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A & P Final Exam Study Guide

Total questions: 159

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The outer surface of a cow's leg that is facing away from its body is the ___ surface.

a)
ventral
b)
lateral
c)
medial
d)
dorsal
2.

If you were told to look for a tumor on dorsal surface of a pig's hindleg, where would you look?

a)

The back surface of the carpus

b)

The front surface above the carpus

c)

The front surface above the tarsus

d)

The front surface below the tarsus

3.

Which anatomical plane divides the body into right and left halves?

a)

Median (midsagittal plane)

b)
Transverse plane
c)
Coronal plane
d)
Frontal plane
4.

On a horse, the area dorsal to the scapula is known as the

a)
croup
b)
shoulder
c)
flank
d)
withers
5.

The structure that divides the ventral cavity into two parts is the

a)

diaphragm

b)

omentum

c)

pleura

d)

viscera

6.

Cells that are linked by tubular channels that run from the cytoplasm of one cell to the cytoplasm of the adjacent cell are said to be connected by

a)

gap junctions

b)

junctional complexes

c)

tight junctions

d)

tonofilaments

7.

The ____ anchors a cell to its underlying connective tissue.

a)
nuclear envelope
b)
basement membrane
c)
cell membrane
d)
plasma membrane
8.

The type of epithelium found on the surface of the ovaries and lining the ducts of glands is

a)
simple cuboidal epithelium
b)
transitional epithelium
c)
simple columnar epithelium
d)
stratified squamous epithelium
9.

The urinary bladder is partially lined by ____, giving it the ability to expand and contract as needed.

a)
simple squamous epithelium
b)
stratified cuboidal epithelium
c)
columnar epithelium
d)
transitional epithelium
10.

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is classified as such based on

a)

The nonuniform height of the cells

b)

The nonuniform level of the nuclei of the cells

c)

The nonuniform shape of the cells

d)

The nonuniform width of the cells

11.

If a gland loses an entire secretory cell during the secretory process, it is classified as a/an

a)
holocrine gland
b)
endocrine gland
c)
merocrine gland
d)
apocrine gland
12.

A high fever can lead to ____ mucous membranes

a)

black

b)

blue

c)

red

d)

yellow

13.

The capillary refill time test is performed

a)

on the anus

b)

on the gums

c)

on the nose

d)

on the upper eyelid

14.

What layer is the portion of a membrane that lines a cavity wall?

a)

mucous layer

b)

parietal layer

c)

serosal layer

d)

visceral layer

15.

The nucleus of a nerve cell is found in the

a)

axon

b)

dendrite

c)

neuroglia

d)

perikaryon

16.

The pigment found in skin is produced by

a)

keratinocytes

b)

Langerhans cells

c)

melanocytes

d)

Merkel cells

17.

The nose of a white cat is especially susceptible to

a)

basal cell tumor

b)

malignant melanoma

c)

Merkel cell carcinoma

d)

squamous cell carcinoma

18.

Tylotrich hairs are important in the perception of

a)

heat

b)

light

c)

pain

d)

touch

19.

Which dark, horny structures are found buried in the long, caudal hairs of equine fetlocks?

a)

chestnuts

b)

dewclaws

c)

ergots

d)

metacarpal pads

20.

Which statement is false regarding laminitis in horses?

a)

Inflammation occurs in the delicate laminae that attaches the hoof wall to the underlying coffin bone

b)

Painful disorder that affects primarily the back feet of horses and ponies

c)

Chronic laminitis causes abnormal hoof growth

d)

Engorgement of foods high in carbs like corn and grains is a predisposing factor

21.

Which type of mange is zoonotic ?

a)

sarcoptic mange

b)

demodetic mange

c)

Addisonian mange

d)

ventral mange

22.

What are the two calcitropic hormones involved in calcium homeostasis?

a)

calcitonin and parathyroid hormone

b)

glucagon and calcitonin

c)

parathyroid hormone and glucagon

d)

thyroid hormone and glucagon

23.

Large blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves enter large, long bones through channels called

a)

canalculi

b)

Haversian canals

c)

nutrient formina

d)

Volkmann's canals

24.

As a young animal grows so must its bones grows. Where does creation of new bone that allows long bones to lengthen as the animal grows take place?

a)

diaphyseal surface

b)

diaphysis

c)

epiphyseal plates

d)

epiphysis

25.

Which one of the following bones is formed by intramembranous bone formation?

a)

mandible bone of the lower jaw

b)

patella of the rear leg

c)

scapula of the front leg

d)

temporal bone of the skull

26.

Where would you find immovable fibrous joints called sutures?

a)

pelvis

b)

ribcage

c)

skull

d)

spinal column

27.

From cranial to caudal, what is the correct sequence of letter designations for the five regions of the spinal column?

a)

C, CY, L, S, T

b)

C, T, L, S, CY

c)

CY, S, T, L, C

d)

T, C, S, L, CY

28.

Besides in the neck region, intervertebral disk disease is usually seen in the ___ region.

a)

costochondral

b)

lumbosacral

c)

sacroiliac

d)

thoracolumbar

29.

What condition causes a walking on eggshells gait?

a)

hip dysplasia

b)

patellar luxation

c)

laminitis

d)

navicular disease

30.

What is a common developmental orthopedic disease in large breeds of dogs?

a)

medial patellar luxation

b)

intervertebral disc disease

c)

hip dysplasia

d)

cranial cruciate disease

31.

The linea alba is a/an

a)

aponeurosis

b)

epimysium

c)

ligament

d)

tendon

32.

When the sternocephalicus muscle contracts what happens in the animal's body?

a)

the rear leg is pulled backward

b)

the front leg is pulled forward

c)

the head and neck are lowered

d)

the head and neck are raised

33.

Which three muscles make up the hamstring muscle?

a)

biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus

b)

gluteal, quadriceps femoris, biceps femoris

c)

quadriceps femoris, gluteal, biceps femoris

d)

semitendinosus, semimembranosus, gluteal

34.

The respiratory muscles that work together to increase the size of the thoracic cavity when they contract are they

a)

abdominal and internal intercostal muscles

b)

abdominal and external intercostal muscles

c)

diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

d)

internal and external intercostal muscles

35.

The contracting unit of a skeletal muscle is the

a)

actin

b)

myofibril

c)

myosin

d)

sarcomere

36.

The pacemaker of the heart is the sinoatrial node located in the wall of the

a)

left atrium

b)

left ventricle

c)

right atrium

d)

right ventricle

37.

Which structures contain visceral smooth muscle?

a)

tongue and stomach

b)

small blood vessel wall and lungs

c)

stomach and urinary bladder

d)

urinary bladder and small blood vessel walls

38.

The efferent processes of a nerve cell are the

a)

axons

b)

dendrites

c)

nodes of Ranvier

d)

perikaryons

39.

Afferent nerve fibers carry sensations

a)

away from the CNS

b)

through axons

c)

through motor nerve fibers

d)

toward the CNS

40.

A polarized neuron in its resting state has

a)

a high potassium and high sodium ion concentration inside the cell membrane

b)

high potassium ion concentration on the outside of the cell membrane and high sodium ion concentration on the inside of the cell membrane

c)

high sodium and high potassium ion concentrations outside the cell membrane

d)

high sodium ion on the outside of the cell membrane and high potassium ion concentration on the inside of the cell membrane

41.

The space between the neuron and a target cell is called the

a)

symphysis

b)

synapse

c)

telodendron

d)

threshold

42.

The three catacholamine neurotransmitters are

a)

acetylcholine, glycine and epinephrine

b)

dopamine, acetylcholine, and glycine

c)

norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine

d)

norepinephrine, epinephrine, and glycine

43.

The part of the CNS that contains the hypothalamus is the

a)
pons
b)
medulla oblongata
c)
diencephalon
d)
cerebellum
44.

The centers of higher learning and intelligence are found in the

a)

brainstem

b)

cerebellum

c)

cerebrum

d)

diencephalon

45.

The medulla oblongata is part of the

a)
cerebellum
b)
thalamus
c)
brainstem
d)
hypothalamus
46.

The parasympathetic system nerves are also known as the

a)

cranial-sacral system

b)

cranio-lumbar system

c)

thoracolumbar

d)

thoraco-sacral system

47.

Which clinical sign is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system stimulation?

a)

bronchodilation

b)

reduced digestion

c)

vasodilation

d)
Decreased heart rate
48.

The primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system is

a)

acetylcholine

b)

dopamine

c)

epinephrine

d)

norepinephrine

49.

What type of reflex causes the extensor muscles on one limb to contract when the flexor muscles on the opposite limb contract?

a)

crossed extensor reflex

b)

palpebral

c)

stretch reflex

d)

withdrawl reflex

50.

The pain experiencing sense is also known as the ___ sense?

a)

gustatory

b)

nocicception

c)

proprioception

d)

tactile

51.

The only place in an animal's body where there are no pain receptors is (are) the

a)

brain

b)

eyeballs

c)

heart

d)

lungs

52.

Concious perception of pain takes place in the

a)

brainstem

b)

cerebellar cortex

c)

cerebral cortex

d)

medulla oblongata

53.

Which of the four processes that contribute to pain can be influenced through treatment with drugs?

a)

modulation

b)

perception

c)

transduction

d)

transmission

54.

The gustatory sense is dependent on ___ stimulation.

a)

chemical

b)

electromagnetic

c)

mechanical

d)

thermal

55.

The hearing sensory receptors are in the?

a)

eardrum

b)

external ear

c)

inner ear

d)

middle ear

56.

An upper respiratory tract infection will primarily affect the

a)

auditory sense

b)

gustatory sense

c)

nociception sense

d)

olfactory sense

57.

The function of the ossicles is to

a)

decrease amplitude of sound wave vibrations and increase their force

b)

decrease both the amplitude and force of sound wave vibrations

c)

increase amplitude of sound wave vibrations and decrease their force

d)

increase both the amplitude and force of sound wave vibrations

58.

Equilibrium is maintained through stimulation of sensory receptors in the

a)

cochlea and otoliths

b)

semicircular canals and cochlea

c)

vestibule and cochlea

d)

vestibule and semicircular canals

59.

The utricle and saccule are filled with

a)

air

b)

endolymph

c)

perilymph

d)

plasma

60.

The patch of sensory epithelium that generated nerve impulses that inform the brain about the position of the head is called the

a)

ampulla

b)

cupula

c)

macula

d)

otolith

61.

All the light that enters the eye enters through the

a)

cornea

b)

iris

c)

limbus

d)

sclera

62.

An animal's eyes "glow" in the dark when a light is shined on them because of the

a)

ciliary body

b)

iris

c)

retina

d)

tapetum

63.

The species that doesn't have eyes that "glow" in the dark when a light is shined on them is a/an

a)

caprine

b)

equine

c)

ovine

d)

porcine

64.

The "diaphragm" of the eye that controls the amount of light that enters the eye is the

a)

ciliary body

b)

cornea

c)

iris

d)

sclera

65.

The opening at the center of the "diaphragm" of the eye is the

a)

choroid

b)

ciliary body

c)

Limbus

d)

pupil

66.

Where is aqueous humor produced?

a)

anterior chamber of the eyeball

b)

canal of Schlemm

c)

fovea centralis

d)

posterior chamber of the eyeball

67.

The most common cause of glaucoma?

a)

insufficient drainage of aqueous humor

b)

insufficient drainage of vitreous humor

c)

overproduction of aqueous humor

d)

overproduction of vitreous humor

68.

Which photoreceptors are the most sensitive to light?

a)

cones

b)

fovea centralis

c)

optic discs

d)

rods

69.

The third eyelid is composed of

a)

cartilage and conjunctiva

b)

conjunctiva and skin

c)

muscle and cartilage

d)

skin and muscle

70.

Negative feedback control of hormone secretion begins when a

a)

falling lvl of hormone is detected by the gland that produced it

b)

falling lvl of hormone is detected by the target cell of the hormone

c)

rising lvl of hormone is detected by the gland that produced it

d)

rising lvl of hormone is detected by the target cell of the hormone

71.

Which hormone does the hypothalamus gland produce?

a)

calcitonin

b)

epinephrine

c)

glucagon

d)

oxytocin

72.

Erythropoietin affects the development of

a)

muscles

b)

ovaries

c)

red blood cells

d)

seminal vesicles

73.

Besides the gonads, which other gland produces sex hormones?

a)

adrenal cortex

b)

adrenal medulla

c)

anterior pituitary

d)

posterior pituitary

74.

Diabetes Mellitus is a disease caused by a deficiency of

a)

aldosterone

b)

glucagon

c)

insulin

d)

tetraiodothyronine

75.

Aldosterone helps regulate ___ lvls is the body

a)

electrolyte

b)

glucose

c)

sex hormone

d)

testosterone

76.

Administration of which classification of drugs can cause effects that mimic the body's natural white blood cell stress response?

a)

androgens

b)

estrogens

c)

glucocorticosteroids

d)

mineralocorticoid hormones

77.

The function of ADH is to

a)

concentrate blood

b)

conserve water

c)

dilute urine

d)

eliminate excess water

78.

Hyperadrenocorticism is a condition that does not have what symptom?

a)

delayed wound healing

b)

polyuria

c)

decreased appetite

d)

flaky skin

79.

Thyroid-stimulating hormone is produced by the

a)

anterior pituitary gland

b)

hypothalamus

c)

posterior pituitary gland

d)

thyroid gland

80.

What hormone lowers calcium levels in the bloodstream?

a)

PTH

b)

Calcitriol

c)

calcitonin

d)

T4

81.

Where is insulin produced?

a)

adrenal gland

b)

hypothalamus

c)

pancreas

d)

thyroid gland

82.

The hormonal part of the "fight or flight" response is produced in the

a)

adrenal glands

b)

hypothalamus

c)

pituitary gland

d)

thyroid gland

83.

The target organ for luteinizing hormone in females is

a)

all cells

b)

bones

c)

kidneys

d)

ovaries

84.

An immiture neutrophil with a horseshoe-shaped nucleus is called a

a)

band cell

b)

metamyelocyte

c)

myelocyte

d)

promyelocyte

85.

The function of all white blood cells is

a)

antibody production

b)

defense

c)

phagocytosis

d)

toxin neutralization

86.

If immature neutrophils are observed in peripheral blood, the condition is called a

a)

left shift

b)

leukemia

c)

leukopenia

d)

right shift

87.

You are looking at a stained smear of horse blood and you see a leukocyte with large red granules in its cytoplasm. What cell are you looking at?

a)

basophil

b)

eosinophil

c)

lymphocyte

d)

monocyte

88.

The process by which neutrophils engulf invading foreign microorgansms is called

a)

chemotaxis

b)

diapedesis

c)

opsonization

d)

phagocytosis

89.

A megakaryocyte will eventually produce

a)

erythrocytes

b)

monocytes

c)

neutrophils

d)

thrombocytes

90.

1 hemoglobin molecule can carry how many molecules of oxygen?

a)

16

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

91.

Which leukocyte is responsible for cell-mediated immunity?

a)

B lymphocyte

b)

monocyte

c)

plasma cell

d)

T lymphocyte

92.

The organ in an animal's body that is the primary site of extravascular hemolysis is the

a)

kidney

b)

liver

c)

lung

d)

spleen

93.

If you counted 95% of neutrophils on a cow's differential white blood cell count and the normal range is 15% to 33%, this would be classified as a

a)

leukocytopenia

b)

leukocytosis

c)

neutropenia

d)

neutrophilia

94.

Which one of the following blood tests is a measure of how many immature red blood cells are present?

a)

mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration

b)

mean corpuscular volume

c)

red cell distribution width

d)

reticulocyte count

95.

The heart is in the thoracic cavity in the space between the two lungs. This space is called the

a)

median plane

b)

mediastinum

c)

meninx

d)

menstruum

96.

When looking at a standing animal from the side, you would locate the heart

a)

at the lvl of the last rib

b)

at the thoracic inlet

c)

between its right and left carpal joints

d)

between its right and left olecranon processes

97.

The fibrous sac that encloses the heart is the

a)
endocardium
b)
myocardium
c)
epicardium
d)
pericardium
98.

The ouermost layer of the heart is the

a)
myocardium
b)
pericardium
c)
endocardium
d)
epicardium
99.

The membrane that lines the chambers of the heart is the

a)

endocardium

b)

epicardium

c)

myocardium

d)

pericardium

100.

The type of blood vessel that usually carries oxygenated blood away from the heart is a/an

a)
arteriole
b)
vein
c)
capillary
d)
artery
101.

The apex of the heart is made up of the

a)

wall of right ventricle

b)

wall of right atrium

c)

wall of left ventricle

d)

wall of left atrium

102.

Deoxygenated blood from systemic circulation enters the heart at the

a)
pulmonary artery
b)
right ventricle
c)
right atrium
d)
left atrium
103.

Another name for the left atrioventricular valve is the

a)
tricuspid valve
b)
aortic valve
c)
mitral valve
d)
pulmonary valve
104.

Another name for the right semilunar valve is the

a)
pulmonary valve
b)
aortic valve
c)
tricuspid valve
d)
mitral valve
105.

On an ECG reading of one cardiac cycle, the concentration of the main mass of the ventricles is represented by the

a)
QRS complex
b)
ST segment
c)
T wave
d)
P wave
106.

Systolic blood pressure measures

a)

the force by which blood is ejected from the left ventricle during systole

b)

the force by which blood is ejected from the right ventricle during systole

c)

the pressure remaining in the aorta during left ventricular diastole

d)

the pressure remaining in the aorta during right ventricular diastole

107.

The largest vein in an animal's body is the

a)
aorta
b)
vena cava
c)
pulmonary artery
d)
femoral vein
108.

Most of the exchange of gases and nutrients between blood and tissue takes place at the

a)

small elastic artery

b)

venule

c)

small muscular arteriole

d)

capillary bed

109.

Phonation is an animal begins in the

a)

larynx

b)

mouth

c)

pharynx

d)

trachea

110.

The nasal meatus is created by the

a)

hard palate

b)

nasal septum

c)

soft palate

d)

turbinates

111.

The three main condition functions of the nasal passages are

a)

humidifying, filtering, and mixing air

b)

humidifying, mixing, and warming air

c)

warming, humidifying, and filtering air

d)

warming, mixing, and fixing air

112.

The nasopharynx sits __ to the oropharynx in the standing animal

a)

caudal

b)

cranial

c)

dorsal

d)

ventral

113.

The tracheal rings are composed of

a)

elastic cartilage

b)

hyaline cartilage

c)

skeletal cartilage

d)

smooth muscle

114.

If the CO2 lvl rises above a preset limit, how will the respiratory center adjust the breathing to compensate?

a)

decrease rate and depth of respiration

b)

decrease rate and increase depth of respiration

c)

increase rate and decrease depth of respiration

d)

increase rate and depth of respiration

115.

The main expiratory muscles are the

a)

external intercostal muscles and the abdominal muscles

b)

external intercostal muscles and the diaphragm

c)

internal intercostal muscles and the abdominal muscles

d)

internal intercostal muscles and the diaphragm

116.

The blood vessel that brings blood to the lungs from the heart is the

a)
coronary artery
b)
aorta
c)
vena cava
d)
pulmonary artery
117.

Which thoracic structure would you find outside the mediastinum?

a)
Esophagus
b)
Diaphragm
c)
Lungs
d)
Heart
118.

The trachea splits into two bronchi at the

a)

binary fission

b)

bifurcation

c)

bicornate division

d)

bichat

119.

Bronchodilation and bronchocontriction are controlled by

a)

the autonomic nervous system acting of skeletal muscle

b)

the autonomic nervous system acting on smooth muscle

c)

the somatic nervous system acting on skeletal muscle

d)

the somatic nervous system acting on smooth muscle

120.

What is the cardia?

a)
The cardia is the lower part of the esophagus.
b)
The cardia is a type of heart valve.
c)

The cardia is the upper opening of the stomach, where the esophagus enters

d)
The cardia is the main section of the small intestine.
121.

What is the fundus?

a)
The fundus is the outer layer of the eye.
b)
The fundus is a part of the ear anatomy.
c)

The fundus is the blind pouch of the stomach that expands with food

d)
The fundus is a type of eye disease.
122.

What is the body?

a)
A type of clothing worn by humans.
b)

The middle of the stomach, expands when needed

c)

  1. the upper opening of the stomach, where the esophagus enters.

d)
A collection of cells and tissues.
123.

What is the antrum?

a)
A type of digestive enzyme produced in the stomach.
b)
A section of the small intestine involved in nutrient absorption.
c)

Distal part that grinds food & regulates hydrochloric acid

d)
A small muscle located in the upper abdomen.
124.

What is the pylorus?

a)
The pylorus is a muscle in the stomach wall.
b)
The pylorus is the valve between the esophagus and stomach.
c)
The pylorus is a type of digestive enzyme.
d)

The pylorus is the muscular sphincter regulates chyme into duodenum; prevents backflow of duo. contents into stomach

125.

What is the reticulum?

a)

A structure with a honeycomb appearance inside that increases surface area

b)
A structure found only in plant cells for photosynthesis.
c)
A term used to describe a specific type of muscle tissue.
d)
A type of cellular organelle involved in protein synthesis.
126.

What is the rumen?

a)
The rumen is a fermentation chamber in the stomach of ruminant animals.
b)
The rumen is a muscle that helps in food digestion.
c)
The rumen is a type of enzyme produced in the liver.
d)
The rumen is a digestive organ in birds.
127.

What is the omasum?

a)
The omasum is a muscle in the stomach wall.
b)
The omasum is a gland that produces saliva.
c)

The omasum functions to breakdown food particular absorb reminder of volatile fatty acids

d)
The omasum is a type of digestive enzyme.
128.

What is the abomasum ?

a)
The abomasum is a type of digestive enzyme.
b)

The abomasum is the "fourth stomach" ; secretes acids, mixes, contracts, moves liquid chyme into SI

c)
The abomasum is the first stomach compartment in mammals.
d)
The abomasum is a gland found in the liver.
129.

What is the function of liver?

a)
The liver detoxifies substances, produces bile, metabolizes nutrients, stores vitamins, and regulates blood clotting.
b)
The liver produces insulin and regulates blood sugar levels.
c)
The liver filters air and produces red blood cells.
d)
The liver generates hormones and controls body temperature.
130.

What are the components of the small intestine?

a)
Esophagus, Stomach, Colon
b)
Cecum, Rectum, Pancreas
c)
Liver, Gallbladder, Spleen
d)
Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum
131.

What are the components of the large intestine?

a)

Cecum, colon, rectum.

b)
Colon (ascending, transverse, descending), gallbladder, spleen.
c)
Stomach, small intestine, pancreas, liver.
d)
Cecum, duodenum, jejunum, ileum.
132.

What is the inflammation of the gingiva called?

a)
Gingival hyperplasia
b)
Gingivoplasty
c)
Gingivitis
d)
Gingivectomy
133.

What layers does the esophagus contain?

a)
Endothelium, subserosa, lamina propria, serosa
b)
Serosa, mucosa, peritoneum, fascia
c)
Epithelial, connective, circular, longitudinal
d)

Mucosa, submucosa, muscular layer, serosa

134.

An animal with a single stomach is referred to

a)

herbivorous

b)

bovine

c)

multi-stomach

d)

monogastric

135.

What is the equine hind gut composed of?

a)
Pancreas and liver
b)

Cecum and ventral colon, dorsal colon and small colon

c)
Stomach and esophagus
d)
Small intestine and rectum
136.

What animal eats plants, herbs and meat

a)
Carnivore
b)
Herbivore
c)
Insectivore
d)
Omnivore
137.

The muscular folds that divide the sacs of the rumen are called

a)
pillars
b)
dividers
c)
sacs
d)
folds
138.

What is the afferent glomerular arterioles?

a)

Afferent glomerular arterioles carry blood into the glomerular for filtration

b)
Afferent glomerular arterioles are nerves that control kidney function.
c)
Afferent glomerular arterioles transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder.
d)
Afferent glomerular arterioles are responsible for filtering waste from the blood.
139.

What is the Bowman's capsule ?

a)
Bowman's capsule is a hormone produced by the pancreas.
b)
Bowman's capsule is a structure in the kidney that surrounds the glomerulus and is involved in the filtration of blood.
c)
Bowman's capsule is a type of muscle tissue in the heart.
d)
Bowman's capsule is a part of the digestive system that absorbs nutrients.
140.

What are the collecting ducts?

a)
Collecting ducts are blood vessels that transport oxygen to the kidneys.
b)
Collecting ducts are structures in the kidney that collect urine from nephrons and regulate water and electrolyte balance.
c)
Collecting ducts are glands that produce hormones in the body.
d)
Collecting ducts are parts of the liver that filter toxins from the blood.
141.

What is the distal convoluted tubule?

a)

The distal convoluted tubule is the last tubular part of the nephron before it enters the collecting duct

b)
The distal convoluted tubule is involved in bile production and secretion.
c)
The distal convoluted tubule is a section of the large intestine.
d)
The distal convoluted tubule filters blood and produces urine.
142.

What are efferent glomerular arterioles?

a)
Efferent glomerular arterioles are the blood vessels that transport blood away from the glomerulus.
b)
Efferent glomerular arterioles are the vessels that supply oxygen to the glomerulus.
c)
Efferent glomerular arterioles are the blood vessels that filter blood into the glomerulus.
d)
Efferent glomerular arterioles are the blood vessels that connect the glomerulus to the renal vein.
143.

What are glomerular capillaries?

a)
Glomerular capillaries are the nerve endings that control kidney function.
b)
Glomerular capillaries are large veins that drain blood from the liver.
c)
Glomerular capillaries are the main arteries supplying blood to the heart.
d)
Glomerular capillaries are the tiny blood vessels in the kidneys that facilitate the filtration of blood.
144.

What is the hilus of the kidney?

a)
The hilus of the kidney is a protective layer surrounding the organ.
b)
The hilus of the kidney is the entry and exit point for blood vessels, nerves, and the ureter.
c)
The hilus of the kidney is a hormone produced by the kidney.
d)
The hilus of the kidney is a type of kidney stone.
145.

What is the kidney?

a)
The kidney is a gland that regulates hormones.
b)
The kidney is an organ that filters blood and produces urine.
c)
The kidney is a muscle that aids in digestion.
d)
The kidney is a bone that supports the body.
146.

What is the Loop of Henle?

a)
The Loop of Henle is a muscle in the heart that pumps blood.
b)
The Loop of Henle is a part of the nephron in the kidney responsible for urine concentration.
c)
The Loop of Henle is a section of the digestive tract involved in nutrient absorption.
d)
The Loop of Henle is a type of neuron that transmits signals in the brain.
147.

What is a nephron?

a)
A nephron is the basic structural and functional unit of the kidney.
b)
A nephron is a hormone produced by the pancreas.
c)
A nephron is a muscle tissue found in the heart.
d)
A nephron is a type of blood cell in the body.
148.

What are Peritubular capillaries

a)
Peritubular capillaries are lymphatic vessels that drain excess fluid from tissues.
b)
Peritubular capillaries are small blood vessels that surround the nephron tubules in the kidneys.
c)
Peritubular capillaries are specialized neurons that transmit signals in the brain.
d)
Peritubular capillaries are large arteries that supply blood to the heart.
149.

What are proximal convoluted tubules?

a)
Proximal convoluted tubules are the final segment of the renal tubule, primarily responsible for urine excretion.
b)
Proximal convoluted tubules are the main site for filtering blood in the nephron, eliminating waste products.
c)
Proximal convoluted tubules are the first segment of the renal tubule in the nephron, involved in reabsorbing water, ions, and nutrients.
d)
Proximal convoluted tubules are the outer layer of the kidney, regulating blood pressure and flow.
150.

What is the renal artery?

a)
The renal artery is a nerve that connects to the bladder.
b)
The renal artery is a vein that drains blood from the liver.
c)
The renal artery is a duct that transports urine from the kidneys.
d)
The renal artery is the blood vessel that supplies blood to the kidneys.
151.

What is the renal capsule?

a)
The renal capsule is a fluid-filled sac within the kidneys.
b)
The renal capsule is a muscle layer that aids in kidney function.
c)
The renal capsule is a network of blood vessels supplying the kidneys.
d)
The renal capsule is a protective fibrous layer surrounding the kidneys.
152.

What is the renal corpuscle?

a)
The renal corpuscle is the part of the kidney that stores urine.
b)
The renal corpuscle is a type of kidney cell that produces hormones.
c)
The renal corpuscle is a blood vessel that carries oxygen to the kidneys.
d)

The renal corpuscle is the 1st structure in the nephron that consists of glomerular capillaries and Bowman's capsule

153.

What is the renal cortex?

a)
The renal cortex filters blood and produces hormones.
b)
The renal cortex is the inner layer of the kidney.
c)

The renal cortex is the outer portion of the kidney where renal conv. tubules and nephrons are located

d)
The renal cortex is responsible for urine storage.
154.

What is the renal medulla?

a)

The renal medulla is the innermost region of the kidney; Loop of Henle and collecting ducts travel to the renal pelvis

b)
The renal medulla is a type of kidney stone.
c)
The renal medulla is the outer layer of the kidney.
d)
The renal medulla is responsible for filtering blood.
155.

What is the renal pelvis?

a)
The renal pelvis is the part of the kidney that collects urine before it moves to the ureter.
b)
The renal pelvis is a type of kidney stone.
c)
The renal pelvis is the outer layer of the kidney.
d)
The renal pelvis is responsible for filtering blood in the kidney.
156.

What is the renal vein?

a)
The renal vein is a blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the kidneys to the heart.
b)
The renal vein is a nerve that connects the kidneys to the brain.
c)
The renal vein is a muscle that helps in kidney filtration.
d)
The renal vein is a blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the kidneys.
157.

What are the ureters?

a)
The ureters are organs that filter blood in the kidneys.
b)
The ureters are tubes that carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder.
c)
The ureters are ducts that transport oxygen to the lungs.
d)
The ureters are muscles that help in urine production.
158.

What is the urethra?

a)
The urethra is a chamber that stores urine before excretion.
b)
The urethra is a gland that produces urine.
c)
The urethra is a tube that carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body.
d)
The urethra is a muscle that controls bladder contractions.
159.

What is the urinary bladder?

a)
The urinary bladder is a gland that produces hormones.
b)
The urinary bladder is a muscle that pumps blood.
c)
The urinary bladder is a tube that transports food.
d)
The urinary bladder is an organ that stores urine.

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