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RAD 486 Presentation Review Fall 2025

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The primary view used to evaluate the lumbar spine's intervertebral foramina is:

a)

Lateral view

b)

AP view

c)

Oblique view

d)

Flexion view

2.

The most important consideration when performing pediatric chest radiography is:

a)

Minimizing radiation exposure

b)

Using high radiation dose

c)

Prolonging examination time

d)

Ignoring patient movement

3.

Which bone is NOT part of the shoulder girdle?

a)

Scapula

b)

Clavicle

c)

Humerus

d)

Sternum

4.

The key imaging consideration in trauma radiography is:

a)

Minimizing patient movement

b)

Increasing exposure time

c)

Using only one view

d)

Avoiding all contrast agents

5.

A common artifact in digital imaging that should be avoided is:

a)

Aliasing

b)

Contrast enhancement

c)

Image sharpening

d)

Edge detection

6.

The projection of the elbow used to visualize the olecranon process clearly is:

a)

Lateral projection

b)

AP projection

c)

Oblique projection

d)

Axial projection

7.

The function of Automatic Exposure Control (AEC) in radiography is:

a)

to automatically adjust the amount of radiation exposure for optimal image quality

b)

to increase the size of the X-ray image

c)

to reduce the cost of radiographic equipment

d)

to enhance the color of the radiographic image

8.

The imaging modality most useful for demonstrating GI perforations is:

a)

Ultrasound

b)

CT scan

c)

MRI

d)

Barium swallow

9.

A common chest pathology seen in pediatric radiography is:

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Emphysema

c)

Pulmonary fibrosis

d)

Lung cancer

10.

The purpose of using a grid in scatter control is:

a)

to limit the amount of scatter radiation reaching the image receptor

b)

to increase patient exposure to radiation

c)

to blur the image intentionally

d)

to reduce the sharpness of the image

11.

The structure typically evaluated in an arthrogram of the shoulder is:

a)

Rotator cuff

b)

Deltoid muscle

c)

Humeral shaft

d)

Acromion process

12.

The most common type of contrast media used in an upper GI series is:

a)

Barium sulfate

b)

Iodinated contrast

c)

Gadolinium

d)

Air

13.

PACS stands for:

a)

Picture Archiving and Communication System

b)

Patient Analysis and Care System

c)

Public Access Computer System

d)

Personal Automated Communication Service

14.

The typical contrast agent used in shoulder arthrography is:

a)

Gadolinium

b)

Barium sulfate

c)

Iodinated contrast

d)

Air

15.

Which factor can lead to image distortion in radiographic imaging?

a)

Incorrect patient positioning

b)

Proper exposure time

c)

Optimal film processing

d)

Adequate collimation

16.

One primary method to reduce scatter radiation in radiography is:

a)

using a grid

b)

increasing exposure time

c)

decreasing kVp

d)

removing the collimator

17.

AEC stands for ______ in radiographic imaging.

a)

Automatic Exposure Control

b)

Automatic Energy Calibration

c)

Advanced Exposure Computation

d)

Active Electron Capture

18.

A common cause of motion artifacts in radiographic images is:

a)

Patient movement

b)

Improper film storage

c)

Low exposure time

d)

Faulty X-ray tube

19.

The artifact commonly caused by double exposure is:

a)

Ghost image

b)

Grid cutoff

c)

Motion blur

d)

Magnification

20.

The factor that primarily affects spatial resolution in digital radiography is:

a)

Pixel size

b)

Exposure time

c)

Tube voltage

d)

Patient movement

21.

A standard lead apron thickness for radiation protection is:

a)

0.25 mm

b)

0.5 mm

c)

1.0 mm

d)

2.0 mm

22.

The factor that primarily affects the amount of distortion in a radiographic image is:

a)

Focal spot size

b)

Object-film distance

c)

Exposure time

d)

Film speed

23.

The primary advantage of using Automatic Exposure Control (AEC) in radiography is:

a)

to ensure optimal image quality with minimal patient exposure

b)

to increase the speed of image processing

c)

to reduce the cost of radiographic equipment

d)

to eliminate the need for radiologic technologists

24.

The modality often used for detailed imaging of soft tissues in clinical settings is:

a)

MRI

b)

X-ray

c)

Ultrasound

d)

CT scan

25.

The factor that increases spatial resolution in radiography is:

a)

Smaller focal spot size

b)

Increased object-to-image distance

c)

Larger pixel size

d)

Increased motion during exposure

26.

The purpose of lead shielding in radiography is:

a)

to protect against radiation exposure

b)

to enhance image contrast

c)

to cool the radiographic equipment

d)

to increase the speed of imaging

27.

Collimation affects patient dose in which of the following ways?

a)

It reduces patient dose by limiting the area exposed to radiation.

b)

It increases patient dose by limiting the area exposed to radiation.

c)

It has no effect on patient dose.

d)

It only affects image quality, not patient dose.

28.

Which factor primarily controls radiographic contrast?

a)

kVp (kilovolt peak)

b)

mA (milliampere)

c)

Exposure time

d)

Focal spot size

29.

The annual dose limit for occupational exposure according to the NCRP is:

a)

50 mSv

b)

10 mSv

c)

100 mSv

d)

5 mSv

30.

With digital imaging, it is impossible to overexpose the patient to radiation because the computer makes adjustments to the image.

a)

True

b)

False