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Nutrition final

Total questions: 37

Worksheet time: 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes vitamins?

a)

Nutrients required by the body in gram quantities to provide energy

b)

Organic micronutrients that regulate physiological processes and prevent deficiency diseases

c)

Inorganic minerals that the body produces in sufficient amounts

d)

Compounds needed in large quantities and mainly used for structural functions

e)

Nutrients found only in supplements and not naturally present in foods

2.

Which statement accurately reflects a key physiological difference between water-soluble and fat-soluble vitamins?

a)

Water-soluble vitamins are stored in the liver and fat, while fat-soluble vitamins are rapidly excreted in urine.

b)

Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed directly into the bloodstream without the need for bile or dietary fat, unlike water-soluble vitamins.

c)

Both water- and fat-soluble vitamins are equally stored in the body and excreted at the same rate.

d)

Water-soluble vitamins generally require regular dietary intake due to limited storage, whereas fat-soluble vitamins can accumulate in tissues and pose a risk of toxicity.

e)

Water-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) are more likely to cause toxicity than fat-soluble vitamins (B-complex,

3.

Which of the following vitamins primarily function as antioxidants in the human body?

a)

Vitamins B1, B2, and B6

b)

Vitamins D and K

c)

Vitamins A, C, and E

d)

Vitamins B12 and folate

e)

Vitamins A, D, and K

4.

Which of the following correctly describes a primary function of Vitamin D and a common consequence of its deficiency?

a)

Helps blood clot; deficiency causes easy bruising and bleeding

b)

Supports vision; deficiency causes night blindness

c)

Functions as a coenzyme in energy metabolism; deficiency causes pellagra

d)

Acts as an antioxidant; deficiency causes scurvy

e)

Regulates calcium and phosphorus absorption; deficiency causes rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults

5.

Which combination of vitamins and minerals is most important for bone formation and strength?

a)

Vitamin D, Calcium, Phosphorus, Zine, and Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin K, Magnesium, Calcium, Phosphorus, and Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin A, Vitamin K, Copper, Calcium, and Vitamin B12

d)

Magnesium, Calcium, Vitamin E, Phosphorus, and Selenium

e)

Vitamin D, Vitamin K, Calcium, Iron, and Folate

6.

A healthy I9-year-old student wants to improve her diet to prevent vitamin E deficiency. Which food is the best source of this vitamin?

a)

White rice

b)

Olive oil

c)

Chicken breast

d)

Yogurt

e)

Apples

7.

Which of the following correctly matches a fat-soluble vitamin with both a primary function and a major dietary source?

a)

Vitamin D - acts as a powerful antioxidant; abundant in citrus fruits and berries

b)

Vitamin E - essential for blood clotting; found in kale and spinach

c)

Vitamin A - regulates calcium and phosphorus absorption; found in eggs and sunlight exposure

d)

Vitamin K - supports bone mineralization; obtained mainly from oily fish and fortified dairy

e)

Vitamin A - maintains normal vision; found in liver, carrots, and leafy green vegetables

8.

Long-term use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can increase the risk of deficiency of which vitamin, and why?

a)

Vitamin K - because antibiotics block its absorption from the gut

b)

Vitamin D - because antibiotics reduce sunlight activation

c)

Vitamin K - because antibiotics disrupt gut bacteria that synthesize it

d)

Vitamin B12 - because antibiotics destroy dietary sources in the gut

e)

Vitamin K - because antibiotics increase urinary excretion

9.

Pellagra is caused by a deficiency of which vitamin, and which of the following represents its classic "4 Ds"?

a)

Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) - Dermatitis, Diarrhea, Dementia, Dizziness

b)

Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) - Dermatitis, Diarrhea, Dementia, Depression

c)

Vitamin B3 (Niacin) - Dermatitis, Diarrhea, Dementia, Death

d)

Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) - Dermatitis, Diarrhea, Dementia, Depression

e)

Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid) - Dermatitis, Diarrhea, Dementia, Delayed wound healing

10.

A 42-year-old woman, 18 months after sleeve gastrectomy, has fatigue, tingling in her hands and feet, and a smooth red tongue. Blood tests show low Vitamin B12. What is the most likely reason for her deficiency?

a)

She eats too little meat and dairy

b)

Her stomach makes less acid and intrin ic factor after surgery

c)

Her kidneys are losing too much Vitamin B12

d)

She takes too much folate

11.

Vitamin C and iron should never be consumed together because they inhibit each other's absorption

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Which of the following correctly distinguishes a major mineral from a trace mineral based on the amount required by the body?

a)

Major minerals are needed in milligrams (mg) per day; trace minerals are needed in grams (g) per day.

b)

Both major and trace minerals are required in grams (g) per day.

c)

Trace minerals are only obtained from supplements, not food.

d)

Major minerals are required in grams (g) per day; trace minerals are required in milligrams (mg) or micrograms (Hg) per day.

e)

Major minerals are only used for enzymatic reactions, while trace minerals are structural.

13.

Which combination of vitamin and mineral deficiencies can lead to the development of anemia?

a)

Vitamin S, Vitamin D, and Calcium

b)

Copper, Iron, Vitamin B12, Folate (Vitamin B), and Vitamin E

c)

Iron, Vitamin B12, and Folate (Vitamin Bg)

d)

Zinc, Magnesium, and Vitamin K

e)

Vitamin A, Vitamin D, and Iodine

14.

Which mineral assists in immune function?

a)

Potassium

b)

Sulfate

c)

Zinc

d)

Phosphorus

e)

Iodine

15.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between sodium, potassium, and blood pressure regulation?

a)

High sodium intake and low potassium intake can contribute to increased blood pressure.

b)

High potassium intake and high sodium intake both increase blood pressure equally.

c)

Sodium and potassium intake have no significant effect on blood pressure.

d)

Low sodium intake increases blood pressure, while low potassium intake decreases it.

e)

Only potassium intake affects blood pressure; sodium has no effect.

16.

Nutrients and oxygen travel to the developing fetus via the:

a)

Amniotic sac

b)

Umbilical artery

c)

Umbilical vein

d)

Placental vili

e)

Cervical canal

17.

How many additional calories does a pregnant woman need during the first trimester?

a)

340

b)

0

c)

200

d)

450

e)

150

18.

Which of the following is NOT a reason for increased fluid needs during pregnancy

a)

increase in mother's blood volume

b)

regulating body temperature

c)

production of amniotic fluid

d)

increased thirst

e)

prevent urinary tract infections

19.

A deficiency in which vitamin during pregnancy can result in neural tube defects?

a)

Folate

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Choline

e)

Calcium

20.

Women who enter pregnancy with iron-deficiency anemia have a greater risk of:

a)

Excessive weight gain

b)

Inadequate weight gain

c)

Preterm delivery

d)

Gestational diabetes

e)

High blood pressure

21.

A physician has recommended that a pregnant mother take a daily multivitamin-mineral supplement to support nutrient intake during pregnancy. What are commonly supplemented prenatal nutrients?

a)

vitamins A, D, and E

b)

Magnesium, zinc, and vitamin C

c)

Potassium, zinc, and iodine

d)

Folate, vitamin C, and potassium

e)

Folate, vitamin D, and iron

22.

Which of the following is not a nutrition-related concern during pregnancy?

a)

morning sickness

b)

heartburn

c)

gestational diabetes

d)

pre-eclampsia

e)

dementia

23.

The warning signs of preeclampsia include:

a)

low hematocrit, high blood glucose, and ketones in the urine.

b)

high blood glucose, glucose in the urine, and agitation.

c)

hypertension, edema, and protein in the urine.

d)

high blood glucose and blood in the urine.

e)

chest pain and numbness and tingling in the extremities.

24.

In the first year after birth, babies typically grow__ inches in length and __their weight

a)

8; double

b)

5; quadruple

c)

10; triple

d)

6; triple

e)

10; quadruple

25.

Breast milk provides all of the nutrition an infant needs for the first six months of life, with the possible exception of which nutrient?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Niacin

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Calcium

e)

Vitamin D

26.

Which of the following correctly describes the roles of oxytocin and prolactin in lactation?

a)

Oxytocin stimulates milk production, while prolactin triggers milk ejection.

b)

Oxytocin inhibits milk release, while prolactin promotes breast enlargement only.

c)

Prolactin stimulates milk production, while oxytocin triggers milk ejection during breastfeeding.

d)

Prolactin and oxytocin both inhibit milk secretion after childbirth.

e)

Oxytocin and prolactin perform the same function in lactation.

27.

The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) and the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics support exclusive breastfeeding until an infant is months old.

a)

One

b)

Three

c)

Six

d)

Nine

e)

Twelve

28.

Which of the following is not a possible benefit of breast feeding for infants?

a)

protects against a variety of infections and illnesses

b)

may protect against some chronic diseases later in life

c)

protects against food allergies

d)

supports healthy weight

e)

conserves iron stores

29.

The only acceptable alternative to breast milk is:

a)

goat's milk

b)

cow's milk

c)

low-iron infant formula

d)

iron-fortified infant formula

e)

10 percent dextrose water

30.

What best describes why cow's milk is not recommended for infants under one year of age?

a)

It is too high in iron

b)

It reduces the bioavailability of vitamin D

c)

It can cause intestinal bleeding

d)

It is too low in calcium

e)

It has a flavor infants do not tolerate well

31.

Which of the following is a sign that a baby is physically ready for solid foods?

a)

they reach for solid foods on the table

b)

they start talking or making more noises with their mouth

c)

they continue to have the extrusion reflux

d)

they can sit up with some back support

e)

they start rolling over

32.

The adolescent growth spurt:

a)

begins earlier in girls than in boys.

b)

affects every organ except the brain.

c)

decreases total nutrient needs.

d)

causes a greater weight gain in girls.

e)

begins earlier in boys than in girls.

33.

Which of the following correctly represents the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDR) for adults?

a)

Carbohydrates 40-55%, Protein 15-45%, Fat 15-30%

b)

Carbohydrates 45-65%, Protein 10-35%, Fat 20-35%

c)

Carbohydrates 55-75%, Protein 5-20%, Fat 10-25%

d)

Carbohydrates 30-50%, Protein 20-40%, Fat 35-50%

e)

Carbohydrates 50-70%, Protein 20-40%, Fat 5-15%

34.

What is the primary risk factor for Alzheimer's disease?

a)

lack of fruit and vegetable intake

b)

age

c)

sedentary lifestyle

d)

overweight or obesity

e)

genetics

35.

By what estimated percentage do adult energy needs decline per decade?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

8

d)

12

e)

20

36.

Sarcopenia refers to:

a)

loss of muscle mass

b)

a vitamin deficiency

c)

bone loss

d)

malnutrition associated with aging

e)

gradual loss of memory and reasoning ability

37.

What is the minimum amount of water an older adult should drink daily to stay hydrated?

a)

8 glasses

b)

6 glasses

c)

4 glasses

d)

12 glasses

e)

3 glasses