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Funda 67

Total questions: 106

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If a patient presents with PaO2 of 6565 , what would you classify this as?

a)

Normal oxygenation

b)

Mild hypoxemia

c)

Severe hypoxemia

d)

Moderate hypoxemia

2.

If an arterial blood gas analyzer reports a PaO2 of 4545 , what would you consider this?

a)

Severe hypoxemia

b)

Mild hypoxemia

c)

Normal oxygenation

d)

Moderate hypoxemia

3.

Which PaO2 level is considered severe hypoxemia?

a)

40 to 59

b)

80 or higher

c)

Less than 40

d)

60 to 79

4.

If a patient’s oxygen level reads above 100100 , what is this termed and what is the best plan of action?

a)

Hyperoxemia; immediately discontinue all oxygen

b)

Normoxemia; maintain current oxygen settings

c)

Hyperoxemia; gradually wean oxygen delivery to lower levels

d)

Hypoxemia; increase oxygen support

5.

Select the oxygen analyzers most commonly used by respiratory therapists.

a)

Galvanic fuel cell

b)

Paramagnetic analyzer

c)

Infrared spectrophotometer

d)

Clark electrode

6.

You need oxygen to be analyzed as quickly as possible and have access to a Clark electrode and a galvanic fuel cell. Which analyzer provides the quickest response time?

a)

Clark electrode

b)

Pulse oximeter

c)

Galvanic fuel cell

d)

Paramagnetic analyzer

7.

A Clark electrode is not working properly. What is the first action you should take to try to fix it?

a)

Send the device for repair or replace it

b)

Check or replace the batteries

c)

Change the sensor and recalibrate

d)

Increase the patient’s oxygen setting

8.

A galvanic fuel cell does not require batteries because it uses a chemical reaction to power itself. If it did have batteries, why would they be used?

a)

To power alarms that indicate low oxygen

b)

To heat the sensor element

c)

To run an internal sample pump

d)

To power the chemical reaction

9.

How would you properly recalibrate an oxygen analyzer?

a)

Expose to 21%21\% oxygen (room air), then to 100%100\% oxygen

b)

Expose only to pure nitrogen

c)

Expose first to 100%100\%

d)

Expose only to room air

10.

When using an oxygen analyzer, the patient is on 70%70\% oxygen and the analyzer reads 67%67\% . Would this be considered accurate?

a)

Yes, it is within the tolerance

b)

No, it is outside the tolerance

11.

When using an oxygen analyzer, the patient is on 70%70\% oxygen and the analyzer reads 72%72\% . Would this be considered accurate?

a)

No, it is outside the tolerance

b)

Yes, it is within the tolerance

c)

No because its not 67

12.

What is considered the gold standard for evaluating and identifying gas exchange and acid–base balance?

a)

Pulse oximetry

b)

Arterial blood gas (ABG)

c)

Oxygen analyzer

d)

Capnography

13.

If you are not able to obtain a blood gas from ANY artery, where else CAN you be able to obtain it? (even if it might not be as accurate as an artery)

a)

Venous sample

b)

Oral swab

c)

Exhaled breath condensate

d)

Capillary sample

14.

Where is the best place to stick when collecting an arterial blood gas?

a)

Femoral artery

b)

Radial artery

c)

Brachial artery

d)

Ulnar artery

15.

Why is the radial artery considered the best place to obtain a blood gas? Select all that apply.

a)

It is usually near a surgical shunt

b)

The ulnar artery provides good collateral circulation backup

c)

It is deep and hard to palpate

d)

It is away from veins and nerves

e)

It is closer to the surface, bigger, and easier to palpate

16.

Where is an arterial blood usually taken in emergent situations?

a)

Femoral artery

b)

Brachial artery

c)

Ulnar artery

d)

Radial artery

17.

What does an ABG determine in a patient? Select all that apply.

a)

How well the patient is oxygenating

b)

The patient’s hematocrit level

c)

How well the patient is ventilating

d)

The patient’s acid–base balance

18.

When taking an ABG, what value is used to determine the patient’s acid–base balance?

a)

PaO2

b)

PaCO2

c)

pH

d)

SaO2

19.

When taking an ABG, what value is used to determine how well the patient is ventilating?

a)

PaO2

b)

SaO2

c)

pH

d)

PaCO2

20.

When taking an ABG, what value is used to determine how well the patient is oxygenating?

a)

pH

b)

SaO2

c)

PaCO2

d)

PaO2

21.

What would be considered contraindications when taking an arterial blood gas? Select all that apply.

a)

Surgical shunt

b)

Negative Allen test

c)

Positive Allen test

d)

Patient consent obtained

22.

What can cause a hematoma or hemorrhage? Select all that apply.

a)

Tight tourniquet alone

b)

Constant flow of bleeding from a damaged blood vessel

c)

Use of anticoagulants (e.g., heparin)

d)

Inadequate collateral circulation

23.

When obtaining an ABG, how much blood should you collect for the sample?

a)

0.5 mL to 1 mL

b)

10 mL

c)

2 mL to 3 mL

d)

5 mL

24.

In some situations it is okay to recap a used needle.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

You go to collect an ABG sample and get dark, slow-moving blood in the syringe. What has most likely happened?

a)

The patient has a high heart rate

b)

The patient is on a blood thinner so this is normal

c)

You are in a vein, not an artery

d)

This is normal; finish collecting the sample

26.

If you run an ABG sample that has air in it through an analyzer, what result can you expect?

a)

Cannot predict results

b)

High PaO2

c)

Low pH

d)

High PaCO2

27.

A healthy patient just ran up the stairs and is out of breath. How long should you wait before taking their ABG?

a)

30 minutes

b)

5 minutes

c)

15 minutes

d)

1 minute

28.

A COPD patient just ran up the stairs and is out of breath. How long should you wait before taking their ABG?

a)

10 to 15 minutes

b)

20 to 30 minutes

c)

5 to 10 minutes

d)

45 to 60 minutes

29.

If an ABG is not placed on ice and takes a long time to get to the lab, what result would you expect?

a)

Increased PaCO2

b)

Decreased PaCO2

c)

No change in blood gases

d)

Increased PaO2

30.

What is point of care for ABGs and what can it help reduce? Select all that apply.

a)

Eliminates the need for trained staff

b)

Increases transport time to the lab

c)

Helps reduce labeling issues

d)

A bedside blood analyzer that allows testing as soon as the sample is collected

e)

Helps reduce turnaround time

31.

On a pulse oximeter the alarm should be set to go off if the pulse oximeter reads below ____%.

a)

90%

b)

88%

c)

92%

d)

85%

32.

Do you need an order for oxygen? Why or why not?

a)

No, oxygen is considered basic comfort care

b)

Yes, but only for patients in the ICU

c)

Yes, because oxygen is considered a drug and medical gas

d)

No, oxygen can be given without physician oversight

33.

Do you need an order to do an ABG?

a)

Yes, an order is required

b)

Not if the RT thinks the patient needs one because RTs are trained to see signs to need an ABG

c)

An order is optional if the patient consents

d)

Only if the patient is on a ventilator

34.

Which description correctly distinguishes PAO2 from PaO2?

a)

PAO2 is partial pressure of oxygen in venous blood; PaO2 is partial pressure in capillaries

b)

PAO2 and PaO2 are the same measurement taken at different times

c)

PAO2 is oxygen saturation in the arteries; PaO2 is oxygen saturation in the alveoli

d)

PAO2 is partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli; PaO2 is partial pressure of oxygen in the arteries

35.

Which thresholds indicate hypoxemia?

a)

PaO2 greater than 80 mm Hg

b)

SaO2 less than 90%

c)

SaO2 greater than 94%

d)

PaO2 less than 60 mm Hg

36.

If you administer too much oxygen to a neonate, what could this cause?

a)

Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)

b)

Bronchiolitis

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Neonatal jaundice

37.

What kind of room would be more at risk for a fire hazard?

a)

Outdoor triage area

b)

Operating room

c)

Radiology waiting room

d)

General medical ward

38.

What is the main factor that changes FiO2 for patients using a nasal cannula?

a)

How the patient is breathing (e.g., mouth breathing lowers FiO2)

b)

Patient's weight

c)

Patient moving too much

d)

Age of the patient

39.

A high flow nasal cannula is more fixed than a low flow nasal cannula.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Give an example of devices corresponding to high-flow, low-flow, and reservoir oxygen transport systems.

a)

Noninvasive ventilator circuit

b)

Nasal cannula (low-flow)

c)

Simple mask (reservoir)

d)

High-flow nasal cannula

41.

How do you check the specific FiO2 output?

a)

ABG

b)

Estimate from the flowmeter alone

c)

Use an oxygen analyzer

d)

Visual inspection of patient color

42.

If a patient is on sedation while using a nasal cannula, would the patient breathe higher or lower FiO2, and why?

a)

No change in FiO2 because sedation does not affect entrainment

b)

Higher FiO2 because slower breathing entrains less room air

c)

Lower FiO2 because sedation increases respiratory rate

d)

Lower FiO2 because slower breathing pulls in more room air

43.

What is the FiO2 range used for nasal cannulas?

a)

10%–20%

b)

60%–80%

c)

40%–60%

d)

24%–44%

44.

What is the appropriate liter flow range for patients using a nasal cannula?

a)

0.5 L to 2 L

b)

1 L to 6 L

c)

6 L to 10 L

d)

10 L to 15 L

45.

If your patient is on 5 L nasal cannula and is experiencing dried upper airways, what action might the RT take?

a)

Add a humidifier to the oxygen delivery

b)

Switch to room air

c)

Apply a nonrebreather mask

d)

Decrease the flow to 2 L

46.

If your patient is on 4 L nasal cannula, what can you approximate the FiO2 to be close to?

a)

36%

b)

28%

c)

32%

d)

40%

47.

If your patient is on humidified nasal cannula and the humidifier is making a loud whistling noise, what problem could you expect?

a)

Flowmeter is set too low for humidification

b)

Oxygen line is pinched, triggering the pop-off valve

c)

Humidifier chamber is empty

d)

Cannula prongs are reversed

48.

What is the liter flow range for a simple mask?

a)

15 L to 20 L

b)

10 L to 15 L

c)

5 L to 10 L

d)

1 L to 4 L

49.

What must a simple mask’s minimum flow be and why?

a)

No minimum; any flow is acceptable

b)

At least 2 L to prevent dryness

c)

At least 5 L to flush out CO₂ and prevent rebreathing

d)

At least 8 L to reach 100% FiO₂

50.

How long does it take for a patient with healthy lungs to achieve a normal steady state after being out of breath, and how long does it take a patient with lung disease or a chronic lung problem to achieve steady state?

a)

Healthy lungs: about 1 minute; lung disease: 5 minutes

b)

Healthy lungs: about 5 minutes; lung disease: 20 – 30 minutes

c)

Healthy lungs: about 10 minutes; lung disease: 60 minutes

d)

Healthy lungs: about 30 minutes; lung disease: 2 hours

51.

How many valves are on a partial rebreather?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

None

d)

Three

52.

How many valves are on a nonrebreather?

a)

Two

b)

None

c)

Three

d)

One

53.

What percent of FiO₂ is the patient getting with a nonrebreather?

a)

100%

b)

80%

c)

Variable depending on breathing pattern

d)

60%

54.

If the bag on a nonrebreather or partial rebreather is not inflated and is small and crumbled, what action might the RT take?

a)

Turn up the oxygen flow until the bag is inflated (a little deflation on inspiration is normal)

b)

Decrease the oxygen flow to reduce noise

c)

Switch immediately to mechanical ventilation

d)

Remove the mask and use room air

55.

What O2 delivery device is used to achieve specific FiO₂ values?

a)

Simple face mask

b)

Venturi mask

c)

Nonrebreather mask

d)

Nasal cannula

56.

When using a venturi mask, if one of the ports becomes blocked, what happens to the FiO₂?

a)

It varies randomly without trend

b)

It remains the same

c)

It increases because less air dilutes the oxygen

d)

It decreases because more room air enters

57.

What strategy do you use to calculate the Air to Oxygen ratio?

a)

Alveolar gas equation

b)

Boyle’s law

c)

Magic box

d)

Haldane transformation

58.

Using the magic box method, what is the Air to O2 ratio for an FiO₂ of 40%?

a)

1.7:1

b)

2:1

c)

4:1

d)

3.2:1

59.

If your patient is on 50% FiO₂ and 4 L/min flow, what is the total flow of this patient based on the worksheet’s calculation?

a)

10.8 L/min

b)

6.7 L/min

c)

14.0 L/min

d)

0.67 L/min

60.

What is the oxyhood used for and what benefit does it provide?

a)

Provide high-flow oxygen to adults with COPD

b)

Transport ventilated patients during MRI

c)

Administer anesthesia gases in the operating room

d)

Deliver controlled oxygen to infants without a face mask

61.

Which reasons indicate a need for hyperbaric oxygen therapy? Select all that apply.

a)

Reduction of gas bubbles

b)

Asthma exacerbation

c)

Diving accident

d)

Ear trauma from pressure changes

e)

Wound care

62.

What color is an O₂ cylinder?

a)

Brown

b)

Green

c)

Yellow

d)

Blue

63.

What color is a medical air cylinder?

a)

Yellow

b)

Brown

c)

Black

d)

Green

64.

What is the E tank factor?

a)

3.14

b)

0.16

c)

0.28

d)

1.7

65.

What is the H and K tank factor?

a)

3.14

b)

0.28

c)

2.5

d)

1.0

66.

How can you tell how much gas is left in a tank?

a)

Weigh the tank

b)

Tap the tank and listen

c)

Read the pressure gauge

d)

Check the regulator size

67.

How do you calculate how much time is left before a tank is empty?

a)

Liter flow × pressure gauge + tank factor

b)

Tank factor + pressure gauge + liter flow

c)

Tank factor × pressure gauge ÷ liter flow

d)

Pressure gauge ÷ tank factor × liter flow

68.

For an Oxygen E tank at 1000 psi with a flow of 3 L/min, how long until the tank is empty?

a)

47 minutes

b)

93 minutes

c)

155 minutes

d)

31 minutes

69.

For an Oxygen H tank at 2000 psi with a flow of 5 L/min, when will the tank need to be replaced with a full one?

a)

21 minutes

b)

620 minutes

c)

93 minutes

d)

1,256 minutes

70.

How pure must O₂ tanks be before they can be used under FDA requirements?

a)

99% pure oxygen

b)

100% pure oxygen

c)

90% pure oxygen

d)

95% pure oxygen

71.

What color are helium tanks?

a)

Green

b)

Black

c)

Yellow

d)

Brown

72.

What color are Heliox tanks?

a)

Black and silver

b)

Green and yellow

c)

Blue and white

d)

Brown and green

73.

Why would a patient need heliox to be used?

a)

To humidify airways better than oxygen

b)

To increase anesthetic potency during surgery

c)

To reduce alveolar dead space in emphysema

d)

To lower gas density and improve flow past upper airway obstruction

74.

What are appropriate precautions for storing gas tanks? Select all that apply.

a)

Lay tanks horizontally to save space

b)

Post no-smoking signs in the area

c)

Store next to heat sources to prevent cooling

d)

Secure and chain tanks so they do not fall

e)

Allow the fill to vary within about 10% of the labeled amount

75.

When getting a new gas tank, what should the RT do before use?

a)

Shake the tank to settle contents

b)

Purge the line by turning on the regulator to maximum

c)

Crack the valve briefly to clear debris

d)

Fully open the valve immediately

76.

What are zone valves used for in hospitals?

a)

Increasing line pressure for high-flow devices

b)

Mixing medical gases centrally

c)

Stopping gas flow to specific areas without shutting down the entire facility

d)

Measuring wall-outlet pressures

77.

What is the minimum working pressure for gas that comes through hospital walls?

a)

100100 psi

b)

5050 psi

c)

8080 psi

d)

2020 psi

78.

What is the most important factor of large volume jet nebulizers?

a)

Tank color

b)

Temperature (cooled or heated)

c)

Patient age

d)

Particle charge

79.

For a patient with upper airway swelling on a large volume jet nebulizer, which temperature setting is appropriate?

a)

Heated aerosol

b)

Room-temperature dry gas

c)

Cooled aerosol

d)

Humidified oxygen without aerosol

80.

If a patient with a bypassed upper airway is on a large-volume jet nebulizer, should the nebulizer be cooled or heated?

a)

Heated

b)

Cooled

81.

For a patient using a T-piece trach collar, should the oxygen be heated or cooled?

a)

Cooled

b)

Heated

82.

What is the most important factor for humidification?

a)

Temperature

b)

Thermal mass

c)

Time of contact

d)

Surface area

83.

Which factors affect humidification? Select all that apply.

a)

Time of contact

b)

Temperature

c)

Thermal mass

d)

Surface area

84.

Which are humidification problems? Select all that apply.

a)

Increased humidity improves airway clearance

b)

Cross contamination

c)

Improper conditioning of gas

d)

Condensation buildup

85.

What is the tank factor for an 80:20 Heliox tank?

a)

1.41.4

b)

1.61.6

c)

1.81.8

d)

2.02.0

86.

What is the tank factor for a 70:30 Heliox tank?

a)

1.61.6

b)

2.02.0

c)

1.41.4

d)

1.81.8

87.

How do you calculate the actual flow on a Heliox tank?

a)

Liter flow × tank factor

b)

Tank factor ÷ liter flow

c)

Liter flow + tank factor

d)

Tank size × liter flow

88.

A patient is on an 80:20 Heliox tank at a flow of 33 L/min. What is the actual flow?

a)

4.24.2 L/min

b)

5.45.4 L/min

c)

6.06.0 L/min

d)

3.03.0 L/min

89.

A patient is on 70:30 Heliox with a liter flow of 22 L/min. What is the actual flow?

a)

3.23.2 L/min

b)

3.63.6 L/min

c)

4.04.0 L/min

d)

2.62.6 L/min

90.

Which formula converts Fahrenheit to Celsius?

a)

(F × 1.81.8 ) + 3232

b)

(F + 1.81.8 ) + 3232

c)

(F − 3232 ) + 1.81.8

d)

(F − 3232 ) / 1.81.8

91.

Which formula converts Celsius to Fahrenheit?

a)

(C − 3232 ) + 1.81.8

b)

(C × 1.81.8 ) + 3232

c)

(C + 1.81.8 ) + 3232

d)

(C × 1.81.8 ) − 3232

92.

What is 5050 degrees Fahrenheit in Celsius?

a)

2020 degrees Celsius

b)

1010 degrees Celsius

c)

3030 degrees Celsius

d)

55 degrees Celsius

93.

What is 2020 degrees Celsius in Fahrenheit?

a)

6060 degrees Fahrenheit

b)

6464 degrees Fahrenheit

c)

7272 degrees Fahrenheit

d)

6868 degrees Fahrenheit

94.

What is capillary action?

a)

Mixing of two fluids of different densities

b)

Downward flow of fluid due to gravity

c)

Evaporation of fluid from an open surface

d)

Movement of fluid up against gravity in narrow tubes

95.

Which are examples of capillary action? Select all that apply.

a)

Aerosols in nebulizers where fluid in the cup moves up into the air stream

b)

Bulk flow through large-diameter tubing

c)

Condensation forming on the outside of a tank

d)

Capillary sticks

96.

When doing an ABG what is the first thing that should be performed?

a)

Perform Allen Test

b)

Prep the alcohol wipe

c)

Stick the patient

d)

Clear the bubbles

97.

What is the term that refers to an abnormal deficiency of O2 in the arterial blood?

a)

Hyperemia

b)

Hypoxemia

c)

Hyperoxemia

d)

Hyperemia

98.

PaO2 and SaO2 Relationship

a)

The 4040 - 7070 - 6060 / 7070 - 5050 - 9090 Rule

b)

The 7070 - 5050 - 6060 / 7070 - 8080 - 9090 Rule

c)

The 2020 - 5050 - 6060 / 7070 - 8080 - 1010 Rule

d)

The 4040 - 5050 - 6060 / 7070 - 8080 - 9090 Rule

99.

A 53-year-old man was hospitalized for pneumonia. An ABG is ordered by the pulmonologist. The respiratory therapist (RT) comes to the patient's bedside to draw an arterial blood sample. The patient has a bounding right radial artery pulse, but it is noted that the patient has a scar on his distal forearm. Upon questioning, the RT discovers that the patient had a motorcycle accident 25 years ago and underwent surgery to repair a right wrist injury. What is the best action?

a)

Repeat the modified Allen test on the right hand to verify accuracy, ensuring proper technique and patient relaxation during the test before deciding which site to use.

b)

Proceed with the arterial puncture on the right radial artery, since the pulse is strong and the delay in hand perfusion is not clinically significant.

c)

Proceed with ABG sampling from an alternative arterial site such as the brachial or femoral artery, without retesting, since the right hand circulation appears delayed.

d)

Perform the modified Allen test on the left hand, and if the result is normal, use the left radial artery for ABG sampling to avoid potential ischemic complications.

100.

Using control media for calibration verification, the respiratory therapist (RT) responsible for the quality control of a blood gas analyzer in the intensive care unit (ICU) notes that the "high PCO2" control readings have increased progressively over the last four quality control analyses — from 60 ± 1 mm Hg to 66 ± 1 mm Hg. What is the most likely cause of this trend, and what action should the RT take?

a)

This change is within acceptable performance variation for high-level controls. No corrective action is required; continue with routine daily QC.

b)

The trend indicates a systematic (bias) error, most likely due to gradual deterioration or failure of the PCO2 electrode. The RT should inspect and replace the electrode if necessary and re-run calibration verification after maintenance.

c)

The results suggest contamination of calibration gases, possibly due to leaking tanks or moisture. The RT should replace all calibration gas tanks and recalibrate the analyzer.

d)

The change represents random analytical error caused by inconsistent mixing of control solutions. The RT should repeat the quality control test and re-analyze the same control media before taking further action.

101.

Most pre-analytical ABG errors can be avoided by ensuring that the sample is 1. Properly anticoagulated 2. Obtained anaerobically 3. Analyzed within 15 min. Which combination is correct?

a)

2 and 3 only

b)

1 and 3 only

c)

1 and 2 only

d)

1, 2 and 3

102.

During calibration of a Clark polarographic O2 analyzer, you cannot get the sensor to read 100% when exposed to 100% O2, even after adjusting its calibration control. The unit has new batteries. What appropriate step should be taken next to troubleshoot the issue?

a)

Replace the unit's batteries.

b)

Change the sensor or electrode.

c)

Use it only with low FiO2 values.

d)

Send the device out for repair.

103.

When performing a percutaneous needle puncture of the radial artery, you get only a small spurt of blood. What is the best action at this time?

a)

Slowly advance the needle until a pulsatile flow fills the syringe.

b)

Pull out entirely, use a different angle and then reinsert it.

c)

Repeat the procedure with a fresh blood gas kit.

d)

Slowly withdraw the needle until a pulsatile flow fills the syringe.

104.

What PPE does the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommend as a barrier to use when obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) through percutaneous puncture? 1. Gloves 2. Protective eyewear 3. Gown or apron. Which combination is correct?

a)

1, 2, and 3

b)

None

c)

1 and 2 only

d)

1 only

105.

Before performing puncture or cannulation of the radial artery, what should you do?

a)

Perform the Allen test to ensure collateral circulation.

b)

Fix and tighten a tourniquet above the antecubital fossa.

c)

Inject heparin into the adjoining subcutaneous tissues.

d)

Apply firm pressure to the arterial site for 5 min.

106.

While checking a polarographic (Clark) electrode, you determine that the device fails to read 100% when exposed to pure O2. What should be the proper first step towards troubleshooting?

a)

Check the silica crystals.

b)

Send the device out for repair.

c)

Replace the analyzer's batteries.

d)

Charge the analyzer's fuel cell.