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Worksheetsquizz sinh
Total questions: 161
Worksheet time: 1hrs 21mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the primary function of the immune system?
a)
Break down nutrients
b)
Defend against pathogens
c)
Produce energy
d)
Regulate body temperature
2.
What is the primary difference between innate and adaptive immunity?
a)
Adaptive immunity responds faster than innate immunity
b)
Innate immunity is specific, while adaptive immunity is not
c)
Adaptive immunity has memory, while innate immunity does not
d)
Innate immunity only defends against viríues
3.
What is the purpose of vaccination?
a)
To stimulate an immune response without causing illness
b)
To increase white blood cell count
c)
To reduce inflammation
d)
To kill bacteria in the body
4.
Which of the following is a characteristic of autoimmune diseases?
a)
They result from an overreaction to allergens
b)
The immune system attacks its own healthy cells
c)
They only affect the skin
d)
They occur only in response to viral iìnections
5.
What is the first line of defense in the immune system?
a)
T cells
b)
Antibodies
c)
Physical and chemical barriers (e.g., skin, mucus)
d)
Natural killer cells
6.
Which type of immunity involves the production of antibodies?
a)
Innate immunity
b)
Cell-mediated immunity
c)
Humoral immunity
d)
Passive immunity
7.
What is the role of memory cells in immunity?
a)
Engulf pathogens
b)
Produce cytokines
c)
Recognize and respond to previously encountered antigens
d)
Present antigens to T cells
8.
Which of the following best describes passive immunity?
a)
Immunity that develops from previous exposure to pathogens
b)
Immunity passed from mother to child through breast milk or placenta
c)
Immunity generated through vaccines
d)
Immunity due to T cell activation
9.
Which type of immunity is acquired through vaccination?
a)
Passive immunity
b)
Innate immunity
c)
Active immunity
d)
Herd immunity
10.
What triggers the adaptive immune response?
a)
Exposure to antigens
b)
Activation of macrophages
c)
Production of histamine
d)
Release of cytokines
11.
Which immune cells are involved in the secondary immune response?
a)
Macrophages
b)
Memory B cells and memory T cells
c)
Neutrophils
d)
Dendritic cells
12.
Which of the following describes a hypersensitivity reaction?
a)
A delayed immune response
b)
An exaggerated immune response to a harmless substance, like pollen or food
c)
The body failing to recognize a pathogen
d)
Failure to mount an immune reéponse
13.
How does herd immunity help protect a population?
a)
By making all individuals immune through vaccination
b)
By stopping the transmission of a disease when a large percentage of the population is immune
c)
By providing antibodies to individuals who haven't been exposed to the disease
d)
By allowing the pathogen to mutate more slowly
14.
Which of the following best describes innate immunity?
a)
Highly specific and slow
b)
Non-specific and rapid
c)
Antibody-dependent
d)
Based on memory cells
e)
Adaptive only
15.
Which of the following is the primary lymphoid organ where T cells mature?
a)
Bone marrow
b)
Spleen
c)
Thymus
d)
Lymph node
16.
What is the main function of B cells in the immune response?
a)
Phagocytosis
b)
Antibody production
c)
Secreting cytokines
d)
Killing virus-infected cells
17.
Which cells are known as "professional" antigen-presenting cells?
a)
Neutrophils
b)
Macrophages
c)
Platelets
d)
Red blood cells
18.
Where are B cells primarily produced and mature?
a)
Thymus
b)
Lymph nodes
c)
Bone marrow
d)
Spleen
19.
Which immune cell type is responsible for killing virus-infected cells?
a)
Helper T cells
b)
B cells
c)
Cytotoxic T cells
d)
Eosinophils
20.
Which of the following is NOT a primary function of the lymphatic system?
a)
Filtering lymph
b)
Circulating blood
c)
Transporting immune cells.
d)
Absorbing fats from the digestive tract
21.
Which of these cells is involved in allergic reactions and roleases histamine?
a)
Neutrophils
b)
Mast cells
c)
Monocytes
d)
Dendritic cells
22.
Which immune cells are the first to arrive at a site of infection?
a)
Neutrophils
b)
T cells
c)
Eosinophils
d)
Basophil
23.
The spleen is an Important organ in the immune system because:|
a)
It produces white blood cells
b)
It is the site of T cell maturation,
c)
It filters blood and destroys pathogens
d)
It produces antibodies
24.
Which of the following cells are Involved in humoral immunity?
a)
B cells
b)
T cells.
c)
Neutrophils
d)
Macrophages
25.
Which cells are responsible for phagocytosis in innate immunity?
a)
Erythrocytes)
b)
T lymphocytes
c)
Neutrophils.
d)
Plasma cells
26.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of innate immunity?
a)
Immediate response I
b)
No memory formation
c)
Specific to pathogens
d)
involves physical and chemical barriers
27.
What is the primary function of natural killer (NK) cells in innate immunity?
a)
Produce antibodies
b)
Kill infected or tumor cells
c)
Activate the adaptive immune system
d)
Present antigens
28.
Which of the following is a physical barrier involved in innate immunity?|
a)
Saliva
b)
Stomach acid (chemical barriers)
c)
Skin
d)
Mucus
29.
Which of these is NOT a function of macrophages in innate immunity?
a)
Production of antibodies
b)
Secretion of cytokines
30.
Interferons primarily protect against which type of pathogen?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Fungi
c)
Viruses
d)
Parasite!
31.
Which of the following is a chemical barrier in innate immunity?
a)
Lysozyme in saliva
b)
Hair in the nose
c)
Mucous membranes
d)
Cilia in the respiratory tract
32.
The complement system aids in innate immunity by:
a)
Activating T cells
b)
Opsonizing pathogens
c)
Generating memory cells
d)
Producing antibodies
33.
Which of the following cells are known as the "first responders" to infection?
a)
Dendritic cells
b)
Neutrophils
c)
B cells.
d)
Eosinophils
34.
Which cytokine is involved in fever production during an infection?
a)
Interferon
b)
Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
c)
Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
d)
IL-10
35.
Which pathway of the complement system is activated by the presence of pathogens directly?
a)
Classical pathway
b)
Lectin pathway M
c)
Alternative pathway!
d)
Membrane attack pathway
36.
Which of the following is NOT a role of the innate immune system?
a)
Destroying pathogens.
b)
Presenting antigens to adaptive immunity
c)
Creating memory cells.
d)
Producing inflammatory responses
37.
Which enzyme found in tears and saliva breaks down bacterial cell walls?
a)
Amylase!
b)
Lysozyme
c)
Lactase
d)
Protease
38.
Which of the following is a granulocyte involved in innate immunity?
a)
Monocyte
b)
Eosinophil
c)
B cell
d)
T cell
39.
What type of pathogen does eosinophils primarily target?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Viruses
c)
Parasites
d)
Fungi
40.
Which receptor family is critical for detecting pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)?
a)
T-cell receptors
b)
Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
c)
MHC receptors
d)
Immunoglobulin receptors
41.
Which of the following cells bridges innate and adaptive immunity by presenting antigens?
a)
Neutrophils
b)
B cells
c)
Dendritic cells
d)
NK cells
42.
Which of the following proteins is part of the innate immune system and promotes inflammation?
a)
Complement proteins
b)
Immunoglobulins
c)
Interferons
d)
Histamines
43.
What is the main function of checkpoint inhibitors in cancer treatment?
a)
Stimulate T-cell activation
b)
Suppress immune response
c)
Directly kill cancer cells
d)
Block blood supply to tumors
44.
Which of the following cancers is often treated with CAR-T cell therapy?
a)
Breast cancer
b)
Lymphoma
c)
Colon cancer
d)
Skin cancer
45.
Which molecule on T-cells is commonly targeted by checkpoint inhibitors to boost Immune response in cancer therapy?
a)
PD-L1
b)
CTLA-4
c)
CD8
46.
PD-L1 inhibitors work by blocking the interaction between PD-1 and PD-L1 on
a)
Cancer cells and immune cells
b)
Blood vessels and tumors
c)
Muscle and nerve cells
d)
Red blood cells and antibodies
47.
Adoptive cell transfer is a type of immunotherapy that involves:
a)
Removing T-cells from a patient, modifying them, and reinfusing them
b)
Transferring tumor cells to a healthy individual
c)
Injecting chemotherapy directly into the tumor
d)
Giving high-dose radiation to activate the immune system
48.
Which of the following therapies uses the body's immune system to prevent, control, and eliminate cancer?
a)
Hormone therapy
b)
Immunotherapy
c)
Surgery
d)
Chemotherapy
49.
Which therapy involves using a patient's modified immune cells to directly attack cancer cells?
a)
Targeted therapy
b)
CAR-T cell therapy
c)
Radiation therapy
d)
Immuno-suppressive therapy
50.
What is the primary purpose of cancer vaccines in immunotherapy?
a)
To replace chemotherapy
b)
To prevent the spread of cancer
c)
To stimulate the immune system to recognize cancer cells
d)
To shrink tumors directly
51.
Tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) are
a)
Immune cells that penetrate tumors
b)
Proteins that promote tumor growth
c)
Cancer cells that evade the immune system
52.
Immune checkpoint inhibitors are primarily used to:
a)
Directly destroy cancer cells
b)
Block proteins that suppress immune responses against tumors
c)
Enhance blood flow to the tumor
d)
Suppress immune system activity
53.
Which of the following is a type of immunotherapy commonly used to treat cancer?
a)
Chemotherapy
b)
Radiation therapy
c)
Immune checkpoint inhibitors
d)
Surgery
54.
Which of these is an example of a cancer prevention vaccine?
a)
Hepatitis B vaccine
b)
PD-1 inhibitor
c)
CTLA-4 inhibitor
d)
CAR-T therapy
55.
Immunotherapy works by directly killing cancer cells.
a)
True
b)
False
56.
Tumor mutational burden (TMB) can influence the effectiveness of immunotherapy.
a)
True
b)
False
57.
Which of the following are considered types of cancer immunotherapy?
a)
Monoclonal antibodies
b)
CAR-T cell therapy
c)
Surgery
d)
Radiation therapy
58.
Which of the following are immune checkpoint proteins? (Select all that apply)
a)
CTLA-4
b)
PD-1
c)
HER2
d)
PD-L1
59.
What is the main function of an antibody?
a)
Engulf pathogens
b)
Neutralize and tag antigens for destruction
c)
Present antigens to T cells
d)
Release histamines
60.
Which part of the antibody binds to the antigen?
a)
Fc region
b)
Constant region
c)
Variable region
d)
Hinge region
61.
Which of the following is the most abundant antibody in the blood?
a)
IgA
b)
IgE
c)
IgM
d)
IgG
62.
Which class of antibodies is involved in allergic reactions?
a)
IgG
b)
IgA
c)
IgE
d)
IgM
63.
Which of the following antibodies is the first produced in response to an infection? |
a)
IgA
b)
IgM
c)
IgG
d)
IgD
64.
Which region of the antibody determines its class (e.g., IgG, IgM, IgA)?
a)
Variable region
b)
Hypervariable region
c)
Constant region
d)
Hinge region
65.
Which antibody can cross the placenta to provide immunity to the fetus?
a)
IgM
b)
IgA
c)
IgE
d)
IgG
66.
Which antibody class is found in secretions like saliva, tears, and breast milk?
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
d)
IgE
67.
Which of the following is a primary characteristic of IgM antibodies?
a)
They are the smallest class of antibodles.
b)
They are the first antibodies produced in a primary immune response
c)
They are involved in allergic reactions
d)
They can cross the placenta
68.
What is the process by which antibodies mark pathogens for destruction by phagocytes?
a)
Agglutination
b)
Opsonization
c)
Neutralization
d)
Complement activation
69.
Helper T cells recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules.
a)
True
b)
False
70.
Cytotoxic T cells are the main players in humoral immunity.
a)
True
b)
False
71.
What is the role of MHC molecules in antigen presentation?
a)
They produce antibodies
b)
They transport antigens to the cell surface for recognition
c)
They kill infected cells
d)
They trigger apoptosis
72.
Which enzyme found in tears and saliva breaks down bacterial cell walls?
a)
Amylase
b)
Lysozyme
c)
Lactase
d)
Protease
73.
Which type of antigen is found on the body's own cells?
a)
Exogenous antigen
b)
Endogenous antigen
c)
Autoantigen
d)
Alloantigen
74.
Which cells recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules?
a)
B cells
b)
CD4+ T cells
c)
CD8+ T cells
d)
Macrophages
75.
Which immunoglobulin class is the first to respond to an antigen?
a)
IgA
b)
IgG
c)
IgM
d)
IgE
76.
Which cells recognize antigens presented by MHC class Il molecules?
a)
B cells
b)
CD4+ T cells
c)
CD8+ T cells
d)
Natural killer cells
77.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a T-independent antigen?
a)
Requires T cell help for activation
b)
Activates B cells directly
c)
Always proteins
d)
Induces strong memory response
78.
What type of antigens are presented by MHC class I molecules?
a)
Exogenous antigens
b)
Endogenous antigens
c)
Autoantigens
d)
Alloantigens
79.
What is the function of an adjuvant in vaccines?
a)
To enhance the immune response to an antigen
b)
To neutralize the antigen
c)
To reduce the immune response
d)
To stimulate memory cell production
80.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of a good antigen?
a)
High molecular weight
b)
Chemical complexity
c)
Small size
d)
Foreignness
81.
Which type of antigens are presented by MHC class Il molecules?
a)
Exogenous antigens
b)
Endogenous antigens
c)
Autoantigens
d)
Tumor antigens
82.
Which of the following functions are associated with helper T cells? (Select all that apply.)
a)
Activating cytotoxic T cells
b)
Suppressing immune responses
c)
Stimulating B cell proliferation
d)
Releasing cytokines to recruit other immune cells
83.
What is an alloantigen?
a)
An antigen from the same individual
b)
An antigen that causes an allergic reaction
c)
An antigen from a genetically different individual of the same species
d)
A self-antigen
84.
Antigens that induce an allergic reaction are called:
a)
Haptens
b)
Autoantigens
c)
Allergens
d)
Tumor antigens
85.
Which cells present antigens to T cells?
a)
Dendritic cells
b)
B cells
c)
Macrophages
d)
All of the above
86.
Match the T cell subtype with its function:
a)
Cytotoxic T cell ii
b)
Helper T cell i
c)
Regulatory T cell iii
87.
Match the molecule with its role in cell-mediated immunity:
a)
MHC class I ii
b)
MHC class I i
c)
IL-2 iii
88.
Which of the following mechanisms are used by cytotoxic T cells to kill infected cells? (Select all that apply.)
a)
Release of perforin
b)
Release of granzymes
c)
Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity
d)
Phagocytosis
89.
Which of the following cells are involved in the process of cell-mediated immunity? (Select all that apply.)
a)
Helper T cells
b)
B cells
c)
Dendritic cells
d)
Cytotoxic T cells
90.
In cell-mediated immunity, the antigen is presented to T cells via:
a)
MHC class I molecules
b)
MHC class I| molecules
c)
Antibodies
d)
Complement proteins
91.
Which cytokine is released by helper T cells to stimulate other immune responses?
a)
IL-1
b)
IL-2
c)
IL-6
d)
IFN-gamma
92.
Which of the following is required for the activation of cytotoxic T cells?
a)
Antibody binding
b)
Presentation of antigen by MHC class I molecules
c)
Presentation of antigen by MHC class Il molecules
d)
Phagocytosis
93.
Memory T cells:
a)
Produce antibodies after the first infection
b)
Have a longer lifespan than other T cells
c)
Are involved in the immediate innate response
d)
Only activate B cells
94.
Which cells are primarily involved in cell-mediated immunity?
a)
B cells
b)
T cells
c)
Macrophages
d)
Plasma cells
95.
Which type of pathogen is primarily targeted by cell-mediated immunity?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Viruses
c)
Fungi
d)
Parasites
96.
Which cells present antigens to T cells?
a)
Dendritic cells
b)
Neutrophils
c)
Red blood cells
d)
Platelets
97.
What is the main function of regulatory T cells (Tregs) in cell-mediated immunity?
a)
Activate B cells
b)
Suppress immune responses to prevent autoimmunity
c)
Activate cytotoxic T cells
d)
Produce antibodies
98.
Which of the following signals is needed for the full activation of T cells?
a)
Only antigen presentation
b)
Antigen presentation and co-stimulatory signals
c)
Only cytokines
d)
Only antibodies
99.
Which type of molecule is most commonly an antigen?
a)
Lipids
b)
Proteins
c)
DNA
100.
Which part of an antigen is recognized by the immune system?
a)
Epitope
b)
Antibody
c)
Paratope
d)
Receptor
101.
What is a hapten?
a)
A type of antigen
b)
A small molecule that becomes immunogenic when combined with a carrier
c)
A type of antibody
d)
A cell surface receptor
102.
Which type of antigen originates from outside the body?
a)
Autoantigen
b)
Exogenous antigen
c)
Endogenous antigen
d)
Alloantigen
103.
Which of the following cells can present antigens?
a)
T cells
b)
B cells
c)
Dendritic cells
d)
Natural killer cells
104.
Which cells are responsible for producing antibodies in response to antigens?
a)
T cells
b)
Macrophages
c)
Plasma cells
d)
Neutrophils
105.
What is an antigen?
a)
A protein that binds to antibodies
b)
A molecule that triggers an immune response
c)
A white blood cell
d)
A type of antibody
106.
What is the primary function of the humoral immune response?
a)
To destroy infected cells
b)
To produce antibodies
c)
To activate macrophages
d)
To destroy cancer cells
107.
What type of T cell is directly responsible for attacking and killing infected cells?
a)
Helper T cells
b)
Regulatory T cells
c)
Cytotoxic T cells
d)
Memory T cells
108.
Which of the following is a component of innate immunity?
a)
B cells
b)
Antibodies
c)
Macrophages
d)
Plasma cells
109.
What is the primary site of B cell maturation in humans?
a)
Thymus
b)
Bone marrow
c)
Lymph nodes
d)
Spleen
110.
Which of the following is a key component of the humoral immune response?
a)
Cytotoxic T cells
b)
Antibodies
c)
Neutrophils
d)
Platelets
111.
Which cell type is primarily responsible for the humoral immune response?
a)
T cells
b)
B cells
c)
Macrophages
d)
Natural killer cells
112.
Which antibody class is most abundant in the primary humoral immune response?
a)
IgM
b)
IgA
c)
IgG
d)
IgE
113.
What role do plasma cells play in the humoral immune response?
a)
Present antigens
b)
Directly kill pathogens
c)
Produce antibodies
d)
Activate T cells
114.
The humoral immune response involves the production of antibodies by B cells.
a)
True
b)
False
115.
The first step in the humoral immune response is:
a)
Antibody secretion by plasma cells
b)
Antigen recognition by B cells
c)
Activation of helper T cells
d)
Memory B cell formation
116.
Memory B cells are important because they:
a)
Produce cytokines
b)
Activate T cells
c)
Ensure a faster and stronger immune response upon re-exposure to an antigen
d)
Directly destroy pathogens
117.
Which part of an antibody binds to an antigen?
a)
Constant region
b)
Variable region
c)
Heavy chain
d)
Fc region
118.
In the secondary immune response, which antibody is predominantly produced?
a)
IgM
b)
IgA
c)
IgE
d)
IgG
119.
Agglutination tests can be used to detect both antigens and antibodies.
a)
True
b)
False
120.
Indirect ELISA is used to detect specific antibodies in a sample
a)
True
b)
False
121.
Western blotting is performed in liquid without the use of a gel
a)
True
b)
False
122.
Immunoprecipitation does not require antibodies for protein isolation
a)
True
b)
False
123.
Hemagglutination inhibition tests are commonly used to measure antibody levels against viruses.
a)
True
b)
False
124.
ELISA can be quantitative or qualitative depending on its design
a)
True
b)
False
125.
In a Western blot, proteins are first separated by electrophoresis before antibody detection.
a)
True
b)
False
126.
Agglutination tests require enzymatic reactions to form visible clumps.
a)
True
b)
False
127.
The human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is an example of a cancer prevention vaccine.
a)
True
b)
False
128.
Secondary immunodeficiencies are always inherited genetic disorders.
a)
True
b)
False
129.
HIV/AIDS is considered a primary immunodeficiency disorder.
a)
True
b)
False
130.
Autoimmune diseases can only affect a single organ or tissue
a)
True
b)
False
131.
Rheumatoid arthritis involves the immune system attacking the joints, leading to chronic inflammation.
a)
True
b)
False
132.
Autoimmune diseases are generally caused by external pathogens like bacteria or viruses.
a)
True
b)
False
133.
Autoimmune diseases can involve both humoral (antibody-mediated) and cell-mediated immune responses.
a)
True
b)
False
134.
Individuals with immunodeficiencies are less likely to develop autoimmune diseases
a)
True
b)
False
135.
Antibodies are produced by T cells
a)
True
b)
False
136.
The Fab region of an antibody is responsible for antigen binding
a)
True
b)
False
137.
IgG antibodies are the largest in size of all antibody classes
a)
True
b)
False
138.
IgA antibodies are primarily found in the bloodstream
a)
True
b)
False
139.
Each antibody has 2 identical antigen-binding sites
a)
True
b)
False
140.
Antibodies can neutralize pathogens by binding to their surface and preventing them from entering host cells
a)
True
b)
False
141.
Antibodies are involved in both the innate and adaptive immune systems
a)
True
b)
False
142.
IgM antibodies are most effective at crossing the placenta to protect the fetus
a)
True
b)
False
143.
The process of opsonization enhances phagocytosis by marking pathogens for immune cells
a)
True
b)
False
144.
IgE is involved in the body’s defense against bacterial infections
a)
True
b)
False
145.
Type I hypersensitivity is also referred to as a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction.
a)
True
b)
False
146.
Contact dermatitis is an example of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction.
a)
True
b)
False
147.
An allergic reaction to pollen is an example of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction
a)
True
b)
False
148.
Cytotoxic T cells can recognize and destroy tumor cells by recognizing tumor-associated antigens presented on MHC class I molecules.
a)
True
b)
False
149.
Regulator T cells (Tregs) enhance immune responses against tumors.
a)
True
b)
False
150.
Hyperacute rejection is mediated by pre-existing antibodies that recognize the transplanted organ.
a)
True
b)
False
151.
Natural killer (NK) require prior exposure to tumor antigens to kill tumor cells
a)
True
b)
False
152.
Tumor cells can evade the immune system by secreting immunosuppressive cytokines such as IL-10 and TGF-β:
a)
True
b)
False
153.
Chronic graft rejection is typically a rapid process that occurs within hours of transplantation
a)
True
b)
False
154.
In organ transplantation, an allogeneic transplant occurs between genetically identical individuals
a)
True
b)
False
155.
Checkpoint inhibitors, such as anti-PD-1 or anti-CTLA-4 antibodies, are used in cancer therapy to inhibit the immune system.
a)
True
b)
False
156.
The complement system plays no role in transplant rejection or tumor immunty
a)
True
b)
False
157.
The humoral immune response can neutralize viruses and bacteria by preventing them from binding to host cells
a)
True
b)
False
158.
The variable region of an antibody determines its antigen specificity
a)
True
b)
False
159.
Helper T cells are necessary for the activation of B cells in most cases.
a)
True
b)
False
160.
Opsonization is the process by which antibodies coat a pathogen, making it easier for phagocytes to engulf.
a)
True
b)
False
161.
The complement system is not involved in the humoral immune response.
a)
True
b)
False
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