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International Business and Globalization Worksheet

Total questions: 124

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Any commercial transaction that crosses the borders of two or more nations is known as _________.

a)

Domestic marketing

b)

Market segmentation

c)

International business

d)

Global manufacturing

2.

Goods and services purchased abroad and brought into a country are called _________

a)

Gross domestic products (GDP)

b)

Exports

c)

Gross national products (GNP)

d)

Imports

3.

_________ are all goods and services sold abroad and sent out of a country.

a)

Net national products

b)

Exports

c)

Gross domestic products (GDP)

d)

Imports

4.

_________ is the trend toward greater economic, cultural, political, and technological interdependence among national institutions and economies.

a)

Privitization

b)

Heterogenization

c)

Globalization

d)

Decentralization

5.

A born global firm is a company that engages in international business from or near its inception.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Two major forces that underlie the expansion of globalization are falling barriers to trade and investment, and _________.

a)

Elevation of nationalism

b)

Rise of closed economies

c)

Political stagnation

d)

Technological innovatioN

7.

The purpose of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was to ________.

a)

Create an international currency

b)

Regulate exchange rates

c)

Create regional trade organizations

d)

Promote free trade

8.

The three main goals of the World Trade Organization (WTO) are to help the free flow of trade, help negotiate the further opening of markets, and ________.

a)

Measure the extent of globalization across the world

b)

Settle trade disputes between its members

c)

Accelerate technological innovation

d)

Fund small traders in developing nations

9.

The ________ is an agency created to provide financing for national economic development efforts.

a)

Global Financial Markets Association

b)

World Trade Organization (WTO)

c)

Financial Stability Board

d)

World Bank

10.

Which of the following was created to regulate fixed exchange rates and enforce the rules of the International monetary system?

a)

International Monetary Fund

b)

World Trade Organization

c)

European Union

d)

World Bank

11.

Opponents argue that globalization ________.

a)

Eliminates manufacturing jobs in developed nations

b)

Generates labor market flexibility in developed nations

c)

Brings an end to practices like outsourcing

d)

Slows down the employment rate in developing nations

12.

Globalization is criticized because it ________.

a)

Does not generate labor market flexibility in developing nations

b)

Prevents developed countries from outsourcing work to developing nations

c)

Creates fewer manufacturing jobs in developing nations

d)

Exploits workers in low-wage nations

13.

Supporters affirm that globalization ________.

a)

Brings an end to practices like outsourcing

b)

Causes worker dislocation that gradually lowers wages

c)

Increases wealth and efficiency in all countries

d)

Curbs market flexibility in developed nations

14.

“Emerging markets” is a term that refers to an economy that experiences considerable economic growth and possesses some, but not all, characteristics of a developed economy. Emerging markets are countries that are transitioning from the “developing” phase to the “developed” phase.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Which of the following terms is defined as the set of values, beliefs, rules, and institutions held by a specific group of people?

a)

Law

b)

Philosophy

c)

Culture

d)

Science

16.

Ethnocentricity can be defined as the _________

a)

Scientific description of individual human societies.

b)

Systematic study of an ethnic group's religious core.

c)

Merging of all ethnic practices into one homogeneous culture.

d)

Belief that one's own ethnic group or culture is superior to that of others

17.

Detailed knowledge about a culture that enables people to work happily and effectively within it is called _________

a)

Cultural literacy

b)

Cultural imperialism

c)

Cultural diffusion

d)

Cultural divergence

18.

Which of the following is defined as a group of people who share a unique way of life within a larger, dominant culture?

a)

Macroculture

b)

Subculture

c)

Culture universal

d)

Monocultural

19.

Which of the following is a cultural component that implies gauging the beauty and appeal of artwork?

a)

Customs

b)

Mores

c)

Folkways

d)

Aesthetics

20.

Which of the following terms is used to refer to the ideas, beliefs, and customs to which people are emotionally attached?

a)

Attitudes

b)

Memetics

c)

Aesthetics

d)

Values

21.

Which of the following terms is used to refer to the positive or negative evaluations, feelings, and tendencies that individuals harbor toward objects or concepts?

a)

Customs

b)

Attitudes

c)

Traditions

d)

Values

22.

Which of the following statements is true of attitudes?

a)

Over the years, they become more rigid than values.

b)

They are learned from role models.

c)

Because they're formed within a cultural context, they mirror the attitudes of surrounding countries.

d)

They are developed only for the most important aspects of life.

23.

A(n) ________ is anything that represents a culture's way of life, including gestures, material objects, traditions, and concepts.

a)

Social structure

b)

Social status

c)

Cultural baggage

d)

Cultural trait

24.

________ is increasing the pace of both cultural diffusion and cultural change.

a)

Collectivism

b)

Enculturation

c)

Fundamentalism

d)

Globalization

25.

Which of the following refers to the process by which cultural traits spread from one culture to another?

a)

Cultural heterogeneity

b)

Cultural imperialism

c)

Cultural diffusion

d)

Cultural literacy

26.

Which of the following terms is used to refer to habits or ways of behaving in specific circumstances that are passed down through generations?

a)

Customs

b)

Attitudes

c)

Prejudices

d)

Aesthetics

27.

________ refers to the replacement of one culture's traditions, folk heroes, and artifacts with equivalents from another.

a)

Cultural imperialism

b)

Social stratification

c)

Cultural encoding

d)

Social conditioning

28.

Which of the following terms is used to refer to the process of ranking people into social layers or classes?

a)

Social transformation

b)

Social stratification

c)

Social loafing

d)

Social mobility

29.

________ refers to the ease with which individuals can move up or down a culture's social ladder.

a)

Social standing

b)

Social mobility

c)

Social inertia

d)

Social loafing

30.

A caste system is a system of social stratification in which ________

a)

a person's social status is decided by his acquired wealth.

b)

a person's position in society depends upon his educational qualifications and achievements.

c)

people are born into a social ranking, with no opportunity for social mobility.

d)

people join highly exclusive associations that encourage external interaction.

31.

A class system is a system of social stratification in which _________

a)

people are divided into various political groups and subgroups.

b)

a person's social rank depends upon his/her parentage.

c)

people join highly exclusive associations that forbid external interaction.

d)

personal ability and actions determine an individual's social status and mobility

32.

According to Hofstede's framework, organizations that have cultures that score high on ________ tend to be more hierarchical, with power deriving from prestige, force, and inheritance.

a)

Uncertainty avoidance

b)

Power distance

c)

Short-term orientation

d)

Femininity

33.

Peter comes from a culture that emphasizes hard work and promotes the entrepreneurial spirit within individuals. While he and his coworkers are encouraged to achieve their personal goals, they are also held responsible for their actions. According to Hofstede's framework, which of the following dimensions does this culture illustrate?

a)

Collectivism

b)

Individualism

c)

High power distance

d)

High uncertainty avoidance

34.

Which of the following terms refers to the broadest measure of economic development of a country?

a)

Gross domestic product (GDP)

b)

Purchasing power parity (PPP)

c)

Gross national product (GNP)

d)

Human development index (HDI)

35.

________ is the value of all goods and services produced by the domestic economy over a one-year period.

a)

Gross domestic product (GDP)

b)

Human development index (HDI)

c)

Gross national product (GNP)

d)

Purchasing power parity (PPP)

36.

The ________ of a country is its gross national product divided by its population.

a)

GNP per capita

b)

GDP per capita

c)

Purchasing power parity

d)

Purchasing power

37.

The relative ability of two countries' currencies to buy the same basket of goods in those two countries is called ________.

a)

Gross national product

b)

Gross domestic product

c)

Purchasing power

d)

Purchasing power parity

38.

An investor wants to invest in a country that has a high gross national income (GNI). Which of the following countries would most likely qualify as a prospect?

a)

Nepal

b)

India

c)

Japan

d)

Vn

39.

Which of the following terms is used to refer to the exchange of goods and services for other goods and services instead of money?

a)

Fiat money

b)

Letter of credit

c)

Barter

d)

Guanxi

40.

Which of the following measures the extent to which a government equitably provides its people with a long and healthy life, an education, and a decent standard of living?

a)

Category development index

b)

Gross national product index

c)

Human development index

d)

Purchasing power index

41.

A company is conducting a research on new markets by comparing countries in terms of their human development index (HDI) scores. The company wishes to expand into a market where individuals experience a very high level of total well-being. Which of the following countries would the company most likely choose?

a)

Russia

b)

Mexico

c)

China

d)

Japan

42.

Which of the following is true about economic development of a nation?

a)

The purchasing power parity is a poor indicator of a people's total well-being.

b)

GDP is a larger figure and includes a nation's income generated from exports, imports, and international operations.

c)

Illegal activities such as gambling and black market transactions are considered in GDP and GNP.

d)

Using gross product figures to compare production across countries accounts for different cost of living in each country.

43.

Which of the following statements is true of national production?

a)

Marketers use GDP or GNP figures to determine whether a country's population is wealthy enough to purchase its products.

b)

Per capita numbers provide a detailed picture of development of the entire country.

c)

Gross product figures accurately indicate whether a nation's economy is growing or shrinking.

d)

Volunteer work and unpaid household work are considered in GDP and GNP.

44.

Nations having the poorest infrastructures and lowest personal incomes are called _________.

a)

Developed countries

b)

Newly industrialized countries

c)

Emerging markets

d)

Developing countries

45.

A country that has recently increased the portion of its national production and exports derived from industrial operations is called a(n) _________

a)

Newly industrialized country (NIC)

b)

Developing country

c)

Emerging market

d)

Developed country

46.

Both GDP and GNP measure a nation's income per person

a)

True

b)

False

47.

The human development index (HDI) demonstrates that high national income alone guarantees human progress.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

The importance of trade for a nation can be measured by ________.

a)

Examining the amount of wealth acquired by the national government through restrictive trade policies

b)

The living standards of people involved in only trade activities

c)

The number of acquired territories the nation has that serves as sources of inexpensive raw materials

d)

Examining the volume of its trade relative to its total output

49.

Most of the world merchandise trade is composed of trade in ________.

a)

Minerals

b)

Services

c)

Manufactured goods

d)

Agricultural products

50.

A majority of the total world merchandise trade occurs among ________.

a)

Middle-income and low-income economies

b)

High-income economies

c)

Newly industrialized countries

d)

Emerging markets

51.

The condition that results when the value of a nation's exports is greater than the value of its imports is called ________.

a)

A. Trade deficit

b)

B. Trade surplus

c)

C. Mercantilism

d)

D. Dumping

52.

The condition that results when the value of a country's imports is greater than the value of its exports is called ________.

a)

Trade deficit

b)

Economies of scale

c)

Break-even point

d)

Absolute advantage

53.

________ says that nations should accumulate financial wealth, usually in the form of gold, by encouraging exports and discouraging imports.

a)

Absolute advantage theory

b)

Factor proportions theory

c)

Mercantilism

d)

Communism

54.

The measures of a nation's well-being other than the financial wealth accumulated through exports are irrelevant according to ________.

a)

Mercantilism

b)

Absolute advantage theory

c)

Factor proportions theory

d)

New trade theory

55.

Which of the following was a prominent mercantilist nation?

a)
U.S.
b)

china

c)

britian

d)

japan

56.

According to mercantilism, the accumulation of national wealth depended on the _________.

a)

Increase in a nation's trade surplus

b)

Increase in a nation's trade deficit

c)

Expansion of a nation's total value of trade

d)

Expansion of a nation's total volume of trade

57.

The theory of absolute advantage destroys the mercantilist idea that international trade is a _________.

a)

Positive-sum game

b)

Zero-sum game

c)

Negative-sum game

d)

Win-win game

58.

Which of the following is true about the theory of absolute advantage?

a)

The theory accepts the mercantilist idea that international trade is a zero-sum game.

b)

The theory approves the objective of national governments to acquire wealth through restrictive trade policies.

c)

The theory emphasizes that nations should open their doors to trade so that people can obtain more goods at cheaper rates.

d)

The theory measures a nation's wealth by how much gold and silver it has on reserve.

59.

When a country is not able to produce a good more efficiently than other nations, but produces the good more efficiently than it does any other good, it is said to have a(n) ________.

a)

Absolute advantage

b)

Resource advantage

c)

First-mover advantage

d)

Comparative advantage

60.

The ________ theory states that countries produce and export goods that require resources available in abundance and import goods that require resources in short supply.

a)

New trade

b)

Absolute advantage

c)

International product life cycle

d)

Factor proportions

61.

Factor proportions theory was developed by ________.

a)

Smith and Ricardo

b)

Ricardo and Ohlin

c)

Heckscher and Ohlin

d)

Heckscher and Ricardo

62.

The purchase of physical assets or a significant amount of ownership of a company in another country to gain a measure of management control is called ________.

a)

Portfolio investment

b)

Foreign direct investment (FDI)

c)

Horizontal integration

d)

Vertical integration

63.

________ is an investment that does not involve obtaining a degree of control in a company.

a)

Portfolio investment

b)

Foreign direct investment (FDI)

c)

Horizontal integration

d)

Vertical integration

64.

Which of the following is a major driver of foreign direct investment?

a)

Vertical integration

b)

Horizontal integration

c)

Globalization

d)

Cultural diversity

65.

Building a subsidiary abroad from the ground up is called a greenfield investment.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

A current account deficit occurs when a country exports more goods and receives more income from abroad than it imports and pays abroad.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Which of the following is a reason behind intervention by a host country on matters related to FDI?

a)

to keep their balance of payments under control

b)

to protect their outdated technology and management skills

c)

to strictly encourage the establishment of sunset industries

d)

to decrease the country's competitiveness in the global market

68.

Ownership restrictions and performance demands are used by _________

a)

Host countries to promote FDI

b)

Host countries to restrict FDI

c)

Home countries to promote FDI

d)

Home countries to restrict FDI

69.

Home nations discourage foreign direct investment outflows because it _________.

a)

Discourages cooperation between countries

b)

Replaces jobs in the home nation

c)

Fails to protect the "sunset" industries in the home nation

d)

Decreases long-term competitiveness of companies

70.

A home country encourages outflows of foreign direct investment because it _________.

a)

Helps in replacing jobs at home

b)

Sends resources out of the home country

c)

Tends to increase the long-term competitiveness of firms

d)

Takes the place of all the exports and imports in the country

71.

Which of the following methods is being used when a host country provides lower tax rates and low interest loans to firms from abroad for encouraging inflows of foreign direct investment?

a)

Financial incentives

b)

Sanctions

c)

Local content requirements

d)

. Embargoes

72.

Tax breaks on profits earned abroad and political pressures are used by ________.

a)

Host countries to promote FDI

b)

Host countries to restrict FDI

c)

Home countries to promote FDI

d)

Home countries to restrict FDI

73.

Which of the following is used by home country governments to limit outbound foreign direct investment?

a)

Ownership restrictions

b)

Differential tax rates

c)

Tax breaks

d)

Low-interest loans

74.

Which of the following is used by home-country governments to promote outbound foreign direct investment?

a)

Political pressure

b)

Performance demands

c)

Ownership restrictions

d)

Sanctions

75.

Scenario: Blickinstock at the Crossroads Auto parts supplier, Blickinstock Ltd., would like to expand its presence in Latin America. To that end, Blickinstock is trying to decide whether to purchase an existing company in a remote region of Argentina or build its own subsidiary. Keith Moon, Blickinstock's vice president of global business development, will be making a presentation to the board outlining the company's optionsBlickinstock has identified a company that it can acquire or merge with. Which of the following statements would represent the least likely reason for Blickinstock to go ahead with the merger

a)

The merger would help increase Blickinstock's global competitiveness.

b)

B. The merger would allow the company to get a foothold in the nascent Latin American market

c)

The merger would help to fill the gaps in Blickinstock's product line

d)

. The merger would bring in increased cash-flows that Blickinstock can use to acquire other firms

76.

Which of the following statements would represent the least likely reason for Blickinstock to go ahead with the merger?

a)

The merger would help increase Blickinstock's global competitiveness.

b)

The merger would allow the company to get a foothold in the nascent Latin American market.

c)

The merger would help to fill the gaps in Blickinstock's product line.

d)

The merger would bring in increased cash-flows that Blickinstock can use to acquire other firms.

77.

The process whereby countries in a geographic area cooperate with one another to reduce or eliminate barriers to the international flow of products, people, or capital is called ________.

a)

regional economic integration

b)

protectionism

c)

mercantilism

d)

economic nationalism

78.

Regional economic integration is also referred to as ________.

a)

mercantilism

b)

nationalism

c)

protectionism

d)

regionalism

79.

A group of nations in a geographic area undergoing economic integration is called a ________.

a)

born global firm

b)

maquiladora

c)

regional trading bloc

d)

Eurocurrency market

80.

Which of the following is an important goal of regional economic integration?

a)

A) to increase the selling prices of products

b)

B) to raise the living standards of people

c)

C) to limit the choice of products available to customers

d)

D) to establish a socialist government

81.

The common currency of the European Union is known as the ________.

a)

European currency unit

b)

eurodollar

c)

euro

d)

European unit of account

82.

As of July 1, 2020, NAFTA has been replaced by _______

a)

United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement (USMCA)

b)

United States-Mexico-Chile Agreement (USMCA)

c)

Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS)

d)

Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)

83.

Economic integration whereby countries remove all barriers to trade among themselves, but each country determines its own barriers against nonmembers, is called a(n) _______.

a)

economic union

b)

customs union

c)

common market

d)

free trade area

84.

In 1951, Belgium, France, West Germany, Italy, Luxembourg, and the Netherlands signed the Treaty of Paris and created the-

a)

European Union

b)

European Economic Community

c)

European Coal and Steel Community

d)

European Community

85.

Which of the following is true of the euro?

a)

It increases exchange-rate risk for business deals between member nations.

b)

It increases transaction costs.

c)

It makes prices between markets more transparent.

d)

It is not accepted among merchants in France, Germany, and Italy.

86.

The European Free Trade Association was formed in 1960 to focus on trade in ________.

a)

consumer goods

b)

agricultural goods

c)

industrial goods

d)

services

87.

The Free Trade Area of the Americas (FTAA) is a trade agreement ________.

a)

between Mexico, Canada, and the U.S.

b)

among the South American nations

c)

that has been proposed to create the largest free trade area on the planet

d)

that includes the United States and the European Union

88.

The major objective of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is to ________.

a)

A) approach the European Union to resolve disputes between member countries

b)

B) safeguard the region's economic and political stability

c)

introduce barriers to trade and investment

d)

D) increase members' tariff rates from an average of 7.5 percent to 15 percent

89.

The stated aim of the organization for Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) is to ________.

a)

build another trading bloc

b)

introduce stringent trade and investment procedures among member countries

c)

strengthen the multilateral trading system

d)

increase members' tariff rates from an average of 7.5 percent to 15 percent

90.

What is the largest trading bloc in the world up to now?

a)

Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RECEP)

b)

European Union (EU)

c)

North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA)

d)

Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN)

91.

Company debt normally takes the form of ________.

a)

bonds

b)

equity

c)

stocks

d)

bank loans

92.

A loan in which the borrower promises to repay the borrowed amount plus a predetermined rate of interest is called a(n) ________.

a)
equity
b)

exchange rate

c)

stock

d)

debt

93.

Which of the following is a debt instrument that specifies the timing of principal and interest payments?

a)

stock

b)

bond

c)

share

d)

equity

94.

________ refers to shares of ownership in a company's assets that give shareholders a claim on the company's future cash flows.

a)

stock

b)

bond

c)

share

d)

draft

95.

The world's three most important financial centers are ________.

a)

Zurich, Paris, and Washington

b)

China, Brazil, and Mexico

c)

Tokyo, London, and New York

d)

Dubai, Beijing, and Germany

96.

The market in which currencies are bought and sold and their prices determined is called the ________.

a)

Eurocurrency market

b)

International capital market

c)

International bond market

d)

Foreign exchange market

97.

Which of the following represents a country or territory whose financial sector features very few regulations and few, if any, taxes?

a)

offshore financial center

b)

interbank market

c)

international financial services district

d)

Eurocurrency market

98.

One of the major forces responsible for the rapid growth rate of the international capital market is _________.

a)

economic nationalism

b)

information technology

c)

currency control

d)

extensive regulation

99.

Which financial center has the largest scale?

a)

International Financial Center

b)

Regional Financial Center

c)

Offshore Financial Center

d)

Domestic Financial Center

100.

Offshore financial centers offer services to non-residents, and often associated with lax regulation (such as money laundering)

a)

True

b)

False

101.

A capital market is a system that allocates monetary resources in the form of debt and equity according to their most efficient uses.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

Two most important financial resources allocated by the capital market are money and debt

a)

True

b)

False

103.

When a country's currency is weak, the price of its ________.

a)

A) exports and imports on world markets declines

b)

exports and imports on world markets increases

c)

exports on world markets declines and the price of its imports increases

d)

exports on world markets increases and the price of its imports declines

104.

A company selling in a country with a strong currency while sourcing from a country with a weak currency ________.

a)

A) practices unethical conduct

b)

B) experiences a trade deficit

c)

C) ends up bankrupt

d)

D) improves its profits

105.

Which of the following is the intentional lowering of a currency's value by its government?

a)

) Revaluation

b)

Devaluation

c)

Currency hedging

d)

) Currency arbitrage

106.

Which of the following is true of inflation?

a)

A) It occurs when money is injected into an economy that is experiencing greater output.

b)

B) It is the result of supply and demand for a currency.

c)

C) It increases people's purchasing power.

d)

D) It is not particularly affected by the unemployment in a country

107.

________ is an activity under the monetary policy of a nation.

a)

A) Increasing taxes

b)

) Decreasing taxes

c)

increasing government spending

d)

Selling government securities

108.

The French government buying its own securities on the open market is part of the ________ of France.

a)

Fiscal policy

b)

Monetary policy

c)

Industrial policy

d)

Investment policy

109.

The lowering of taxes in the U.S. by its government is an example of the ________.

a)

A) Fiscal policy

b)

B) Monetary policy

c)

C) Social policy

d)

D) Foreign affairs policy

110.

To cool off an inflationary economy, a government might ________.

a)

Lower interest rates

b)

Raise interest rates

c)

Lower foreign exchange rates

d)

Raise foreign exchnage rates

111.

A company can improve its profits by selling in a country with a strong currency and sourcing from a country with a weak currency.

a)

) True =

b)

B) False

112.

In the strategy-formulation process of firms, in order to analyze the firms' primary and supporting activities, what analysis should be used?

a)

A. 4Ps analysis

b)

Value chain analysis

c)

. Porter’s five forces analysis

d)

Fundamental analysis

113.

McDonald's is a global fast-food giant. The company offers its iconic Big Mac and fries in virtually every country. However, in India market, where a significant portion of the population follows a vegetarian diet, McDonald's offers a range of vegetarian options such as the McAloo Tikki burger. This localization allows them to better meet the tastes and preferences of the local market. This is an example of

a)

Multinational strategy

b)

lobal strategy

c)

Focus strategy

d)

Differentiation strategy

114.

The strategy of Tesla focuses on serving the needs of a narrowly defined market segment by being the low-cost leader, by differentiating its product, or both. This is an example of a focus strategy

a)

true

b)

false

c)

Irrelevant

115.

Let's say a team decides to create a new fitness app. In this team, software developers are responsible for coding and programming the app, ensuring its functionality and compatibility across different devices. The software developers are responsible for coding and programming the app, the user experience (UX) designer focuses on creating an intuitive and user-friendly interface for the app, and the graphic designer designs visual elements. This is an example of

a)

A. Self-managed team

b)

B. Cross-functional team

c)

Global team

d)

Design team

116.

Which of the following is the first stage of the strategy formulation process?

a)

A) identification of value-creating activities

b)

B) formulation of strategies

c)

identification of company mission and goals

d)

identification of core competency

117.

The objectives at the ________ of an organization are typically more precise and contain numerical targets of performance.

a)

Department-level

b)

Business-level

c)

global-level

d)

Corporate-level

118.

The main benefit of a multidomestic strategy is that it ________.

a)

A) exploits scale economies in product development and marketing

b)

B) is cost-saving due to product and marketing standardization

c)

C) takes advantage of location economies

d)

D) responds quickly and effectively to emerging buyer preferences

119.

The main drawback of a multinational strategy is that it does not allow a company to ________.

a)

A) exploit scale economies in product development or marketing

b)

) closely monitor buyer preferences in each local market

c)

modify its products except for the most superficial features

d)

) respond quickly and effectively to emerging buyer preferences

120.

Which of the following is a special ability of a company that competitors find extremely difficult to equal?

a)

Comparative advantage

b)

Absolute advantage

c)

Core competency

d)

Economy of scal

121.

The main benefit of a global strategy is that it allows a company to ________.

a)

A) closely monitor buyer preferences in each local market

b)

) save costs due to product and marketing standardization

c)

) customize its products and services

d)

respond effectively to emerging buyer preferences

122.

Which of the following is a characteristic based on which products are typically differentiated? A. Brand loyalty B. Brand equity C. Product design D. Product cost

a)

Brand loyalty

b)

brand equity

c)

product design

d)

product cost

123.

Free-market economies tend to levy high taxes on business profits whereas socialist economic systems normally levy lighter taxes.

a)

true

b)

false

124.

A multinational strategy is most appropriate for companies that do not have foreign direct investments but rather export their products to foreign markets.

a)

true

b)

false

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