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Worksheets

Imaging II: 1313 Fall Final Review: 1

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which step directly causes electrons to be released from the filament in an X‑ray tube?

a)

Increasing current causing the heating of tungsten on the filament

b)

Selecting kVp at the control console

c)

Reducing tube current substantially

d)

Increasing the voltage across the tube

2.

What primarily attracts electrons across the tube toward the target?

a)

The thermal expansion of tungsten

b)

The positively charged anode potential

c)

The rotation speed of the target

d)

The vacuum pressure inside housing

3.

Bremsstrahlung radiation in an X‑ray tube is produced when an incident electron does what near the nucleus?

a)

Fuses with a proton irreversibly

b)

Captures a free neutron transiently

c)

Slows or changes direction significantly

d)

Maintains constant straight velocity

4.

Characteristic radiation results after which initial interaction in the target atom?

a)

Ejection of a K‑shell electron

b)

Emission from the filament coil

c)

Excitation of a valence electron

d)

Ionization of the vacuum molecules

5.

Which statement best contrasts the photon energies from Bremsstrahlung versus characteristic radiation?

a)

Both depend only on filament temperature

b)

Bremsstrahlung is polyenergetic; characteristic is discrete

c)

Both produce identical monoenergetic spectra

d)

Bremsstrahlung is discrete; characteristic is polyenergetic

6.

Approximately what fraction of the incident electron kinetic energy becomes useful X‑rays at the target?

a)

About ninety percent of the energy

b)

About half of the energy

c)

About one percent of the energy

d)

About ten percent of the energy

7.

If the target material changes from tungsten to a different element, which emission is most affected?

a)

Anode electrostatic attraction

b)

Characteristic photon energy lines

c)

Bremsstrahlung continuous spectrum

d)

Filament thermionic emission

8.

A student increases tube voltage while keeping filament current constant. Which outcome mainly increases at the anode?

a)

Cooling rate of the oil bath

b)

Rotational torque on stator

c)

Thermionic electrons boiled off

d)

Electron acceleration toward target

9.

Which factor primarily determines the maximum photon energy in an x‑ray beam?

a)

Exposure time only

b)

kVp at the tube

c)

mAs at the console

d)

Focal spot size

10.

Beam quality in diagnostic imaging refers to which property of the x‑ray beam?

a)

Spatial resolution of images

b)

Tube heat loading capacity

c)

Penetrating ability of photons

d)

Total number of photons

11.

Which setting controls beam quantity in routine radiography?

a)

Filtration thickness only

b)

mAs set by technologist

c)

kVp at the generator

d)

Anode angle selection

12.

What happens to average photon energy when kVp is increased while other factors are held constant?

a)

It becomes highly variable

b)

It remains exactly unchanged

c)

It increases on average

d)

It decreases slightly overall

13.

Increasing filtration typically produces which effect on the x‑ray spectrum?

a)

Lowers average photon energy overall

b)

Raises average photon energy overall

c)

Removes only high‑energy photons

d)

Creates more low‑energy photons

14.

In the anode heel effect, where is beam intensity greatest across the field?

a)

Uniform across the entire field

b)

Toward the cathode side

c)

Directly at the central ray

d)

Toward the anode side

15.

A shoulder radiograph involves unequal thickness across the field. How should you position the cathode‑anode axis to use the anode heel effect to your advantage?

a)

Place the anode over the thicker side

b)

Place the cathode over the thicker side

c)

Center the beam on the thinner side

d)

Rotate the tube to reduce filtration

16.

Which component of the X-ray tube produces electrons for imaging?

a)

Glass envelope surrounding tube

b)

Oil inside the protective housing

c)

Target on the rotating anode

d)

Filament in the cathode assembly

17.

What is the main role of the focusing cup in the X-ray tube?

a)

Heats the filament to emit electrons

b)

Provides vacuum so electrons travel

c)

Narrows the electron cloud toward anode

d)

Converts electrons into x-ray photons

18.

Why is the anode designed to rotate during operation?

a)

Reduces leakage radiation from housing

b)

Maintains the vacuum around filament

c)

Spreads heat to increase heat capacity

d)

Accelerates electrons toward target

19.

What is the function of the stator in a rotating anode tube?

a)

Metal cup that shapes electron beam

b)

External electromagnets that rotate rotor

c)

Stationary target for x-ray production

d)

Insulating oil that cools components

20.

Where are x-rays produced within the tube?

a)

In the oil around the housing

b)

Within the focusing cup cavity

c)

Inside the glass envelope body

d)

At the target where electrons strike

21.

What is the primary purpose of the glass envelope in an X-ray tube?

a)

Contains oil for thermal dissipation

b)

Acts as the target for electron impact

c)

Provides structural support for housing

d)

Maintains a vacuum for electron travel

22.

Which statement best explains the role of oil and housing in tube operation?

a)

Increase x-ray photon energy output

b)

Focus electrons onto a smaller spot

c)

Create the vacuum around electrodes

d)

Provide electrical insulation and cooling

23.

A tube produces excessive heat at one spot on the anode. Which component is most likely not functioning as intended?

a)

Stator that provides electromagnets

b)

Glass envelope that maintains vacuum

c)

Filament that emits electrons

d)

Rotating anode that spreads heat

24.

In digital radiography, what primarily determines displayed image brightness?

a)

Look-up table and processing algorithms

b)

Milliamperage and exposure time directly

c)

Kilovoltage peak at the tube only

d)

Patient thickness without processing

25.

Quantum mottle is most likely when which exposure condition occurs?

a)

Too many photons saturating the detector

b)

Scatter completely eliminated by collimation

c)

Too few incident photons reaching detector

d)

Excessive post-processing edge enhancement

26.

If kVp is increased while other factors are constant, image contrast generally becomes:

a)

Random with unpredictable gray scale

b)

Unchanged with any gray scale

c)

Higher with a shorter gray scale

d)

Lower with a longer gray scale

27.

mAs has what relationship with image receptor exposure in radiography?

a)

Quadratically related to receptor exposure

b)

Directly proportional to receptor exposure

c)

Inversely proportional to receptor exposure

d)

Unrelated to receptor exposure

28.

Which description best matches long-scale contrast on a radiographic image?

a)

Black-and-white with minimal midtones

b)

Few grays with very high contrast

c)

Many grays with lower subject contrast

d)

Edges enhanced with processing only

29.

Which technique combination most commonly produces long-scale contrast?

a)

Any kVp when mAs is very high

b)

High kVp with increased scatter present

c)

Low kVp with reduced scatter present

d)

Moderate kVp with no effect from scatter

30.

A radiograph shows very high contrast with few shades of gray. Which exposure factor set most likely produced it?

a)

Low kVp with effective scatter control

b)

High mAs with unchanged kVp

c)

High kVp with abundant scatter

d)

Low mAs with unchanged kVp

31.

To reduce visible quantum noise without changing contrast, which adjustment is most appropriate?

a)

Apply only a steeper LUT curve

b)

Increase mAs while keeping kVp constant

c)

Decrease kVp while keeping mAs constant

d)

Increase SID without other changes

32.

Which factor most directly causes motion blur in radiographic images?

a)

Motion during exposure time

b)

Low subject contrast range

c)

High detector pixel density

d)

Wide exposure latitude

33.

Which change increases image magnification most effectively, all else equal?

a)

Reduce patient thickness

b)

Increase OID slightly

c)

Center the x‑ray tube

d)

Increase SID greatly

34.

Size distortion in radiography primarily results from which condition?

a)

Magnification due to SID or OID changes

b)

Grid cutoff from misalignment

c)

Quantum mottle from low mAs settings

d)

Beam hardening at high kVp levels

35.

Shape distortion such as elongation or foreshortening is mainly caused by what?

a)

Improper alignment of tube, part, or IR

b)

Excessive patient thickness only

c)

Insufficient exposure time settings

d)

Using a high grid ratio device

36.

According to the inverse square law, if the source‑to‑image distance doubles, what happens to beam intensity at the image receptor?

a)

It remains exactly the same

b)

It becomes four times as intense

c)

It becomes half as intense

d)

It becomes one‑fourth as intense

37.

A radiograph shows blur from patient motion. Which simple procedural change best improves spatial resolution without altering dose?

a)

Increase kVp moderately

b)

Increase SID slightly

c)

Add a higher ratio grid

d)

Shorten exposure time

38.

You must maintain receptor exposure while increasing SID from 80 cm to 160 cm. Which adjustment matches the exposure maintenance concept?

a)

Increase mAs by a small amount

b)

Increase mAs by a factor of four

c)

Decrease mAs by a factor of four

d)

Keep mAs exactly the same

39.

Which imaging factor is primarily controlled by mAs?

a)

Amount of scatter generation

b)

Subject contrast between tissues

c)

X-ray beam penetration depth

d)

Image receptor exposure quantity

40.

Increasing kVp most directly increases which property of the x-ray beam?

a)

Focal spot temperature

b)

Photon penetration ability

c)

Anode rotation speed

d)

Exposure time duration

41.

What is the typical effect of higher kVp on image contrast in radiography?

a)

Lowers subject contrast

b)

Raises subject contrast

c)

Eliminates subject contrast

d)

Leaves subject contrast unchanged

42.

Filtration primarily removes which component from the x-ray beam?

a)

Characteristic photons

b)

Low-energy photons

c)

High-energy photons

d)

Backscatter photons

43.

What happens to beam quality when filtration is increased?

a)

Beam becomes harder overall

b)

Beam becomes softer overall

c)

Beam intensity becomes random

d)

Beam wavelength becomes longer

44.

Half-Value Layer (HVL) is defined as the thickness of material that does what?

a)

Reduces beam intensity by half

b)

Doubles beam intensity output

c)

Halves patient exposure time

d)

Eliminates scatter completely

45.

HVL is used primarily as a measure of which characteristic?

a)

Beam quality or hardness

b)

Detector efficiency rating

c)

Beam quantity per second

d)

Tube heat capacity

46.

What is the main purpose of beam restriction using collimation?

a)

Reduce scatter reaching the detector

b)

Increase photon penetration power

c)

Decrease exposure time needed

d)

Improve tube heat dissipation

47.

What is the primary function of the autotransformer in an X-ray circuit?

a)

Selects kVp before high voltage

b)

Increases current to heat filament

c)

Converts AC to DC current

d)

Provides backup to prevent overexposure

48.

A step-up transformer in an X-ray unit mainly does which of the following?

a)

Increases voltage to produce high kVp

b)

Decreases voltage to increase current

c)

Stabilizes ripple to reduce noise

d)

Switches AC direction during exposure

49.

The step-down transformer is used in the filament circuit primarily to:

a)

Increase current to heat the filament

b)

Increase voltage for the X-ray tube

c)

Rectify AC into DC pulses

d)

Limit exposure by timing cutoff

50.

What is the role of a rectifier in an X-ray generator?

a)

Converts alternating current to direct current

b)

Raises voltage to shorten exposure time

c)

Selects the desired kilovoltage peak value

d)

Monitors output to prevent overexposure

51.

Which component prevents patient overexposure if the set exposure fails to terminate?

a)

Step-up transformer in primary

b)

Backup timer in the generator

c)

Rectifier in the tube circuit

d)

Autotransformer in the control panel

52.

Compared to single-phase generators, three-phase generators are generally:

a)

Most efficient with shortest exposures

b)

Less efficient with higher ripple

c)

Equally efficient with similar ripple

d)

More efficient with steadier output

53.

Where are AEC ionization chambers positioned in a radiographic system?

a)

Behind the control panel console

b)

Inside the X-ray tube housing

c)

Adjacent to the collimator assembly

d)

Between patient and image receptor

54.

What is the primary function of the AEC detector during an exposure?

a)

Calibrates generator before imaging

b)

Measures patient thickness for mAs

c)

Selects kilovoltage automatically

d)

Detects radiation and ends exposure

55.

Which factor most critically influences AEC performance and image quality?

a)

Use of additional filtration

b)

Higher source-to-image distance

c)

Increased tube current setting

d)

Precise patient positioning

56.

Using AEC, what manual selection does the technologist typically not set?

a)

Exposure time selection

b)

Focal spot size choice

c)

Grid ratio selection

d)

Source-to-image distance

57.

AEC density controls primarily adjust which image characteristic?

a)

Collimator field size

b)

Tube potential waveform

c)

Patient entrance dose

d)

Built-in optical density

58.

Which combination best applies the ALARA principles during radiographic procedures?

a)

Minimize time, reduce distance, avoid shielding

b)

Minimize time, maximize distance, use shielding

c)

Increase time, reduce distance, avoid shielding

d)

Maintain time, ignore distance, limited shielding

59.

In radiology, what does shielding typically refer to for staff and patients?

a)

Lead protection devices

b)

Concrete ceiling panels

c)

Aluminum beam filters

d)

Plastic scatter curtains

60.

Secondary radiation consists of which components?

a)

Scatter plus leakage

b)

Primary beam photons

c)

Backscatter only

d)

Leakage from generator

61.

Primary radiation is best described as which source?

a)

Direct beam from the tube

b)

Scatter from the patient

c)

Transmission through table

d)

Leakage from housing

62.

What is the annual whole-body occupational dose limit in diagnostic radiography?

a)

5 mSv per year

b)

150 mSv per year

c)

1 mSv per year

d)

50 mSv per year

63.

What is the monthly fetal dose limit for pregnant workers?

a)

0.5 mSv per month

b)

5 mSv per month

c)

1 mSv per month

d)

50 mSv per month

64.

Which monitoring device uses aluminum oxide and is read by laser stimulation?

a)

Film badge dosimeter

b)

Thermoluminescent dosimeter

c)

Electronic dosimeter

d)

Optically stimulated luminescence

65.

Which personal dosimeter requires heating to emit light proportional to dose?

a)

Thermoluminescent dosimeter

b)

Optically stimulated luminescence

c)

Film badge dosimeter

d)

Electronic dosimeter

66.

Which instrument measures exposure rate rather than merely detecting presence?

a)

Electronic dosimeter

b)

Scintillation detector

c)

Geiger-Müller counter

d)

Ion chamber survey meter

67.

Which barrier is designed to be struck by the primary beam in a radiography room?

a)

Primary barrier surface

b)

Secondary barrier surface

c)

Mobile rolling barrier

d)

Scatter-only barrier

68.

Which grid error most likely produces a uniform loss of receptor exposure across the image?

a)

Off-level grid positioning

b)

Off-center beam alignment

c)

Upside-down grid placement

d)

Off-focus source distance

69.

A radiograph shows one-sided cutoff with adequate exposure on the opposite side. Which error best explains this appearance?

a)

Off-level grid error

b)

Off-center grid error

c)

Moiré interference pattern

d)

Off-focus grid error

70.

Cutoff is most pronounced at the lateral edges while the center remains acceptable. Which situation is most consistent with this finding?

a)

Grid used at wrong SID

b)

Grid placed upside-down

c)

Grid tilted relative to beam

d)

Detector sampling aliasing

71.

Severe exposure loss at both edges with a narrow band of exposure centrally is characteristic of which grid problem?

a)

Off-level grid error

b)

Off-center grid error

c)

Upside-down grid error

d)

Off-focus grid error

72.

A stationary grid used with computed radiography produces a wavy, repeating pattern over the image. What is this artifact called?

a)

Moiré effect

b)

Quantum mottle

c)

Saturation banding

d)

Anode heel

73.

Which action best reduces scatter reaching the receptor when imaging a body part thicker than 10 cm?

a)

Increase exposure mAs

b)

Use a radiographic grid

c)

Open the collimators

d)

Lower tube filtration

74.

You increase kVp to improve penetration for a large patient. To maintain receptor exposure, which complementary change is most appropriate?

a)

Reduce mAs appropriately

b)

Decrease SID slightly

c)

Increase collimation width

d)

Remove the anti-scatter grid

75.

When increasing the source-to-image distance (SID) while keeping other factors constant, what adjustment maintains receptor exposure?

a)

Increase mAs according to distance

b)

Center off the grid slightly

c)

Add an air-gap without grid

d)

Decrease kVp by small steps

76.

Which subatomic particle carries a negative charge in an atom?

a)

Electron with negative charge

b)

Positron with positive charge

c)

Proton with positive charge

d)

Neutron with neutral charge

77.

Two atoms are isotopes when they have the same atomic number but what differs?

a)

Number of neutrons thus mass

b)

Electron arrangement only

c)

Number of shells thus size

d)

Number of protons thus charge

78.

An ion forms when an atom has what relationship between protons and electrons?

a)

Equal protons and electrons

b)

Unequal protons and electrons

c)

More neutrons than protons

d)

More shells than electrons

79.

Which change will increase electron binding energy within an atom?

a)

Reducing nuclear charge shielding

b)

Placing electrons farther out

c)

Decreasing atomic number Z

d)

Increasing atomic number Z

80.

Compared with an electron in the L shell, an electron in the K shell generally has what?

a)

Lower binding energy overall

b)

Equal binding energy overall

c)

No binding energy overall

d)

Higher binding energy overall

81.

What is ionization in atomic physics?

a)

Adding a neutron to the nucleus

b)

Removing an electron from an atom

c)

Exciting an electron to a higher shell

d)

Converting a proton into a neutron

82.

Which statement best reflects the law of conservation of energy?

a)

Energy can be created from heat

b)

Energy changes form but is conserved

c)

Energy is destroyed in reactions

d)

Energy only exists as kinetic energy

83.

Which statement best describes magnetic poles?

a)

Poles have no effect on nearby materials

b)

All poles attract regardless of orientation

c)

Like poles attract while unlike poles repel

d)

Like poles repel while unlike poles attract

84.

Magnetic flux in this context refers to which idea?

a)

A measure of magnetic field strength

b)

The speed of electron motion

c)

Heat transferred by conduction

d)

A unit of electrical resistance

85.

Which set lists types of magnets correctly?

a)

Static magnets and kinetic magnets

b)

Thermal magnets and acoustic magnets

c)

Natural magnets and artificial magnets

d)

Chemical magnets and nuclear magnets

86.

What microscopic change creates magnetism in a material?

a)

Expansion of crystal lattice

b)

Alignment of magnetic domains

c)

Increase of thermal vibrations

d)

Accumulation of electric charge

87.

Which combination is required to induce an emf in a circuit?

a)

Magnetic field, conductor, and relative motion

b)

Static charge, dielectric, and capacitor

c)

Battery, resistor, and closed switch

d)

High voltage, vacuum, and insulator

88.

According to Faraday’s law for a coil, the induced current depends on which factors?

a)

Field strength, speed, angle, and number of turns

b)

Wire color, coil shape, and ambient noise

c)

Battery polarity, fuse rating, and humidity

d)

Mass density, wavelength, and refractive index

89.

Lenz’s law determines which feature of an induced current?

a)

Its magnitude equals the flux value

b)

Its direction opposes the flux change

c)

Its frequency matches the field lines

d)

Its phase leads the applied voltage

90.

Which statement best describes a step-up transformer?

a)

It increases voltage and decreases current

b)

It increases current and decreases voltage

c)

It keeps voltage and current unchanged

d)

It decreases both voltage and current

91.

In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio primarily determines which quantity change between primary and secondary coils?

a)

Frequency change of the output

b)

Core permeability over time

c)

Voltage change between the two coils

d)

Resistance change of the windings

92.

Which loss in a transformer is mainly due to circulating currents induced in the core material?

a)

Copper loss in the windings

b)

Hysteresis loss from magnetization

c)

Leakage flux loss in air

d)

Eddy current loss in the magnetic core

93.

Which component is associated with an AC generator for transferring current to the external circuit?

a)

Field rheostat controller

b)

Slip rings on the rotating armature

c)

Commutator with split rings

d)

Brushless diode rectifier

94.

A DC generator differs from an AC generator primarily because it uses which device to deliver unidirectional current?

a)

A commutator with split segments

b)

A synchronous rotor coil

c)

Two continuous slip rings

d)

An induction stator cage

95.

What is the fundamental energy conversion performed by an electric motor?

a)

Chemical energy into magnetic fields

b)

Thermal energy into electrical charge

c)

Mechanical energy into electrical output

d)

Electrical energy into mechanical rotation

96.

In an induction motor, which part is driven to rotate by the induced magnetic field interaction?

a)

The slip rings on the axle

b)

The commutator ring assembly

c)

The rotor attached to the shaft

d)

The stationary outer stator

97.

As electromagnetic frequency increases, what happens to wavelength and photon energy?

a)

Wavelength increases, energy decreases

b)

Wavelength decreases, energy increases

c)

Wavelength decreases, energy decreases

d)

Wavelength increases, energy increases

98.

Which statement best describes X-rays in the electromagnetic spectrum?

a)

High energy, ionizing radiation

b)

Moderate energy, partly ionizing radiation

c)

Variable energy, non-ionizing radiation

d)

Low energy, non-ionizing radiation

99.

Wave–particle duality means photons behave as what?

a)

Only particles in all conditions

b)

Particles and waves depending on context

c)

Only waves in all conditions

d)

Neither waves nor particles ever

100.

Which characteristic defines a stochastic radiation effect?

a)

Severity increases with dose

b)

Always causes immediate symptoms

c)

Has a clear threshold dose

d)

Probability increases with dose

101.

Which outcome is a typical example of a stochastic effect?

a)

Cataract at deterministic threshold

b)

Radiation-induced cancer years later

c)

Skin erythema after fluoroscopy

d)

Temporary sterility at high dose

102.

Deterministic effects are best described by which feature?

a)

Always genetic with no tissue damage

b)

Have a threshold; severity rises with dose

c)

Independent of absorbed dose amount

d)

No threshold, random occurrence

103.

Why is ionizing radiation dangerous at the cellular level?

a)

It neutralizes free radicals safely

b)

It blocks non-ionizing wavelengths

c)

It causes ionization leading to mutations

d)

It only heats tissues slightly

104.

What is the primary purpose of an anti-scatter grid in radiography?

a)

Shorten exposure time significantly

b)

Magnify the anatomical structures

c)

Remove scatter to improve contrast

d)

Increase patient dose intentionally

105.

How is grid ratio defined for radiographic grids?

a)

Height of lead strips divided by distance between them

b)

Number of lead lines per centimeter of grid

c)

Thickness of lead strips times grid area

d)

Angle of strips relative to central ray

106.

Increasing grid ratio generally results in what imaging effect?

a)

No change in scatter or contrast

b)

Lower patient dose with same mAs

c)

Better scatter cleanup and higher contrast

d)

Worse scatter cleanup and lower contrast

107.

What does grid frequency specify in a radiographic grid?

a)

Number of lead lines per centimeter or inch

b)

Ratio of strip height to strip spacing

c)

Percentage of primary beam transmitted

d)

Amount of scatter produced by tissue

108.

How do focused grids differ from non-focused grids?

a)

Focused grids eliminate the need for collimation

b)

Focused grids are placed behind the image receptor

c)

Focused grids have angled strips to match divergence

d)

Focused grids use parallel strips for all beams

109.

Where is a radiographic grid properly positioned during an exposure?

a)

Between tube and patient

b)

Directly on the X-ray tube housing

c)

Between patient and image receptor

d)

Behind the image receptor

110.

Which factor most directly increases the quantity of x-ray photons produced in the tube?

a)

Decreasing SID

b)

Increasing mAs

c)

Increasing filtration

d)

Reducing kVp

111.

What is the main effect of using a smaller focal spot size in radiography?

a)

Decreases tube heat capacity

b)

Increases image sharpness

c)

Reduces beam intensity

d)

Raises patient dose

112.

Which adjustment will most effectively reduce patient exposure while maintaining image quality?

a)

Reduce filtration

b)

Increase kVp and decrease mAs

c)

Decrease kVp and increase mAs

d)

Increase OID