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Healthcare Ethics — Knowledge Check

Total questions: 34

Worksheet time: 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Can a person adhere to their own morals and violate an ethical principle at the same time?

a)

Yes

b)

No

2.

Can a person adhere to ethical principles and violate their own morals at the same time?

a)

Yes

b)

No

3.

Can a person adhere to the law and violate ethical principles at the same time?

a)

Yes

b)

No

4.

Do ethical principles always align with the law?

a)

Yes

b)

No

5.

Which primary ethical principle emphasizes a healthcare consumer’s control over their body and independence in healthcare decisions?

a)

Autonomy

b)

Beneficence

c)

Justice

d)

Non-maleficence

6.

Conditions that must be met for a person to exercise autonomy include being free of coercion or persuasion, being competent to make decisions, and being informed about healthcare diagnoses and treatments. Which statements are required? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Free of coercion or persuasion

b)

Competent to make decisions

c)

Informed about healthcare diagnoses and treatments

d)

Under sedation to remain calm

e)

Agreeing with the clinician’s recommendation

7.

Which practice is closely associated with autonomy and requires clinicians to share information accurately and understandably?

a)

Honesty

b)

Deception

c)

Withholding pertinent information

d)

Coercion

8.

In this material, individual preferences are described as a person’s wishes based on their perception of value regarding their health and well-being. Which option best matches that description?

a)

Wishes grounded in the individual’s own values about their health and well-being

b)

Choices based solely on a clinician’s recommendation

c)

Decisions determined by family members without input

d)

Preferences that are the same for people with the same religion

9.

Paternalism occurs when someone makes a decision or takes action that they feel is in the best interest of another person. Which option best defines paternalism in clinical care?

a)

Deciding for another person because it is believed to be best for them

b)

Providing only what the person specifically requests

c)

Always following advance directives without exception

d)

Letting the person choose even when they lack decision-making capacity

10.

Which scenario reflects hard paternalism as described in the material?

a)

Performing a procedure without informed consent or concealing pertinent information

b)

A parent making decisions for their minor child

c)

A surrogate deciding for an incapacitated adult

d)

Clarifying information before a person signs consent

11.

Veracity, a virtue associated with autonomy, most closely means what in clinical communication?

a)

Speaking the truth by sharing comprehensive, accurate, understandable information

b)

Giving only positive news to avoid distress

c)

Telling partial truths to speed decision-making

d)

Deferring disclosure to family members

12.

People have a right to be informed about medical mistakes, yet malpractice risk can deter disclosure. Which additional factors could reasonably deter a clinician from being truthful? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Fear of damaging the therapeutic relationship

b)

Organizational pressure to avoid disclosure

c)

Concern about causing significant distress to the person

d)

Confidence that full disclosure always guarantees faster recovery

13.

Fidelity, a virtue associated with autonomy, is described as honoring one’s professional commitment. Which option best captures fidelity in practice?

a)

Maintaining loyal, trusting relationships and providing competent, high-quality care

b)

Prioritizing financial incentives over patient needs

c)

Limiting information to expedite workflow

d)

Letting personal beliefs override professional obligations

14.

For informed consent, providers must share information about a procedure or treatment. Which items are required to be discussed? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Risks

b)

Benefits

c)

Alternatives

d)

Prognosis with and without the procedure or treatment

e)

The clinician’s salary history

15.

To give consent, the person must meet certain requirements. Which are required? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Be conscious

b)

Be able to convey a preference and permission

c)

Be able to comprehend information

d)

Have decision-making rights (which may vary by state)

e)

Be free from all financial responsibility

16.

When providing information necessary for informed consent, which actions should clinicians take? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Investigate the person’s cultural beliefs

b)

Ensure all relevant information is delivered in an understandable way

c)

Answer questions and provide clarity

d)

Never use coercion and assess for coercion by others

e)

Respect the right to refuse or withdraw consent at any time

17.

The informed consent process is at risk for hard paternalism when clinicians deliberately leave out or adjust information to sway a decision. Which option best identifies this risk?

a)

Altering or omitting information to influence consent

b)

Providing teach-back to confirm understanding

c)

Offering balanced alternatives and their risks

d)

Encouraging the person to involve a support person

18.

According to the rights listed, people are entitled to safe, respectful care consistent with their beliefs and preferences, complete information about their condition, care, and prognosis, and appropriate assessment and treatment of pain. Which of the following are rights identified here? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Safe, respectful care aligned with individual beliefs and preferences

b)

Complete information about condition, care, and prognosis

c)

Appropriate assessment and treatment of pain

d)

Free elective cosmetic procedures upon request

19.

A person or surrogate may demand nonbeneficial treatment, but providers have a duty to practice responsibly and may refuse futile treatments. Limiting which principle does this exception primarily describe?

a)

Autonomy

b)

Justice

c)

Non-maleficence

d)

Veracity

20.

Beneficence is described as the act of doing good that maximizes the person’s well-being. Which option best defines beneficence in this material?

a)

The duty to provide care that promotes the person’s well-being, which may include supporting psychological health or quality of life

b)

The obligation to avoid all risk, even when benefits outweigh risks

c)

Strictly following the person’s preferences regardless of harm

d)

Limiting care to physical health outcomes only

21.

Practice implications of beneficence include several protective actions. Which of the following are entailed by beneficence? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Ensuring safety

b)

Being an advocate

c)

Aiding those with disabilities

d)

Serving those in jeopardy

e)

Protecting the vulnerable

22.

When a person has severe mental illness or suicidal ideation and is at risk of self-harm, which principle may supersede autonomy to protect the person?

a)

Beneficence

b)

Justice

c)

Veracity

d)

Confidentiality

23.

The Anti-Kickback Statute prohibits payments to induce or reward referrals for services paid by federal programs. Which items could constitute illegal rewards under this statute? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Cash

b)

Free or reduced rent

c)

Expensive accommodations and meals

d)

Excessive compensation for medical directorships or consults

e)

Education paid personally by the provider with no referral expectation

24.

The Stark Law prevents which type of referral by physicians?

a)

Referrals for health services when the physician or an immediate family member has a financial relationship with the service provider

b)

Referrals to facilities outside the physician’s hospital network

c)

Referrals across state lines

d)

Referrals for preventive services only

25.

Under the Federal False Claims Act, which action constitutes a violation?

a)

Knowingly billing for services that were not provided

b)

Submitting accurate codes supported by documentation

c)

Providing only medically necessary services

d)

Refunding overpayments promptly when discovered

26.

Which of the following are examples of False Claims Act violations as described? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Providing services that are not medically necessary

b)

Up-coding by submitting inaccurate billing codes to receive greater reimbursement

c)

Knowingly billing for services not provided

d)

Providing pro bono services to those in need

27.

A person undergoes outpatient radiology testing and, after referral, the admitting provider unnecessarily repeats the same test, exposing the person to harm and creating unnecessary claims to the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services. Which statute is primarily implicated by this scenario?

a)

False Claims Act

b)

Anti-Kickback Statute

c)

Stark Law

d)

EMTALA

28.

Consider this: How might implicit and explicit biases (for example, beliefs that some racial groups feel less pain or that underserved neighborhoods are dangerous) affect how a healthcare professional cares for people within these groups? Select the most likely outcome for patient care.

a)

They result in unequal treatment, such as undertreating pain, increased mistrust, and reduced access to appropriate services.

b)

They consistently improve vigilance and lead to better-than-average clinical outcomes for marginalized patients.

c)

They have no measurable effect on decision-making, so care quality remains the same across groups.

d)

They mainly cause longer documentation time but do not change clinical judgments or resource allocation.

29.

When making care decisions to overcome your biases, which self-reflective questions should you ask yourself?

a)

How might I be grouping this person in my unconscious thoughts (for example, age, race, gender, socioeconomic status, religion)?

b)

What stereotypes of these groups might be driving my thoughts and decisions?

c)

If this person was in a different group, would I treat them differently (for example, young versus old, Black versus White, wealthy versus poor)?

d)

How would you want to be treated?

30.

With the rule of double effect, what determines if an action is ethical?

a)

Harm

b)

Intention

c)

Principle

d)

Nonmaleficence

31.

Dr. Nance is caring for Thelma, a 72‑year‑old widow with a history of depression and anxiety. He suspects a quickly progressing terminal illness and Thelma’s daughter urges him to keep the prognosis quiet to protect her mother from stress. If you were Dr. Nance, what would you do?

a)

Disclose the prognosis to Thelma after assessing her decision‑making capacity and providing supportive communication, while engaging her daughter in the process.

b)

Keep the prognosis confidential indefinitely to honor the daughter’s wishes.

c)

Inform only the daughter and avoid discussing the prognosis directly with Thelma.

d)

Delay disclosure until the daughter’s planned job change allows more time with Thelma.

32.

In Step 3 (Gather relevant facts) for Thelma’s case, which of the following are appropriate questions to ask?

a)

Is the person competent enough to understand their prognosis?

b)

Why does the daughter feel that Thelma knowing her prognosis will cause undue harm?

c)

Will the family gain anything from Thelma not knowing the prognosis?

d)

Are other family members involved, and what are their feelings?

e)

Will healthcare options be affected?

33.

In Step 3 (Gather relevant facts) for Thelma’s case, which of the following are appropriate questions to ask?

a)

Are financial implications involved?

b)

What resources are available to help Thelma cope with her prognosis?

c)

Are there laws involved in the case?

34.

When identifying the ethical question as the first step in an ethical decision‑making process, the ethical question usually starts with what word?

a)

What

b)

How

c)

Should

d)

Must