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Price Elasticity: Demand and Supply

Total questions: 145

Worksheet time: 2hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does price elasticity measure in economics?

a)

Responsiveness of quantity to price changes

b)

Total revenue at current market price

c)

Consumer satisfaction over time

d)

Number of buyers in a given market

2.

Which general elasticity formula is correct?

a)

Change in quantity over change in independent variable

b)

Quantity demanded plus price change divided

c)

Change in price over change in quantity demanded

d)

Average quantity over average price level

3.

Price elasticity of demand is typically reported using which value?

a)

Square of elasticity coefficient

b)

Absolute value of the coefficient

c)

Signed negative coefficient value

d)

Reciprocal of price change percent

4.

Which category applies when percentage change in quantity is greater than percentage change in price?

a)

Elastic demand case

b)

Inelastic demand case

c)

Unitary demand case

d)

Perfectly inelastic case

5.

When percentage change in quantity equals percentage change in price, demand is classified as

a)

Perfectly elastic demand

b)

Unitary elastic demand

c)

Income elastic demand

d)

Perfectly inelastic demand

6.

If percentage change in quantity is less than percentage change in price, demand is

a)

Unitary demand situation

b)

Inelastic demand situation

c)

Giffen demand situation

d)

Elastic demand situation

7.

Which statement about the midpoint (arc) method is accurate?

a)

It ignores quantity changes in calculation

b)

It uses averages of initial and final values

c)

It requires infinitesimal price changes

d)

It uses only initial values as base cases

8.

Given an elasticity magnitude less than 1, the demand for coffee in the example is

a)

Inelastic demand case

b)

Elastic demand case

c)

Unitary demand case

d)

Perfectly elastic case

9.

Which factor increases demand elasticity according to the text?

a)

Greater necessity of the product

b)

Lower share of income spent

c)

Shorter time to respond

d)

More available substitutes for consumers

10.

Demand tends to be inelastic when the product is a

a)

Luxury good with many brands

b)

Basic necessity for households

c)

Service with low budget share

d)

Item with many substitutes

11.

Which time-related statement is correct for elasticity?

a)

More time to adjust makes demand more elastic

b)

Less time to adjust makes demand more elastic

c)

Time has no effect on elasticity at all

d)

Only producers’ time affects elasticity

12.

Price elasticity of supply is generally understood to be

a)

Zero under all market conditions

b)

Undefined for discrete price changes

c)

Negative because of inverse relationship

d)

Positive because price and quantity move together

13.

Which interpretation aligns with an elasticity magnitude greater than one?

a)

Quantity response is proportionally larger

b)

Quantity response is proportionally smaller

c)

Quantity response is exactly proportional

d)

Quantity does not change at all

14.

Which formula expresses price elasticity of demand using percentages?

a)

Change in price times change in quantity demanded

b)

Percentage change in price over percentage change in quantity demanded

c)

Percentage change in quantity demanded over percentage change in price

d)

Price over quantity demanded difference measure

15.

When computed elasticity equals zero because quantity does not change as price changes, demand is

a)

Cross-price elastic in classification

b)

Perfectly inelastic in classification

c)

Perfectly elastic in classification

d)

Unitary elastic in classification

16.

Which formula correctly expresses income elasticity of demand (ηd)?

a)

Percentage change in quantity supplied over percentage change in income

b)

Percentage change in income over percentage change in quantity demanded

c)

Percentage change in quantity demanded over percentage change in income

d)

Percentage change in price over percentage change in quantity

17.

A normal good is best described as a product where demand does what as consumers’ income rises?

a)

Remains unchanged despite income growth

b)

Increases when income increases

c)

Decreases when income increases

d)

Fluctuates randomly with income changes

18.

An inferior good is characterized by which demand pattern as income increases?

a)

Demand falls as income rises

b)

Demand becomes perfectly elastic with income

c)

Demand stays constant across incomes

d)

Demand increases with higher income

19.

Charlie’s quantity demanded for beef steak rises from 1 to 4 when income rises from 25,000 to 32,500. Using the given method, what is ηd for beef steak?

a)

+1.67 using inverse ratio

b)

+0.30 using income proportion

c)

+3.0 using midpoint method

d)

+10.0 using base-period normalization

20.

For fried chicken, Charlie’s quantity demanded drops from 4 to 2 as income rises from 25,000 to 32,500. What is the sign and magnitude of ηd reported?

a)

0.30 indicating unit elasticity

b)

−0.50 indicating mild inferiority

c)

+1.67 indicating normal good

d)

−1.67 indicating inferior good

21.

Which interpretation aligns with a positive income elasticity value?

a)

Supply shifts left as income increases

b)

Quantity demanded increases when income rises

c)

Quantity demanded declines when income rises

d)

Price falls with income growth

22.

Which statement about determinants of price elasticity of supply is accurate?

a)

Limited substitutes for inputs make supply more elastic

b)

Longer production time always yields perfectly elastic supply

c)

Greater input alternatives increase supply elasticity

d)

More available resources tend to make supply less elastic

23.

Given ηd = (Qd2 − Qd1)/Qd1 divided by ((I2 − I1)/I1), what happens to ηd if the income change denominator is small?

a)

ηd equals one due to proportionality

b)

ηd turns negative automatically

c)

ηd approaches zero regardless of quantity change

d)

ηd becomes larger in magnitude for a given quantity change

24.

Which term describes the recurring ups and downs in aggregate economic performance over time?

a)

Structural growth path of trends

b)

Secular stagnation in long runs

c)

Seasonal patterns within quarters

d)

Business cycle fluctuations over years

25.

During which business cycle phase do output and employment generally rise from a trough?

a)

Expansion or boom phase begins

b)

Recession or slump phase starts

c)

Peak or highest point phase

d)

Depression or deep slump phase

26.

What is aggregate output most closely measured by in macroeconomics?

a)

Total value of GDP in a period

b)

Average real wages over time

c)

Net exports minus imports

d)

Government current expenditures

27.

Which statement best distinguishes GDP from GNI?

a)

GDP excludes nonresidents, GNI excludes residents

b)

GDP includes residents abroad, GNI excludes foreign income

c)

GDP measures value added only, GNI measures final sales

d)

GDP counts production within territory, GNI counts residents' income

28.

A prolonged and deep recession is called what?

a)

Depression in economic activity

b)

Disinflation in price levels

c)

Devaluation of the currency

d)

Deficit in fiscal accounts

29.

Moving from a peak to a trough is labeled as which phase?

a)

Stagnation, plateau, or lull

b)

Recovery, rebound, or surge

c)

Expansion, boom, or upswing

d)

Contraction, recession, or slump

30.

Which event would most likely reduce both GDP growth and GNI growth for a country like the Philippines?

a)

Minor policy change on road tolls

b)

Good harvest in one farming region

c)

Local festival increasing tourism briefly

d)

Global financial crisis reducing exports

31.

In the diagram of the business cycle, the highest point of output in a cycle is called what?

a)

Base of potential output

b)

Trend of long-run growth

c)

Trough of the current cycle

d)

Peak of the current cycle

32.

Why might unemployment temporarily increase even in a healthy, dynamic economy?

a)

Wage rigidity never adjusting

b)

Job search after voluntary quits

c)

Permanent collapse of demand

d)

Zero labor market turnover

33.

Which situation is an example of frictional unemployment?

a)

Wages fixed above equilibrium

b)

Automation replacing machinists

c)

Industry shutdown from imports

d)

A new graduate seeking first job

34.

What macroeconomic indicator is defined as the percentage of the jobless labor force?

a)

Underemployment composite rate

b)

Employment-to-population ratio

c)

Labor force participation

d)

Unemployment rate percentage

35.

Which statement about expansions and contractions is most accurate?

a)

Expansions can be longer or gradual

b)

Expansions always equal contractions

c)

Contractions are always very slow

d)

Cycles follow regular fixed timing

36.

If output has just left a trough and is rising at a positive rate, what is true about the level of output?

a)

Level exceeds potential GDP

b)

Level is at a new cycle peak

c)

Level is at long-run trend

d)

Level remains low but growing

37.

Which definition of value added aligns with measuring GNI?

a)

Portion added at each production stage

b)

Total retail price before taxation

c)

Foreign remittances minus imports

d)

Capital stock purchased by firms

38.

When unemployment exceeds a minimum amount at going wages, what market condition exists?

a)

Labor market clears instantly

b)

Excess demand for labor exists

c)

Excess supply of labor persists

d)

No search frictions are present

39.

Which statement best defines inflation in macroeconomics?

a)

A fall in nominal wages across industries

b)

A sustained increase in overall price level

c)

A rise in production with constant prices

d)

A one-time jump in select commodity prices

40.

Hyperinflation is most accurately described as which scenario?

a)

Prices rising only in luxury goods markets

b)

A steady 2% annual increase in prices

c)

Rapid, persistent price increases over short intervals

d)

Temporary spikes followed by quick deflation

41.

Which outcome is a typical cost of inflation for households and firms?

a)

Higher real balances without trade-offs

b)

Perfectly predictable long-run contracts

c)

Lower uncertainty about future prices

d)

Reduced purchasing power and menu costs

42.

Deflation refers to which macroeconomic condition?

a)

A sustained decrease in the overall price level

b)

A slowdown in GDP with fixed prices

c)

A fall in some administered energy prices

d)

Seasonal discounts in retail sectors

43.

In June 2022, which Philippine sector saw notably high price pressure compared with May?

a)

Information services moving from 2.8% to 2.9%

b)

Recreation rising sharply from 1.7% to 3.5%

c)

Health care increasing from 4.8% to 6.1%

d)

Transport with a jump from about 14.6% to 17.1%

44.

In the circular flow, which flow represents income to households from firms?

a)

Exports of goods to foreign markets

b)

Wages, interest, dividends, and rent

c)

Taxes and import duties paid to government

d)

Purchases of public goods by households

45.

Which sector is classified as the foreign sector in the circular flow model?

a)

Private firms sector

b)

Rest of the World sector

c)

Public government sector

d)

Household consumer sector

46.

What is a leakage from the household sector as described in the circular flow?

a)

Saving by households during the period

b)

Exports sold to foreigners

c)

Government purchases of goods

d)

Payment of wages by firms

47.

Which statement best distinguishes the roles of households and firms in factor and product markets within the diagram?

a)

Firms demand taxes from households and supply savings

b)

Firms supply labor to households and demand goods

c)

Households demand labor from firms and supply goods

d)

Households supply labor to firms and demand goods

48.

If the government’s total payments exceed its tax revenues in the diagram context, what condition does the government experience?

a)

A balanced circular flow

b)

Dissaving by the government sector

c)

An increase in household income

d)

A trade surplus with foreigners

49.

A country increases imports while household incomes remain constant. Using the circular flow, which immediate effect is most likely?

a)

More spending leaks abroad, reducing domestic demand

b)

Firms’ wage payments automatically rise for workers

c)

Government tax revenues increase without policy change

d)

Household savings must fall to exactly offset imports

50.

Which transaction correctly matches to the goods-and-services market described with the circular flow?

a)

Households buying appliances from firms

b)

Firms paying wages to employees

c)

Government collecting income taxes

d)

Households receiving dividends from firms

51.

Which market arena involves purchases of finished products by households, firms, government, and the rest of the world?

a)

Labor market for employment contracts

b)

Foreign exchange market for currencies

c)

Goods-and-services market for finished outputs

d)

Money market for financial assets

52.

In the labor market, what is the typical role of households?

a)

Households regulate wages through policy

b)

Households issue treasury bills for funding

c)

Households demand final goods from firms

d)

Households supply labor services to employers

53.

Which statement best describes the money (financial) market?

a)

Only government hires and pays workers

b)

Prices are fixed by administrative rule

c)

Only firms trade consumer products

d)

Funds flow between savers and borrowers

54.

What do firms and the government do in the labor market?

a)

They set monetary policy instruments

b)

They demand labor services from households

c)

They supply consumer goods to buyers

d)

They issue shares to raise equity funds

55.

Which is an example of a financial instrument representing ownership in a firm?

a)

Corporate bonds offering voting rights

b)

Treasury bills paying wage income

c)

Dividends representing fixed coupons

d)

Shares of stock granting profit rights

56.

Dividends are best defined as which of the following?

a)

Portion of profits paid to shareholders

b)

Interest charged on corporate loans

c)

Taxes collected from household income

d)

Premiums paid to insurance clients

57.

Which action is part of fiscal policy?

a)

Changing government spending and taxation

b)

Managing exchange rate peg adjustments

c)

Setting bank reserve requirement ratios

d)

Targeting money supply growth rates

58.

An expansionary fiscal policy most likely involves which change?

a)

Increasing government spending on programs

b)

Raising policy rates to slow borrowing

c)

Cutting exports to improve trade balance

d)

Reducing labor supply through regulation

59.

What is the primary focus of monetary policy in the Philippine framework described?

a)

Maximizing employment through wage subsidies

b)

Managing imports through tariff schedules

c)

Balancing the budget by raising income taxes

d)

Maintaining price stability via inflation targeting

60.

In the goods-and-services market, how do firms interact with each other?

a)

They buy intermediate and capital goods

b)

They exchange workers for training credits

c)

They swap shares to avoid competition

d)

They coordinate tax rates across sectors

61.

Which transaction is a leakage from household spending in the circular flow description?

a)

Household saving reducing current outlays

b)

Household receipt of dividend income

c)

Household payment of wages to workers

d)

Household purchase of local groceries

62.

Imports and exports in the circular flow primarily link domestic agents with which sector?

a)

Central monetary authority unit

b)

Nonprofit institutions sector

c)

Underground informal economy

d)

Rest of the world trading partners

63.

Which instrument is issued by corporations when they borrow in financial markets?

a)

Demand deposits created by banks

b)

Treasury notes financing public deficits

c)

Preferred dividends guaranteeing yields

d)

Corporate bonds promising future payments

64.

If the government’s revenue is less than its payments to households and firms, which condition occurs?

a)

The government is running a trade surplus

b)

The government is expanding labor supply

c)

The government is dissaving during the period

d)

The government is tightening monetary policy

65.

Which policy action best matches contractionary fiscal policy?

a)

Reducing government spending or raising taxes

b)

Lowering interest rates to spur bank lending

c)

Increasing transfer payments to households

d)

Buying corporate bonds in open markets

66.

Which statement best defines Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?

a)

Market value of goods made by citizens abroad

b)

Total value of all goods including intermediate goods

c)

Sum of corporate profits and household incomes only

d)

Total market value of all final goods and services

67.

Why are intermediate goods excluded when calculating GDP?

a)

Because they have no market prices available

b)

To avoid double counting across production stages

c)

Because firms cannot report their quantities

d)

Since they are always imported from abroad

68.

In the car example, why is the price of tires not added separately to GDP?

a)

Tires are produced outside the country’s borders

b)

Tires are classified as used goods, not new goods

c)

The car’s final price already reflects the tires’ value

d)

Tires are services, not tangible goods

69.

What does the value-added approach measure at each production stage?

a)

Wages paid to labor and interest to capital

b)

Number of units produced and shipped

c)

Total sales revenue at every stage combined

d)

Increase in value as inputs become outputs

70.

Using the gasoline example, which total should be used for GDP from the production chain?

a)

Sum of value added at all stages equals final price

b)

Only the initial crude oil value at extraction stage

c)

Only the profit margin of the final retail seller

d)

Sum of all sales values across all stages combined

71.

Which transaction is counted in current GDP?

a)

A broker’s fee for selling existing shares

b)

Resale of a three-year-old used car

c)

Transfer of ownership of a ten-year-old house

d)

Purchase of previously issued government bonds

72.

Which scenario illustrates double counting if included in GDP?

a)

Including broker fees for stock transactions

b)

Summing value added at each production stage

c)

Counting the purchase of newly built homes

d)

Adding tire sales to the value of completed cars

73.

Which output is included in a country’s GDP under the location principle?

a)

Profits earned abroad by domestic corporations

b)

Goods produced domestically by foreign-owned firms

c)

Dividends received from foreign companies abroad

d)

Wages of citizens working in another country

74.

What distinguishes GDP from GNP?

a)

GDP counts only final services, GNP counts only goods

b)

GDP is expenditure based, GNP is income based

c)

GDP excludes services, GNP includes all services

d)

GDP counts location of production, GNP counts ownership

75.

Consider a plant in the Philippines owned by a Japanese firm employing Filipino workers. Which is true?

a)

Output counts in Philippine GDP but profits in Japan’s GNP

b)

Output counts in Japan’s GDP but wages in Philippine GNP

c)

Profits count in Philippine GDP and Japan’s GNP

d)

Wages count in Japan’s GNP and Philippine GDP

76.

Which statement about the expenditure and income approaches to GDP is accurate?

a)

They differ because income excludes business profits

b)

They differ because spending excludes household consumption

c)

They yield the same total because spending equals income

d)

They yield different totals due to statistical bias

77.

Under the income approach, which payments are summed to compute GDP?

a)

Wages, rents, interest, and profits received

b)

Only profits retained by private corporations

c)

Exports minus imports plus government transfers

d)

Consumer purchases, investment, and government outlays

78.

Which equation represents the expenditure approach to GDP?

a)

GDP = W + R + I + P − IM

b)

GDP = C + S + T + (EX − IM)

c)

GDP = C+Ia+G+(EX−IM)C + I^a + G + (EX − IM)

d)

GDP = C+Ia−G+(IM−EX)C + I^a − G + (IM − EX)

79.

Personal consumption expenditures primarily include which items?

a)

Consumer purchases of goods and services

b)

Firm purchases of plant and equipment

c)

Government salaries and transfers

d)

Foreigners’ purchases of domestic goods

80.

Durable goods are best described as

a)

Payments to doctors and universities for services

b)

Goods like food and gasoline, used up quickly

c)

Items like automobiles and appliances, lasting long

d)

Business inventories produced now for later sale

81.

Non-durable goods are

a)

Goods like cars, furniture, and appliances

b)

Goods such as food, clothing, and gasoline

c)

Spending on legal and educational services

d)

Government purchases of final goods only

82.

Services within consumption include

a)

Payments to doctors, lawyers, and schools

b)

Purchases of stocks, bonds, and mutual funds

c)

Buying new residential housing units

d)

Government payments of interest on debt

83.

Gross private domestic investment excludes which financial item?

a)

Purchases of stocks, bonds, or mutual funds

b)

Changes in business inventories during period

c)

Purchases of new machines and equipment

d)

Construction of new residential housing

84.

Non-residential investment refers to

a)

Firm spending on machines, tools, and plants

b)

Household purchases of food and clothing

c)

Government spending on public school salaries

d)

Foreigners buying domestically produced goods

85.

Residential investment includes

a)

Payments for medical and legal services

b)

Spending on durable household appliances only

c)

Expenditures for new houses and apartments

d)

Government construction of military bases

86.

A positive change in business inventories means

a)

Imports exceeded exports for the quarter

b)

Households consumed fewer services than usual

c)

Government reduced its purchases of goods

d)

Firms produced more than they sold this period

87.

Government consumption and gross investment counts which items in GDP?

a)

Interest payments on outstanding government debt

b)

Transfer payments like pensions and stipends

c)

State and local purchases of final goods and services

d)

Private purchases of stocks and corporate bonds

88.

Transfer payments are excluded from GDP because they

a)

Do not pay for current production of goods or services

b)

Include only benefits to veterans and retirees

c)

Are financed by distortionary taxation policies

d)

Occur only at the federal level of government

89.

Net exports equal

a)

Exports of goods and services minus imports

b)

Imports plus exports divided by population

c)

Domestic production sold to residents only

d)

Foreign aid received from other countries

90.

If imports exceed exports, the value of net exports is

a)

Negative and reduces measured GDP

b)

Positive and increases measured GDP

c)

Zero and leaves GDP unchanged

d)

Indeterminate without price indexes

91.

Why must imports be subtracted in the expenditure approach?

a)

Imports represent payments to domestic labor only

b)

C, I^a, and G include spending on foreign goods

c)

Imports always crowd out domestic investment

d)

Imports are counted as transfer payments

92.

A Philippine firm produces smartphones domestically and sells them in Germany. In GDP accounting, these smartphones are

a)

Counted as transfers, not current output

b)

Counted in German consumption and GDP only

c)

Counted in Philippine exports and GDP

d)

Excluded from GDP because sold abroad

93.

Which item is included in national income as compensation of employees?

a)

Employer contributions to social insurance

b)

Interest paid by households on loans

c)

Household purchases of goods and services

d)

Government consumer subsidies to firms

94.

Proprietors' income in the income approach refers to income from which source?

a)

Corporate shareholders' dividends

b)

Unincorporated businesses' owners

c)

Government enterprise surpluses

d)

Rental income from property

95.

Which component is explicitly excluded from net interest in national income?

a)

Interest paid by households and government

b)

Interest received by banks from firms

c)

Interest on business loans within firms

d)

Interest on corporate bonds to investors

96.

Indirect taxes minus subsidies represent which concept in national income?

a)

Depreciation of private capital stock

b)

Payments for factor services abroad

c)

Total taxes collected before transfers

d)

Net revenue received by the government

97.

Net business transfer payments are defined as what?

a)

Taxes paid by firms after subsidies

b)

Net transfers made by businesses to others

c)

Dividends distributed to households

d)

Retained earnings kept by corporations

98.

In the table shown, the surplus of government enterprises was negative. What does a negative value indicate?

a)

Enterprises operated at a net loss

b)

Enterprises paid no factor income

c)

Taxes exceeded total subsidies

d)

Subsidies were fully eliminated

99.

Moving from GDP to GNP requires which adjustment?

a)

Replace indirect taxes with subsidies value

b)

Subtract statistical discrepancy entirely

c)

Add depreciation of domestic capital stock

d)

Add receipts of factor income from the rest of the world

100.

Which sequence correctly links the aggregates when moving from GNP toward national income?

a)

GNP minus depreciation equals NNP

b)

GNP plus depreciation equals NNP

c)

GNP minus statistical discrepancy equals GDP

d)

GNP minus retained earnings equals NNP

101.

What does the statistical discrepancy measure in national accounts?

a)

Changes in depreciation over time

b)

Measurement error in data collection

c)

Unreported household cash income

d)

Black market transactions only

102.

Personal income excludes which portion of corporate profits?

a)

Retained earnings kept by corporations

b)

Interest paid on corporate debt

c)

Dividends distributed to households

d)

Corporate income taxes remitted

103.

Disposable personal income is defined as what amount?

a)

Personal income minus personal income taxes

b)

GNP minus depreciation and discrepancy

c)

National income minus all indirect taxes

d)

Personal income minus corporate retained earnings

104.

Which category is a component of household spending out of disposable personal income?

a)

Exports of goods and services

b)

Corporate inventory investment

c)

Government capital formation

d)

Personal consumption expenditures

105.

If a household's monthly disposable personal income is Php 500 and its personal consumption expenditures are Php 450 with no interest payments or transfers, what is personal saving?

a)

Php 500 for the month

b)

Php 50 for the month

c)

Php 450 for the month

d)

Php 100 for the month

106.

Personal saving can be negative when which situation occurs?

a)

Indirect taxes rise and subsidies fall

b)

Retained earnings increase sharply

c)

GNP decreases but GDP increases

d)

Spending exceeds disposable personal income

107.

The personal saving rate is best described as which measure?

a)

Percentage of disposable personal income saved

b)

Ratio of personal income to national income

c)

Share of wages in national income

d)

Growth rate of household consumption

108.

Which statement best defines the labor force participation rate (LFPR)?

a)

Share of employed in total labor force

b)

Share of underemployed in employed

c)

Share of unemployed in total population

d)

Share of labor force in adult population

109.

Who is classified as employed during the reference period?

a)

Anyone unavailable due to illness

b)

Anyone actively seeking but not yet hired

c)

Anyone with a full-time salaried position

d)

Anyone who did any job for one hour

110.

Which description fits frictional unemployment?

a)

Long-term skill-job mismatch

b)

Job loss due to wage floors

c)

Short-run voluntary job transitions

d)

Joblessness from business cycle downturns

111.

Structural unemployment primarily arises from which situation?

a)

Temporary layoffs for holidays

b)

Mismatch between skills and jobs

c)

Workers switching jobs between firms

d)

Firms cutting wages during recessions

112.

Cyclical unemployment is most closely associated with which macroeconomic condition?

a)

Ups and downs of the business cycle

b)

Seasonal patterns in agriculture

c)

Voluntary quits for better matches

d)

Technological change across industries

113.

Which rate measures unemployed persons as a proportion of the total labor force?

a)

Participation rate

b)

Underemployment rate

c)

Employment rate

d)

Unemployment rate

114.

Underemployment includes which group in its definition?

a)

Employed wanting more hours

b)

Discouraged workers only

c)

Retirees returning to part-time work

d)

Students not seeking any job

115.

According to efficiency wage theory, why might paying above-market wages increase unemployment?

a)

Government reduces labor taxes

b)

More people apply than firms hire

c)

Workers refuse job training programs

d)

Firms instantly automate all tasks

116.

Imperfect information causes unemployment when firms do what?

a)

Set wages indexed to inflation

b)

Set wages too high unintentionally

c)

Set wages below minimum wage

d)

Set wages exactly at market level

117.

Minimum wage laws can create unemployment when which condition holds?

a)

Market wage is above the floor

b)

Market wage equals the floor

c)

Market wage is below the floor

d)

Market wage is indexed to CPI

118.

Which practice can sustain cyclical unemployment by preventing wage cuts during downturns?

a)

On-the-job training programs

b)

Relative wage concerns

c)

Short-run job search frictions

d)

Seasonal employment contracts

119.

Which statement about explicit contracts is most accurate?

a)

They require wage cuts during booms

b)

They fix wages for one to three years

c)

They tie pay to daily inflation moves

d)

They vary wages monthly with sales

120.

How do cost-of-living adjustments (COLAs) affect wages during inflation?

a)

Wages fall faster than prices

b)

Wages remain permanently fixed

c)

Wages rise with price increases

d)

Wages fluctuate randomly

121.

A software engineer leaves a job to search for a better fit and is unemployed for two months. Which type applies?

a)

Seasonal unemployment

b)

Structural unemployment

c)

Frictional unemployment

d)

Cyclical unemployment

122.

A coal miner loses a job because demand shifts to renewable energy and lacks retraining. Which type applies?

a)

Cyclical unemployment

b)

Structural unemployment

c)

Voluntary nonparticipation

d)

Frictional unemployment

123.

Which idea best describes the life-cycle theory of consumption?

a)

Young households never borrow for early spending

b)

Consumption always equals income at every age

c)

People spend only current income each period

d)

Households smooth consumption over their lifetime

124.

In the life-cycle pattern, how does income typically change over time?

a)

Low early, lowest middle, high in retirement

b)

Constant across all ages for workers

c)

High early, constant, highest in retirement

d)

Low early, high middle, low in retirement

125.

What is a key reason young households may consume more than current income?

a)

Borrowing against expected future earnings

b)

Receiving mandatory government transfers

c)

Selling accumulated retirement assets now

d)

Facing unusually low interest rates always

126.

When income rises in midlife, how is earlier borrowing typically handled?

a)

Debt is rolled forever without repayment

b)

Debt is repaid while maintaining consumption

c)

Debt is repaid only after retirement begins

d)

Debt is ignored and defaulted by design

127.

What does it mean if a household has negative wealth?

a)

Assets exceed debts by a small margin

b)

Cash balances are unusually high always

c)

Assets equal liabilities exactly at present

d)

Debts exceed the value of owned assets

128.

Which statement about positive wealth is correct?

a)

Wealth never changes over the life cycle

b)

Assets exceed debts, supporting later consumption

c)

Debts exceed assets, limiting lifetime spending

d)

Assets and debts are always equal by choice

129.

What decision is jointly determined with consumption for most households?

a)

Choice of immigration destination

b)

Portfolio choice of corporate bonds

c)

Labor supply choices for work and hours

d)

Selection of preferred tax brackets

130.

Which factor directly increases the opportunity cost of leisure?

a)

A higher wage rate for work hours

b)

A decline in market labor demand

c)

A lower general price of services

d)

A temporary fall in nonlabor income

131.

What is the substitution effect of a wage rate increase?

a)

Real income falls, hours of work rise

b)

Leisure becomes cheaper, hours of work fall

c)

Leisure becomes costlier, hours of work rise

d)

Real income rises, hours of work fixed

132.

Assuming leisure is a normal good, what is the income effect of a wage increase?

a)

Households consume more leisure, work fewer hours

b)

Households consume less leisure, work more hours

c)

Households hold hours unchanged regardless

d)

Households increase both leisure and hours

133.

Why must we distinguish nominal from real wage rates?

a)

Prices always move identically with wages

b)

Real wages are always lower by law

c)

Nominal wages cannot be measured directly

d)

Prices of goods and services may change

134.

If nominal wages rise 10% while all prices rise 10%, what happens to the real wage?

a)

It doubles relative to last year

b)

It falls significantly below zero

c)

It rises by more than ten percent

d)

It stays approximately unchanged

135.

Which example best illustrates a change in purchasing power of wages?

a)

An hour buys fewer goods at same nominal pay

b)

A worker receives more hours at same wage

c)

Tax filing date moves earlier in the year

d)

A firm changes payroll software vendor

136.

Which scenario most likely increases labor force size over time?

a)

Lower immigration with constant births

b)

Higher birth cohorts reaching working age

c)

Fewer young people surviving to 20

d)

Longer vacations mandated by firms

137.

Which activity is a non-market alternative to supplying labor?

a)

Raising a child at home without pay

b)

Working overtime for higher wages

c)

Freelancing on digital platforms

d)

Training for a firm-sponsored role

138.

Two identical households differ only in inherited wealth. What is the likely effect on their consumption paths?

a)

The wealthier household consumes more over life

b)

Neither household adjusts consumption ever

c)

Both households consume exactly the same always

d)

The poorer household consumes permanently more

139.

A household receives an unexpected inheritance. What is a likely response?

a)

Spend the entire amount immediately

b)

Decrease consumption to save all funds

c)

Avoid any change until retirement

d)

Increase consumption now and in the future

140.

Which statement best links consumption smoothing and accumulated savings late in life?

a)

Young workers consume least to avoid saving

b)

Midlife households hold zero financial assets

c)

Retirees borrow more to raise current income

d)

Saving during work years finances retirement

141.

Which statement best describes firms in perfect competition regarding pricing power?

a)

They set prices with limited collusion

b)

They are price makers with full control

c)

They are price takers with no control

d)

They negotiate prices with each buyer

142.

What is a defining characteristic of products in perfect competition?

a)

Homogeneous or standardized products

b)

Highly differentiated premium brands

c)

Unique goods with no substitutes

d)

Customized goods for niche markets

143.

In perfect competition, what happens when economic profit exists in the short run?

a)

Government sets price floors

b)

Existing firms restrict output

c)

New firms enter, increasing supply

d)

Firms collude to keep prices

144.

Which condition about buyers is typical in a perfectly competitive market?

a)

Many buyers across a large market

b)

Regional buyer monopolizes demand

c)

Few buyers with strong bargaining

d)

Single buyer dictating market terms

145.

Which barrier is commonly associated with monopolies?

a)

Abundant small-scale producers

b)

Legal restrictions like licenses

c)

Seasonal demand fluctuations

d)

Low switching costs for users