysis, and aggressive debulking of the intradural lipoma to the margins of the neural placode. What is the next surgical step?

a)

Further lipoma resection until a gross total resection is achieved

b)

Patch-graft duraplasty

c)

Primary dural closure with an absorbable, braided suture

d)

Primary dural closure with a nonabsorbable monofilament suture

e)

Pial closure and tubularization of the placode/distal cord

181.

What is the most common side effect of vagus nerve stimulation ?

a)

Dyspnea

b)

Dyspepsia

c)

Wound infection

d)

Voice hoarseness

e)

Cardiac arrhythmia

182.

A 54-year-old male had a good result from left-sided thalamotomy for essential tremor 10 years ago. He now wishes to have his other side treated. What is the MOST appropriate surgical procedure for his contralateral side ?

a)

Subthalamic DBS

b)

Thalamic DBS

c)

Pallidotomy

d)

Pallidal DBS

e)

Thalamotomy

183.

A 56-year-old female presents with neck pain worsened by activity over the last 6 months. On examination, she has full power bilaterally in the upper and lower extremities. She has a normal gait and no difficulties with manual dexterity. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

a)

Posterior laminectomy C5-C7

b)

Physiotherapy

c)

Cervical epidural injection

d)

C5/C6 ACDF

e)

C5/C6 foraminotomy

184.

An 8-year-old boy with cerebral palsy and spastic quadriparesis presents to the emergency room with excessive somnolence. His baclofen pump was adjusted earlier today and his mother notes that he has remarkably little tone now. What is the best pharmacological treatment option ?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Physostigmine

c)

Baclofen

d)

Atropine

e)

Flumazenil

185.

During a pterional exposure of the sylvian fissure, you encounter significant brain swelling. In order to achieve rapid brain relaxation, identify the most appropriate point on the associated figure through which to place a ventriculosotomy and access the frontal horn of the lateral ventricle.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

186.

An ultrasound of a 29-year-old pregnant woman reveals a lumbar myelomeningocele in the fetus. What is the primary difference in outcome for fetal myelomeningocele repair as opposed to post-natal repair?

a)

The chance of maternal pregnancy complications is not affected

b)

The odds of walking without devices or braces decreases

c)

The likelihood of premature birth is not affected

d)

The risk of symptomatic hindbrain herniation increases

e)

The rate of shunt placement for hydrocephalus decreases

187.

A 33-year-old woman with no neurological history complains of subtle left upper extremity weakness without headache or other symptoms. She is noted to have a mild left hemiparesis and otherwise normal neurological examination. EEG is normal. The MR scan is shown (figure). A stereotactic biopsy yields no evidence of glioma. What is the most likely diagnosis ?

a)

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

b)

Lymphoma

c)

Demyelinating plaque

d)

Glioblastoma multiforme

e)

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

188.

A 37-year-old man presents with worsening low back pain and right L5 radicular pain and a normal examination. Lumbar spine MRI (Figure 1) and CT (Figure 2) are shown. Work-up revealed this solitary lesion. What is the most appropriate next step in management ?

a)

External beam radiotherapy

b)

Observation with serial imaging

c)

Surgical excision and stabilization

d)

Open surgical biopsy

e)

CT-guided biopsy

189.

Histopathology of a cerebellopontine angle tumor is shown in the figures below. The findings are most consistent with what type of pathology ?

a)

Psammomatous meningioma

b)

Endolymphatic sac tumor

c)

Choroid plexus papilloma

d)

Schwannoma

e)

Cholesteatoma

190.

A 45-year-old male presents with several months of progressive headaches and an intracranial lesion (figure). Following surgical resection, histopathological analysis demonstrates a well-circumscribed, uniformly cellular tumor with no atypia and numerous ectatic, thin-walled branching vessels in staghorn configurations. Which of the following is a possible associated clinical development ?

a)

Pheochromocytoma

b)

Metastases outside the CNS

c)

Bilateral vestibular schwannomas

d)

Unilateral optic nerve glioma

e)

De novo glioblastoma

191.

A 34-year-old male presents with a several month history of neck pain, with intermittent episodes of arm and leg numbness. MRI is shown. Which one of the following is most likely?

a)

Ependymoma

b)

Ganglioglioma

c)

Meningioma

d)

Neurofibroma

e)

Schwannoma

192.

A 54-year-old man presents with biopsy-proven esthesioneuroblastoma and has a normal neurological exam. MRI shows involvement of the right nasal cavity with minimal intracranial extension through the cribriform plate (Figure 1). There is no cervical adenopathy or evidence of metastatic disease. Which of the following is the best management strategy for this patient ?

a)

Neo-adjuvant radiation therapy followed by
chemotherapy

b)

Surgical resection followed by conformal
radiation therapy to the tumor bed

c)

Surgical resection followed by conformal
radiation therapy to the tumor bed and
systemic chemotherapy

d)

Chemotherapy alone

e)

Surgical resection

193.

A 75-year-old healthy woman suffered a fall 3 months ago and immediately noticed neck pain. She has been treating her pain with over-the-counter medications, but the pain continues to worsen over time. On exam, she has no focal deficits. X-ray (Figure 1) and CT (Figure 2) are depicted. What is the optimal management for this patient ?

a)

Odontoid screw placement

b)

Cervical collar

c)

C1–2 posterior fusion

d)

Occipital–cervical fusion

e)

Halo-vest placement

194.

Which of the following answers most appropriately pairs a sign or symptom of hydrocephalus (or shunt malfunction in the setting of a patient with a shunt) and an appropriate age or patient population?

a)

Adult – suture splaying

b)

Child – tense fontanel

c)

Infant – visual loss

d)

Adult – progressive macrocephaly

e)

Child – decline in IQ or school performance

195.

A 47-year-old woman presented with a first seizure and underwent magnetic resonance imaging of the brain with multi-voxel spectroscopy. The spectroscopy shown in Figure 1 is most consistent with what diagnosis ?

a)

Bacterial abscess

b)

Meningioma

c)

Toxoplasmosis

d)

Glial neoplasm

e)

Demyelinating plaque

196.

What is the most likely craniosynostosis adepicted in this image?

a)

Bilateral Coronal synostosis

b)

Cloverleaf (Kleeblattschadel)

c)

Lambdoid synostosis

d)

Metopic synostosis

e)

Sagittal synostosis

197.

A 16-year-old boy presents with headaches, nausea, and blurred vision. His neurological examination is remarkable for impaired upgaze and convergence nystagmus. Contrast-enhanced MRI of the brain is shown (figure). Serum beta-HCG and alpha-fetoprotein levels are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis ?

a)

Endodermal sinus tumor

b)

Embryonal carcinoma

c)

Germinoma

d)

Choriocarcinoma

e)

Meningioma

198.

A 12-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a new-onset headache and blurry vision for 6 hours. The patient denies a history of prior seizures. Past medical history includes a right-hand corrective surgery for polydactyly at eight months of age. The neurological examination reveals no abnormalities. CT head without contrast shows a mass in the suprasellar region. MRI of the brain further confirms the presence of a hypothalamic hamartoma. A rare genetic disorder is suspected. Which of the following best describes the patient's clinical syndrome?

a)

Pallister-Hall syndrome

b)

Greig cephalopolysyndactyly syndrome

c)

Oral-facial-digital syndrome

d)

Acrocallosal syndrome

199.

A 58-year-old right-handed male presents with bifrontal headaches and a partial left ophthalmoplegia. MRI results are shown. Biopsy revealed this tumor to be a chordoma. An extensive subtotal skull-based resection was performed. Which is the best choice for adjuvant therapy regimen ?

a)

Stereotactic radiosurgery

b)

Procarbazine, CCNU and vincristine (PCV)
chemotherapy

c)

Conventional fractionated radiotherapy

d)

Proton beam radiotherapy

e)

Brachytherapy

200.

A 12-year-old boy presents complaining of left eye visual loss and occasional headache. Endocrine evaluation reveals the presence of mild diabetes insipidus and hypothyroidism. His MRI is shown in Figure 1 & 2. You recommend an attempt at complete tumor resection. Which of the following is the most likely surgical complication ?

a)

Seizure disorder

b)

Mutism

c)

Hydrocephalus

d)

Pan-hypopituitarism

e)

Blindness

201.

Which one of the following is most likely based on the imaging shown?

a)

Alobar holoprosencephaly

b)

Anencephaly

c)

Dandy-Walker malformation

d)

Porencephalic cyst

e)

Schizencephaly

202.

A 10-year-old boy presents with headache and imbalance. Examination discloses mild papilledema, right-sided dysmetria, and ataxia. MRI with contrast is shown in the figure. What is the most important prognostic factor for this patient ?

a)

The presence of endothelial proliferation
on histology

b)

The extent of resection of the cyst walls

c)

The presence of hydrocephalus at
presentation

d)

The extent of resection of the enhancing
mass

e)

The presence of mitoses on histology

203.

A 9-year-old girl presents with headache and vomiting. On examination there is bilateral papilledema but she is otherwise neurologically stable. MRI is performed. Which one of the following is the next appropriate step?

a)

ICP monitoring

b)

Lumbar puncture

c)

Serum AFP and HCG

d)

External ventricular drain

e)

Endoscopic third ventriculostomy and biopsy of lesion

204.

A 76 year-old undergoes a craniotomy for evacuation of a subdural hematoma. Three days later, the patient is noted to have increased confusion and a heart rate of 102 bpm. His blood pressure is 83/52, and his respiratory rate is 31 breaths per minute. The nurse measures a temperature of 38.5 degrees C. He has coarse breath sounds and his urine output was 15cc/hr over the prior 6 hours. His symptoms do not respond to a saline bolus. What is the most appropriate next step?

a)

Send blood cultures and start broad spectrum antibiotics

b)

Obtain EKG and send cardiac enzymes

c)

Obtain a CT chest to rule out pulmonary embolus

d)

Administer a diuretic

e)

Send the patient for a STAT repeat head CT

205.

An 8-month-old female child who previously fell from a changing table. She presented on referral from her pediatrician for evaluation of a left frontoparietal mass. Which one of the following management strategies is most appropriate?

a)

Cranioplasty

b)

Conservative management

c)

Dural repair

d)

Duraplasty and autologous cranioplasty

e)

Head bandage

206.

A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle crash. His Glasgow Coma Scale score is 13. He begins to have seizure activity in the emergency department and the seizure is continuing after several minutes. What is the pharmacologic treatment of choice for the seizure?

a)

Pancuronium

b)

Paraldehyde

c)

Phenobarbital

d)

Phenytoin

e)

Lorazepam

207.

A 58-year-old male who sustained traumatic fractures to the upper cervical spine following a motor vehicle accident. After a detailed evaluation of the fracture characteristics and imaging studies, you recommend posterior instrumentation and fusion from the occiput to C2. The patient asks you how would this affect his range of motion. You should inform him that he would probably experience which one of the following?

a)

A decrease in cervical spine rotation of 50%.

b)

A decrease in cervical spine flexion-extension of 50%.

c)

Decrease of cervical spine rotation of 50% and a decrease of cervical spine flexion-extension of 50%.

d)

Decrease of cervical spine rotation of 50% and a decrease of cervical spine flexion-extension of 10%.

208.

A 47 year old man presents with confusion, agitation, fatigue, fever (104F), hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, and hypotension after resection of a right frontal metastasis lesion 3 weeks ago. Phenytoin and steroids were discontinued at 2.5 weeks post-operatively. Head CT reveals no acute abnormality. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

a)

Heparin

b)

Fosphenytoin

c)

Fludricortisone

d)

Haloperidol

e)

Hydrocortisone

209.

The lesion marked by the arrows in the following MRI will most likely cause

a)

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

b)

Gelastic seizures

c)

Absence seizures

d)

Panhypopituitarism

e)

Metastasis

210.

A 78-year-old man with a 10-year history of intermittent chronic neck pain has cervical spine X-rays (Figure 1) and MRI (Figure 2). The patient denies any current neck pain, radiculopathy, or subjective symptoms of myelopathy. His exam is normal. What is the recommended management for this patient?

a)

Clinical observation

b)

Immobilization with cervical collar

c)

High-dose steroids and cervical traction

d)

Surgery

e)

Serial MRI

211.

A sagittal, upright long-cassette radiograph is shown (figure) for a 54-year-old woman with a history of T12-L5 instrumented fusion 2 months ago who now presents with back and thigh pain. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely based on her history and imaging?

a)

Adjacent segment disease

b)

Instrumentation failure

c)

Flatback syndrome

d)

Pseudarthrosis

e)

Sagittal spinal imbalance

212.

What finding is more frequently associated with nasal and occipital dermoid cysts compared to other locations ?

a)

Intracranial extension

b)

Hydrocephalus

c)

Superinfection

d)

Cyst rupture

e)

Malignant transformation

213.

A frontal view digital subtraction angiogram following a right carotid artery injection is shown in this image. What is the likely etiology of the lesion demonstrated?

a)

Atherosclerosis

b)

Immune vasculitis

c)

Congenital

d)

Endocarditis

214.

Which one of the following statements regarding moderate traumatic brain injury is LEAST accurate?

a)

Include head injuries with GCS 9-13

b)

30% chance of having a brain lesion (intra- or extra-axial)

c)

Mortality is around 30%

d)

Account for 5-7% of head injury attendances in the emergency department

e)

Includes patients who “talk and die”

215.

A 12-year-old African-American male with a history of asthma presents with fever, lethargy, seizure activity, and left hemiparesis. Inflammatory markers are elevated. After stabilization, a CT head with contrast is obtained (figure). What is the most appropriate next step in management ?

a)

Bedside subdural drain

b)

Craniotomy / craniectomy

c)

Sinus surgery

d)

Lumbar puncture

e)

Burrholes

216.

What anatomic structure is indicated by the arrow in this image?

a)

Oculomotor nerve

b)

Trochlear nerve

c)

Trigeminal nerve

d)

Abducens nerve

e)

Glossopharyngeal nerve

217.

A 4-year-old boy presents with progressive gait dysfunction, headache, and vomiting. A CT shows hyperdense areas suggestive of calcification. The MRI is shown (figures). What is the most likely diagnosis ?

a)

Atypical teratoid / rhabdoid tumor (AT/RT)

b)

Medulloblastoma

c)

Choroid plexus papilloma

d)

Ependymoma

e)

Pilocytic astrocytoma

218.

A 29-year-old is assaulted and is GCS E3V4M5 at the scene. On examination there is significant bruising to the right side of his head with a 5-cm laceration and does not appear to have any focal neurological deficit. He is awaiting a CT scan when you are told he is less responsive. On examination, he is GCS E2V3M4, his right pupil is dilated and on application of painful stimulus appears to only to be moving his left side. Which one of the following is most likely to be responsible for these findings?

a)

Transalar (transsphenoidal) herniation

b)

Unilateral uncal herniation

c)

Ascending transtentorial herniation

d)

Tonsillar herniation through the foramen magnum

e)

Subfalcine herniation

219.

A patient is in coma with the respiratory pattern shown in this image. Where is the patient’s lesion?

a)

Diencephalon or bilateral cerebral hemispheres

b)

Nonorganic (psychogenic origin)

c)

Superior medulla or inferior pons

d)

Superior pons

e)

Medulla

220.

An 8-year old child is brought to the emergency department after being struck by a car while crossing the street. He is not alert. He required immediate intubation at the scene by emergency management services. His Glasgow coma scale is 8. He appears to have a significant laceration of his scalp on the left side, but there are no skeletal fractures. The initial chest x-ray reveals a right-side pneumothorax. A chest tube was inserted. His hematocrit is 30%, and his hemoglobin is 10.6 g/dL. Heart rate is 100 bpm, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, and respirations 20/minute. What is the next step in management?

a)

CT of the head, thorax, and abdomen

b)

Repeat chest x-ray

c)

Repeat blood work

d)

MRI of the head and neck

221.

A 6-month-old infant presents with enlarging head circumference, full anterior fontanelle, splitting of the cranial sutures and developmental delay. The results of a neurological examination are otherwise normal. Computed tomographic scans are obtained (Figures 1 and 2). What is the most likely diagnosis ?

a)

Aqueductal stenosis

b)

Chiari III malformation

c)

Dandy-Walker malformation

d)

Retrocerebellar arachnoid cyst

222.

An 8-year-old female presented with symptoms of persis­tent headaches, nausea, and emesis for 1 week. The patient was somewhat lethargic and was noted to have a mild left hemiparesis on examination. Axial contrasted Tl-weighted MRI illustrates what abnormality?

a)

Pilocytic astrocytoma

b)

Subependymoma

c)

Choroid plexus papilloma

d)

Hemangioblastoma

e)

Medulloblastoma

223.

What is the most appropriate initial management of newly-diagnosed primary CNS lymphoma in an immunocompetent patient?

a)

IV methotrexate

b)

Intrathecal cytarabine

c)

Gross total resection

d)

Stereotactic radiosurgery

e)

Oral temozolomide

224.

A 7-year-old female presents with worsening gait disturbance and upper back pain. A spinal MRI is shown. After surgical exposure, frozen specimen analysis suggests juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma. What is the next best step in intraoperative management ?

a)

Internal debulking and resection until the normal-abnormal boundary is indistinct

b)

Multiple sample biopsies for diagnostic confirmation

c)

Divide dentate ligaments to permit spinal cord rotation

d)

Gross total resection along the tumor capsule

e)

Duraplasty and laminoplasty with no further tumor resection

225.

What abnormality is depicted on the following unen­hanced sagittal Tl-weighted MRI

a)

Pituitary adenoma

b)

Rathke's cleft cyst

c)

Meningioma

d)

Chordoma

e)

Fibrous dysplasia

226.

On histopathology, central neurocytoma has strong positivity with which stain?

a)

S100

b)

Vimentin

c)

EMA

d)

Synapthophysin

e)

GFAP

227.

A 19-year-old male presents with tussive headaches located at the posterior base of the skull. Neurologic examination reveals weakness of the hands bilaterally with hypesthesia. MR of the brain and cervical spine are shown in the figures. What is the best initial management strategy for this presentation?

a)

Posterior fossa decompression

b)

Anterior transoral odontoid resection

c)

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

d)

Syringo-subarachnoid shunt

e)

Posterior cervical decompression

228.

34-year-old male presents with increasing neck and back pain, quadriparesis, and bowel and bladder inconti­nence. His MRl is depicted below. These lesions most likely represent

a)

Spinal ependymomas

b)

Spinal schwannomas

c)

Spinal neurofibromas

d)

Spinal meningiomas

e)

Metastatic disease

229.

A 52 y/o restrained driver presented after a motor vehicle accident with an L2 sensory level, 4/5 strength in his proximal and 4-/5 strength in his distal lower extremities and a severe L2 fracture. What is this patient's ASIA Impairment Scale score (modified Frankel score)?

a)

D

b)

B

c)

E

d)

C

e)

A

230.

An 8-month-old infant was sent for imaging (figures) by his pediatrician because of irritability, poor feeding, and macrocephaly with a bulging fontanel. The preceding pregnancy and delivery had been unremarkable. The infant had been well up until this presentation, and review of systems was noncontributory. What additional diagnostic investigation is indicated ?

a)

Pyloric ultrasound

b)

Measurement of parents' head circumferences

c)

Blood lead level

d)

Dilated funduscopic examination

e)

Urine amino acids

231.

An 8-year-old child with a history of myelomeningocele repair after birth presents with progressive leg weakness and a neurogenic bladder.
An MRI of lumbar spine, shown in this image, suggests:

a)

Syringomyelia secondary to a tethered spinal cord

b)

Idiopathic syringomyelia

c)

Spinal lipoma

d)

Dermoid tumor

e)

Thickened filum terminale

232.

An asymptmatic 2-year-old child with macrocephaly has the finding seen on CT (Figure 1). He has no signs or symptoms of increased intracranial pressure.  Six months later, a routine follow-up MRI is obtained (Figure 2) and repeat testing reveals mild developmental delay and early papilledema. There is no diffusion restriction. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Astrocytoma

b)

Epidermoid

c)

Abscess

d)

Encephalomalacia

e)

Arachnoid cyst

233.

A patient who was shunted for hydrocephalus after intracerebral hemorrhage presents with severe headaches. Head CT is shown. What is the most likely diagnosis ?

a)

New intracranial hemorrhage

b)

Shunt malfunction

c)

Overdrainage

d)

Shunt infection

e)

Post-hemorrhagic headache syndrome

234.

A 4-week-old, 26-week premature infant presents with a Grade IV intraventricular hemorrhage and posthemorrhagic hydrocephalus (Figure 1). Examination reveals stable vital signs, normal head circumference growth curve, and soft anterior fontanelle. Weight is 1.2 kg. What is the best initial management of the hydrocephalus ?

a)

Placement of a ventricular reservoir

b)

Serial lumbar punctures

c)

Placement of external ventricular drain

d)

Creation of a permanent ventriculoperitoneal shunt

e)

Serial cranial ultrasounds with daily head circumference measurements

235.

An 8-year-old boy was evaluated due to short stature and headaches. Sagittal MRI with contrast (figure) is most consistent with what diagnosis ?

a)

Arachnoid cyst

b)

Medulloblastoma

c)

Germinoma

d)

Craniopharyngioma

e)

Pituitary macroadenoma

236.

A 50-year-old patient has a history of right-sided hemiparesis and recurrent seizures. On examination, he has a port-wine stain in the left V1 and V2 distribution. What is the most likely diagnosis ?

a)

Encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis

b)

Tuberculosis with leptomeningeal involvement

c)

Meningioangiomatosis

d)

Neurocutaneous melanosis

e)

Hemorrhagic hereditary telangiectasia (Rendu–Osler–Weber syndrome)

237.

Of the following, which symptom, associated with advanced Parkinson disease and/or its long-term medical treatment, is most reliably controlled by the therapeutic lesion depicted in the magnetic resonance image shown in Figure 1 ?

a)

Akinesia

b)

Levodopa-induced dyskinesia

c)

Tremor

d)

Rigidity

e)

Ataxia

238.

A 50-year-old male patient with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with acute onset left hemiparesis and drowsiness for 24 hours. MRI of the brain is shown. The National Institute of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) score is 16. What treatment option has been shown to decrease mortality rates for such a patient ?

a)

Decompressive hemicraniectomy

b)

External ventricular drainage

c)

Medical management only

d)

Intra-arterial tPA

e)

Mechanical thrombectomy

239.

A 24-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with severe headache and a non-focal neurological examination. A head CT angiogram is shown. What is the most likely diagnosis ?

a)

Aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage

b)

Eclampsia

c)

Posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome

d)

Meningioma

e)

Dural venous sinus thrombosis

240.

A 61-year-old man presents with confusion. Susceptibility-weighted MR imaging demonstrates multiple abnormalities (figure). What is the most likely diagnosis ?

a)

CADASIL (cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and
leukoencephalopathy)

b)

Hypertensive hemorrhages

c)

Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease

d)

Leptomeningeal carcinomatosis

e)

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy

241.

What neurological deficit may result from embolization of the artery with liquid embolics indicated on this angiogram ?

a)

Loss of smell

b)

Unilateral facial palsy

c)

Contralateral hemiparesis

d)

Blindness

e)

Unilateral tongue atrophy

242.

A 30-year-old female, 2 weeks post-partum, presents to the ED after 4 hours with acute onset right hemiplegia, lethargy, and left gaze deviation. Her NIHSS score is 24. Her angiogram is shown. What is the best management option ?

a)

EC/IC bypass

b)

Thrombectomy with stent-retrieval

I

c)

V abciximab

d)

Aspirin

e)

IV tPA

243.

A 44-year-old man presents with seizure, headache, and left visual field cut. MRI is shown. What is the most likely benefit of embolization for this lesion ?

a)

Complete obliteration of the AVM

b)

Decreased risk of rupture before further therapy

c)

Improvement of vision

d)

Reducing AVM volume for subsequent treatment

e)

Decreased risk of seizures

244.

Which vein is indicated by the arrow in the figure ?

a)

Basal vein of Rosenthal

b)

Vein of Galen

c)

Internal cerebral vein

d)

Vein of Trolard

e)

Thalamostriate vein

245.

A 54-year-old man presents with acute onset of right neck pain radiating to his jaw. He denies any other symptoms. His clinical findings are demonstrated on the photograph below. Which of the following would be the most appropriate imaging study to order ?

a)

MRI of the brain and orbits

b)

MRI of the cervical spine

c)

CT angiogram of the neck

d)

CT scan of the chest

e)

CT angiogram of the head

246.

A 38-year-old presents with a one-month history of difficulty swallowing, mild hoarseness, and right facial numbness and tingling. The imaging studies are shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis ?

a)

Medulloblastoma

b)

Capillary hemangioma

c)

Arteriovenous malformation

d)

PICA aneurysm

e)

Cavernous angioma

247.

An 80-year-old male presents with headache, confusion, and the accompanying MR imaging (figure). If the perfusion MRI demonstrates low relative cerebral blood flow, what is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Primary CNS lymphoma

b)

Metastatic adenocarcinoma

c)

Glioblastoma multiforme

d)

Low grade glioma

e)

ependymoma

248.

A 62 year old with known metastatic renal cell cancer presents with unbearable back pain and lower extremity myelopathy after a fall. Her imaging is displayed in the accompanying figures. The best management strategy of this lesion would be:

a)

Laminectomy and resection of epidural disease followed by radiotherapy

b)

Conventional external beam radiotherapy

c)

Stereotactic Radiosurgery

d)

Vertebrectomy with posterior stabilization followed by radiotherapy

e)

Kyphoplasty/Vertebroplasty followed by radiotherapy

249.

A 47 year-old diabetic woman presents with pain across her buttocks and bilateral lower extremities with ambulation, improved by leaning forward. She reports transient response to epidural injections and no response to NSAIDs and neuropathic pain medication. She has no neurologic deficit. Imaging is shown (figures). What intervention is most likely to best reduce her disability over 4 years?

a)

L4-5 decompression and fusion

b)

L4-5 laminectomy

c)

Bilateral L4-5 hemilaminotomies with preservation of midline structures

d)

L4-5 dynamic interspinous spacer placement

e)

Long term corticosteroids

250.

A 37-year-old HIV positive male presents with headache, confusion, new right-sided weakness progressing over the previous week. He has been on highly active retroviral therapy for the last 10 years and not had any problems. On examination, his responses are slow and he has some difficulty sustaining attention. He has a right hemiparesis with increased reflexes on the right. FBC, U+E and CRP are normal. T1 contrast MRI is shown. Which one of the following organisms is the most likely cause?

a)

Cryptococcus neoformans

b)

Herpes zoster

c)

Pneumocystic jerovecii

d)

Toxoplasma gondii

e)

Tuberculosis

251.

A 29-year-old ex-IVDU who previously underwent aspiration of a brain abscess and prolonged inpatient antibiotic course re-presents after several generalized tonic- clonic seizures progressing into status epilepticus. Contrast CT head is shown. What is the next appropriate action?

a)

Cerebral angiogram

b)

Decompressive craniectomy

c)

External ventricular drain

d)

Lumbar drain

e)

Palliative care

252.

A 27-year-old immigrant from South America presents with a generalized seizure. After awakening, he relates that he has had two or three episodes of unexplained loss of consciousness in the past 2 years. He has otherwise been healthy and worked as a farmer. His examination is normal. MRI head was performed and T2 and T1+GAD images are shown. What is the most likely organism?

a)

Histoplasma

b)

Mucor

c)

Schistosoma mansonii

d)

Taenia solium

e)

Toxoplasma gondii

253.

An 8-year-old boy was evaluated due to short stature and headaches. Sagittal MRI with contrast (figure) is most consistent with what diagnosis?

a)

Craniopharyngioma

b)

Arachnoid cyst

c)

Germinoma

d)

Medulloblastoma

e)

Pituitary macroadenoma

254.

In a patient with the MRI shown in the figure, a tumor in what other location would increase the probability of germinoma?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Supersellar region

c)

Orbit

d)

Fourth ventricle

e)

Brainstem

255.

A 25 year old patient is involved in a motor vehicle accident and is intubated and sedated in the field before a complete neurological examination can be obtained. His non-contrast head CT is shown. (figure 1) What is the appropriate next step in management?

a)

Obtain an urgent MRI with diffusion weighted imaging

b)

Place an intracranial pressure monitor and admit to ICU

c)

Take to the OR for an emergent craniotomy for evacuation of hematoma

d)

Awaken the patient for neurological examination

256.

MRI shows the appearances below, and the lesion is bright on T2WI and dark on fat sup- pression sequences and does not show any contrast enhancement. Which one of the following is most likely?

a)

Colloid cyst

b)

Craniopharyngioma

c)

Intracranial lipoma

d)

Intraventricular haemorrhage

e)

Pericallosal aneurysm

257.

A 9-year-old girl visits her optometrist because of a 1-month progressive history of blurry vision and headaches. The optometrist notes papilledema. Imaging is obtained. What course of action is indicated?

a)

Endoscpic third ventriculostomy

b)

LP shunt insertion

c)

Stereotactic biopsy

d)

Conformal radiation therapy

e)

Lumbar puncture for cytology and markers

258.

The current model of basal ganglia physiology suggests that the 'negative symptoms' of Parkinson disease (i.e., rigidity and bradykinesia) are attributable to which of the following physiological events:

a)

Excessive glutamatergic input from the disinhibited subthalamic nucleus results in GPi hyperactivity.

b)

The hyperactive GPi hyperinhibits the ventrolateral (VL) nucleus of the thalamus.

c)

Inhibitory input to the globus pallidus pars internus (GPi) via the direct pathway from the striatum is decreased.

d)

Glutamatergic input from the VL thalamus to the supplementary motor area is decrease

e)

All of the above

259.

A 38 year old male experiences severe acute right arm pain and then develops severe deltoid weakness and mild biceps and triceps weakness. After 6 weeks, he seeks consultation. Axial MRI imaging at C4-5 and C5-6 are shown. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

a)

CT myelogram

b)

EMG/NCS

c)

ACDF C4-5 and C5-6

d)

Cervical traction

e)

Epidural steroid injection

260.

You are seeing a patient with new onset foot drop and dorsal foot numbness and pain. You obtain the following MRI. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Intraneural ganglion cyst

b)

Tibial nerve hematoma

c)

Peroneal nerve schwannoma

d)

Baker cyst

e)

Tibulofibular joint dislocation

261.

A 23 year-old man presents to the emergency department after an intoxicated fall and head injury. He has a moderate occipital headache and nausea without vomiting. On exam, the patient has normal vital signs and no focal neurological deficits. His non-contrast head CT is shown (Figure 1). The volume of the hematoma is measured to be 35 cm3. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

a)

Burr hole evacuation of hematoma

b)

Posterior fossa craniotomy for evacuation of hematoma

c)

Emobilization of the transverse sinus

d)

External ventricular drain for CSF diversion and intracranial pressure monitoring

e)

Close neurological monitoring with serial head CT imaging

262.

The patient whose magnetic resonance image is shown in Figure 1 most likely underwent surgery to control which of the following symptoms associated with which disease:

a)

Torticollis associated with cervical dystonia.

b)

Tremor associated with Essential Tremor.

c)

Levodopa-induced dyskinesia associated with Parkinson disease

d)

Akinesia associated with Parkinson disease.

e)

Rigidity associated with Parkinson disease.

263.

A 21-year-old male presents to the emergency department after being involved in a gunfight. His GCS is 15 with a non-focal examination but several bullet holes are noted in his scalp with protruding cerebral tissue. His CT scan of the head is shown in the figure. What is the BEST definitive management strategy for this injury?

a)

14 day course of antibiotics

b)

Cranioplasty and removal of accessible fragments

c)

Surgical removal of all bullet fragments

d)

Bedside laceration repair

e)

Surgical durotomy repair

264.

A 17-year-old boy patient presents with left arm clumsiness. MRI is shown. Which one of the following is most likely?

a)

Hemangioblastoma

b)

Medulloblastoma

c)

Neuroblastoma metastasis

d)

Pilocytic astrocytoma

e)

Vestibular schwannoma

265.

A 15 year-old male presents with severe low back pain. The pain responds poorly to acetaminophen but responds well to aspirin. CT demonstrates a 1.5 cm dense lytic lesion with a calcified nidus and circumferential sclerosis (figure). What is the diagnosis?

a)

Hemangioma

b)

Osteoblastoma

c)

Osteoid osteoma

d)

Osteochondroma

e)

Fibrous dysplasia

266.

The axial noncontrast head CT (obtained for unrelated reasons) shown from an affected neonate results from which of the following deformities?

a)

Sagittal synostosis

b)

Bicoronal synostosis

c)

Metopic synostosis

d)

Unicoronal synostosis

e)

Lambdoid synostosis

267.

A 8-month-old infant was sent for imaging (figures) by his pediatrician because of irritability, poor feeding, and macrocephaly with a bulging fontanel. The preceding pregnancy and delivery had been unremarkable. The infant had been well up until this presentation, and review of systems was noncontributory. What additional diagnostic investigation is indicated?

a)

Measurement of parents head circumferences

b)

Urine amino acids

c)

Blood lead level

d)

Pyloric ultrasound

e)

Dilated funduscopic examination

268.

A patient initially presents after closed head injury with a GCS of 14. Head CT demonstrates a small amount of pneumocephalus. Two hours later, the patient becomes unresponsive (GCS 4). A repeat head CT is obtained (Fig. 1). What is the most appropriate next step in management?

a)

Administer 1g/kg of mannitol

b)

Repeat head CT with fine cuts to identify a basal skull fracture

c)

Surgical evacuation of pneumocephalus

d)

Lumbar puncture to rule out meningitis

e)

Treatment with high flow oxygen

269.

A 30-year-old male with no prior medical history presents with four days of rapidly progressive bilateral lower extremity weakness, reduced sensation below the level of the umbilicus, and urinary retention. See figure for MRI of the thoracic spine T2 and T1 with contrast. Spinal fluid evaluation including NMO IgG are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most effective first line management of this patient’s condition?

a)

Supportive care including maintenance of MAP >80 mmHg

b)

T10-T12 Laminectomy for spinal cord decompression

c)

High dose intravenous glucocorticoid therapy

d)

Interferon

e)

Exicisional biopsy with subsequent radiation and chemotherapy

270.

A 7-year-old child with a two week history of difficulty walking, dysarthric speech and facial weakness has the MRI shown in the figure. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

a)

Chemotherapy

b)

Surgical debulking

c)

Conformal radiotherapy

d)

Whole-brain radiation

e)

Gamma-knife

271.

A 9-year-old male presented to his pediatrician with headaches and growth delay.  He was found to have tumor in the region of the sella. Histology is shown. What is the most likely diagnosis:

a)

Craniopharyngioma

b)

Pilocytic astrocytoma

c)

Colloid cyst

d)

Pituitary adenoma

e)

Hypothalamic hamartoma

272.

Which one of the following pathologies is most likely demonstrated by the angiogram?

a)

Anterior communicating artery aneurysm

b)

Basilar artery aneurysm

c)

Basilar invagination

d)

Left PCA artery aneurysm

e)

Superior hypophyseal artery aneurysm

273.

Which one of the following pathologies is most likely to give the appearances shown?

a)

Anterior communicating artery aneurysm

b)

Basilar tip aneurysm

c)

Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

d)

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery aneurysm

e)

Middle cerebral artery aneurysm

274.

A 39-year-old female presents with subarachnoid hemorrhage.  Her angiogram is shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Saccular Aneurysm

b)

Blister aneurysm

c)

Fusiform aneurysm

d)

Sipraclinoid ICA dissection

e)

Infundibulum

275.

What neurological deficit may result from embolization of the artery with liquid embolics indicated on this angiogram?

a)

Unilateral tongue atrophy

b)

Loss of smell

c)

Unilateral facial palsy

d)

Blindness

e)

Contralateral hemiparesis

276.

A 19 year-old man presents after a helmeted ATV accident. On examination the patient is neurologically intact. He denies any midline tenderness. Trauma survey and labs are normal. What imaging test should be ordered before clearing his collar.

a)

Cervical CT Scan

b)

No Imaging

c)

Cervical X-ray

d)

Cervical CTA

e)

Cervical MRI

277.

A 33 year old woman with no neurological history complains of subtle left upper extremity weakness without headache or other symptoms. She is noted to have a mild left hemiparesis and otherwise normal neurological examination. EEG is normal. The MR scan is shown (figure). A stereotactic biopsy yields no evidence of glioma. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

b)

Demyelinating plaque

c)

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

d)

Lymphoma

e)

Glioblastoma multiforme

278.

An 11-month-old boy presents with macrocrania and failure to thrive. An MRI of the brain, shown in this image, confirms what likely type of hydrocephalus?

a)

Communicating hydrocephalus

b)

Obstructive hydrocephalus secondary to a  Dandy-Walker malformation

c)

Obstructive hydrocephalus secondary to aqueductal stenosis

d)

Obstructive hydrocephalus secondary to a posterior fossa tumor

e)

Obstructive hydrocephalus secondary to a vein of Galen aneurysm

279.

A 68 year-old man undergoes resection of a GBM. Post-operative imaging is shown. He awakes from surgery with left arm numbness and mild weakness. What is the most likely cause of his new deficit?

a)

Ischemia

b)

Direct injury to neural structures

c)

Edema

d)

Seizure

e)

Abscess

280.

What is the best method to screen for cervical spine injury in the unconscious, intubated multitrauma patient?

a)

A/P, Lateral, Oblique, and Open Mouth Odontoid radiographs

b)

C-Spine MRI

c)

Dynamic traction fluoroscopy

d)

Fluoroscopic Flexion/Extension Imaging

e)

C-spine CT

281.

A 58 year-old man with history of lung adenocarcinoma presents with headaches. MRI of the brain shows 3 supratentorial lesions, the largest of which is shown (Figure). The patient undergoes stereotactic radiosurgery to each of the three lesions. Based on randomized controlled trials, how is the addition of whole brain radiation therapy likely to affect overall survival?

a)

It is likely to shorten overall survival.

b)

It is likely to lengthen overall survival.

c)

There is conflicting evidence regarding overall survival.

d)

There is insufficient evidence regarding overall survival.

e)

It is likely not to affect overall survival

282.

To what structure does the arrow point?

a)

Vidian artery

b)

McConnel's Capsular artery

c)

Persistent stapedial artery

d)

Persistent otic artery

e)

Caroticotympanic artery

283.

A 42 year-old man undergoes resection of this tumor (Figure 1). The immunohistochemistry for BRAF V600E mutation is shown (Figure 2). What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma

b)

Ganglioglioma

c)

Pilocytic astrocytoma

d)

Glioblastoma

e)

Ependymoma

284.

A patient develops Wallenberg syndrome 4 days after C5-C6 fracture dislocation: Which one of the following statements regarding further management is most accurate?

a)

CT head, CT angiogram and start anticoagulation

b)

Diffusion weighted MRI

c)

Clinical observation

d)

CT head and anticoagulation

e)

CT head and commence antiplatelet

285.

A 25-year-old man presents with a new onset of right facial droop associated with horizontal diplopia. MRI of the brain shows a brainstem hyperintensity on T2 and FLAIR images (see figure). What anatomical structure is affected by this lesion causing the diplopia?

a)

Abducens nucleus

b)

Trochlear nucleus

c)

Abducens fibers

d)

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

e)

Trapezoid body

286.

You are called to the NICU to see a 1 day old child who appears as demonstrated in figures 1 and 3. His CT scan is shown in figure 2. He has been stable, although with occasional apnea when agitated. On exam, he has a bulging fontanelle. His parents wish to pursue aggressive care. When should he undergo a cranial vault procedure?

a)

At 6 months of age.

b)

In the next several days.

c)

At 12 months of age.

d)

At 24 months of age.

e)

At 18 months of age.

287.

What neurological deficit is most at risk with surgery for the lesion shown (figures 1 and 2)?

a)

Diplopia

b)

Anterograde amnesia

c)

Upgaze palsy

d)

Expressive aphasia

e)

Gerstmann syndrome

288.

When treating status epilepticus in adults, which intravenous medication should be co-administered with benzodiazepines?

a)

Nitroprusside.

b)

Phenobarbital

c)

Phenytoin.

d)

Propofol.

e)

Succinylcholine.

289.

A 24-year-old woman presents with right arm weakness and the accompanying T1-weighted, contrast-enhanced MRI. Stereotactic needle biopsy demonstrates Rosenthal fibers on histopathological analysis. Which of the following treatment paradigms is associated with long-term disease control?

a)

Radiotherapy combined with IV methotrexate

b)

Complete microsurgical resection alone

c)

Radiotherapy alone

d)

Complete microsurgical resection followed by adjuvant radiotherapy

e)

Radiotherapy combined with high-dose corticosteroids

290.

Seven days ago a 3 year old boy developed a low-grade fever which resolved and was followed by a vesicular rash (see Figures). Two days ago, he had sudden onset of truncal ataxia and horizontal nystagmus. He has moderate dysmetria of both arms when reaching for toys, cannot stand or walk, and his speech is slurred. His mental status is fully intact. Fundi show sharp disc margins. His strength is full and deep tendon reflexes are present. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

a)

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

b)

Posterior fossa mass

c)

Opsoclonus myoclonus syndrome

d)

Acute disseminated encephaloymyelitis

e)

Post-infectious cerebellar ataxia

291.

A 47-year-old woman presented with a first seizure and underwent magnetic resonance imaging of the brain with multi-voxel spectroscopy. The spectroscopy shown in Figure 1 is most consistent with what diagnosis?

a)

Glial neoplasm

b)

Demyelinating plaque

c)

Bacterial abscessmeningioma

d)

Toxoplasmosis

292.

You are operating on a patient with a nerve sheath tumor that you suspect is a benign schwannoma of the ulnar nerve. After initial exposure and dissection of the lesion, you discover that the tumor is securely attached to the nerve by a pair of fascicles as marked with asterisks in Figure 1. What is the most appropriate maneuver at this point?

a)

Excise the lesion and nerve and perform a graft repair of the nerve

b)

Perform an internal debulking of the lesion

c)

Divide the fascicles and remove the lesion

d)

Leave the tumor and fascicles alone and close

e)

Biopsy the lesion for frozen and permanent sections and close

293.

An 84-year-old male has an MRI that reveals an enhancing lesion involving the left internal acoustic canal (see figure). On exam, he has diminished hearing in his left ear. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

a)

Stereotactic radiosurgery in a single session

b)

Stereotactic radiosurgery in 3-5 fractions

c)

Surgical removal via a restrosigmoid approach

d)

Surgical removal via a translabyrinthine approach

e)

Reassurance and follow-up MRI in 6 months

294.

A 10 year old child is referred to your interdisciplinary spasticity clinic. It is determined that he has spasticity as well as significant disabling dystonia in all four extremities, the face, and the neck.  His symptoms have been medically refractory. What is the most appropriate treatment

a)

Botox injections

b)

Deep brain stimulation

c)

Selective dorsal rhizotomy

d)

Intrathecal baclofen therapy

e)

Stereotactic pallidotomy

295.

A 10-year-old boy presents with headache and imbalance. Examination discloses mild papilledema, right-sided dysmetria, and ataxia. MRI with contrast is shown in the figure. What is the most important prognostic factor for this patient?

a)

The presence of endothelial proliferation on histology

b)

The extent of resection of the cyst walls

c)

The presence of hydrocephalus at presentation

d)

The extent of resection of the enhancing mass

e)

The presence of mitoses on histology

296.

A 28-year-old with NF-1 has progressive headaches. Axial and coronal T1-weighted MR images with gadolinium are shown (Figures 1 and 2). The next morning she becomes suddenly unresponsive with a dilated right pupil. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Metastatic tumor

b)

High-grade astrocytoma

c)

Pilocytic astrocytoma

d)

Ganglioglioma

e)

Meningioma

297.

A 17-year-old sustains a gunshot wound to the head. On examination, he has decorticate posturing on the right and he localizes on the left. His left pupil is 2 mm larger than the right but is still reactive. His non-contrast head CT (see figures) demonstrates metal and bone fragments within the left frontal region with an associated subdural hematoma with midline shift. What is the most appropriate management of this patient ?

a)

Right frontal ventriculostomy placement

b)

Craniotomy, hematoma evacuation, superficial debridement

c)

Superficial debridement of wound

d)

Craniotomy, hematoma evacuation, removal of all bone and metal fragments

e)

Expectant care

298.

A 26-year-old male presents after a motor vehicle crash with absent right and partially preserved left lower extremity motor function (more than half of left leg muscles have less than antigravity strength). Sensation to pain and temperature is markedly diminished in the left leg. Proprioception is markedly diminished in the right leg. Neuroimaging studies are obtained and depicted in Figures 1 and 2. Which spinal cord syndrome BEST describes the injury?

a)

Brown-Sequard

b)

Central cord

c)

Anterior spinal

d)

Cauda equina

e)

Posterior cord

299.

A 37-year-old man presents with worsening low back pain and right L5 radicular pain and a normal examination. Lumbar spine MRI (Figure 1) and CT (Figure 2) are shown. Work-up revealed this solitary lesion. What is the most appropriate next step in management ?

a)

External beam radiotherapy

b)

Observation with serial imaging

c)

Surgical excision and stabilization

d)

Open surgical biopsy

e)

CT-guided biopsy

300.

A 58-year-old right-handed male presents with bifrontal headaches and a partial left ophthalmoplegia. MRI results are shown. Biopsy revealed this tumor to be a chordoma. An extensive subtotal skull-based resection was performed. Which is the best choice for adjuvant therapy regimen ?

a)

Stereotactic radiosurgery

b)

Procarbazine, CCNU and vincristine (PCV) chemotherapy

c)

Conventional fractionated radiotherapy

d)

Proton beam radiotherapy

e)

Brachytherapy