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CpHT Practice Examination II

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What substance should be used to disinfect gloves after being in contact with nonsterile objects?

a)

Distilled water

b)

Sterile water

c)

70%70\% IPA

d)

90%90\% IPA

2.

What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a lorazepam prescription?

a)

None

b)

One

c)

Five

d)

Unlimited

3.

Which interpretation of the following instructions is correct? 30 mL MOM PO ac and hs prn

a)

30-mL MOM PO ac and hs prn

b)

Take one teaspoonful of milk of magnesia by mouth before meals and at bedtime as needed.

c)

Take one tablespoonful of milk of magnesia by mouth after meals and at bedtime as needed.

d)

Take 30 mL (1 oz) of milk of magnesia by mouth after meals and at bedtime as needed.

e)

Take 30 mL (1 oz) of milk of magnesia by mouth before meals and at bedtime as needed.

4.

Which of the following medications may require a patient to take a potassium supplement?

a)

hydrochlorothiazide

b)

lisinopril

c)

simvastatin

d)

spironolactone

5.

Which of the following drugs is a Schedule II drug?

a)

acetaminophen with codeine

b)

alprazolam

c)

methylphenidate

d)

zolpidem

6.

A patient receiving warfarin fails to have their INR/PT checked; what type of medication error is this?

a)

Compliance error

b)

Improper storage error

c)

Monitoring error

d)

Unauthorized drug error

7.

When a pharmacy technician is performing geometric dilution, when does the technician add the most potent ingredient?

a)

Any time

b)

As the first ingredient

c)

As the last ingredient

d)

Intermittently during the compounding process

8.

A pharmacy technician is preparing heparin 25,00025{,}000 units in 500500 mL of D5W. Which concentration should appear on the label?

a)

50 units/mL

b)

75 units/mL

c)

100 units/mL

d)

125 units/mL

9.

What do the three sets of numbers in a National Drug Code (NDC) number reflect?

a)

Drug manufacturer, drug product, and the year the New Drug Application (NDA) was filed

b)

Drug manufacturer, drug product, and drug schedule

c)

Drug manufacturer, drug name, and drug strength

d)

Drug manufacturer, drug product, and package

10.

Which condition is indicated for a patient presenting a prescription for Travoprost to be filled?

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Ocular inflammation

c)

Otitis media

d)

Vertigo

11.

Which is the generic name for the brand name drug Augmentin?

a)

amoxicillin/clavulanate

b)

cephalexin

c)

sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim

d)

sulfadiazine

12.

According to the USP, what temperature is considered a warm temperature?

a)

8∘8^{\circ} C

b)

8∘8^{\circ} to 15∘15^{\circ} C

c)

15∘15^{\circ} to 30∘30^{\circ} C

d)

30∘30^{\circ} to 40∘40^{\circ} C

13.

Which DEA Form is required for a pharmacy to dispense controlled substances?

a)

DEA form 222

b)

DEA form 224

c)

DEA form 225

d)

DEA form 363

14.

What is MedWatch?

a)

A program that identifies controlled substances being overprescribed in areas where there has been an outbreak of heroin overdoses

b)

A reporting program available to pharmacies indicating physicians who may be overprescribing narcotics

c)

A reporting program available to health care providers to report adverse events that pose serious health threats

d)

A service established by the AARP to monitor polypharmacy in elderly adults

15.

How many days would a prescription of 60 tablets last if the directions were "i tab PO qid ac"?

a)

10 days

b)

15 days

c)

20 days

d)

30 days

16.

A hazardous drug must be stored in an externally ventilated, negative-pressure room that has a minimum of how many air changes per hour?

a)

8

b)

10

c)

12

d)

14

17.

Which of the following professions permits a practitioner to prescribe medications?

a)

Chiropractor

b)

Optometrist

c)

Physician assistant

d)

Psychologist

18.

How many milliliters of water should be added to 100100 mL of 10%10\% stock solution of sodium chloride to prepare a 0.9%0.9\% solution of sodium chloride?

a)

10.1 mL

b)

101 mL

c)

1011 mL

d)

1111 mL

19.

The following prescription is presented to the pharmacy to be filled. When prompted by the pharmacy computer for the day's supply, which would the technician enter? Amoxicillin 250250 mg/ 55 mL 7575 mL; 2.52.5 mL PO TID

a)

5 days

b)

7 days

c)

10 days

d)

14 days

20.

Which dosage form is an aqueous solution with sucrose?

a)

Elixir

b)

Emulsion

c)

Suspension

d)

Syrup

21.

Which is the maximum BUD that may be assigned to a water-containing oral formulation of a nonsterile compound at a controlled cold temperature?

a)

10 days

b)

12 days

c)

14 days

d)

16 days

22.

Mary Smith presents a prescription of fluticasone/salmeterol to be filled; which condition is being treated?

a)

Allergic rhinitis

b)

Asthma

c)

Emphysema

d)

Tuberculosis

23.

A child weighs 3030 kg and is prescribed a 55 -mg/kg dose of amoxicillin TID. The pharmacy stocks 5050 mg/mL. How many mL will the patient receive each day?

a)

3 mL

b)

6 mL

c)

9 mL

d)

18 mL

24.

A patient is being treated with olanzapine; for which condition is this medication indicated?

a)

Delirium tremens

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Schizophrenia

d)

Smoking

25.

Under OBRA '90, which of the following tasks is a pharmacy technician permitted to perform?

a)

Call a physician and recommend a different drug dosage.

b)

Counsel a patient with regard to his or her drug therapy.

c)

Offer to counsel a patient, if allowed by state law.

d)

Screen patient profiles for drug-disease contraindications.

26.

Interpret the following: "ii caps stat, then 1 cap q hr, max 5 caps/12 hr."

a)

Take 2 capsules by mouth immediately, then 1 capsule at bedtime, maximum of 5 capsules in 5 hours.

b)

Take 2 capsules by mouth immediately, then 1 capsule each hour, maximum of 5 capsules in 12 hours.

c)

Take 11 capsules by mouth immediately, then 1 capsule at bedtime, maximum of 5 capsules within the next 12 hours.

d)

Take 11 capsules by mouth immediately, then one capsule each hour, maximum of five additional capsules in 12 hours.

27.

Medication X has been reported to cause irreversible harm to an individual. This will result in which type of drug recall being issued?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

28.

Alkeran and Leukeran are examples of:

a)

Drugs found on the "Do Not Crush" drug list.

b)

Medication found on the The Joint Commission’s "Do Not Use" list.

c)

Confused drug names.

d)

Nonproprietary drugs.

29.

A pharmacy technician is asked to compound a liquid preparation. Which type of mortar and pestle should be selected in performing this task?

a)

Glass

b)

Porcelain

c)

Wedgewood

d)

Plastic

30.

Which of the following is a side effect of diphenhydramine?

a)

Drowsiness

b)

Rapid heartbeat

c)

Stomach distress

d)

Watery eyes

31.

Which is another name for a nonproprietary drug?

a)

Brand name drug

b)

Generic drug

c)

Investigational drug

d)

OTC drug

32.

In multiples of what number should tablets or capsules be counted at a time using a spatula and a pill tray?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

5

d)

10

33.

Which DEA form must be submitted to the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) to request permission to destroy controlled substances?

a)

DEA form 41

b)

DEA form 222

c)

DEA form 224

d)

DEA form 225

34.

Which is the generic name for the beta-blocker Tenormin?

a)

atenolol

b)

metoprolol

c)

nadolol

d)

propranolol

35.

Which is the brand name for tetanus/reduced diphtheria toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine?

a)

Adacel

b)

Afluria

c)

Aggrenox

d)

Aloxi

36.

Which Medication Error Reporting and Prevention (MERP) category is assigned when the error occurred may have contributed to the patient's death?

a)

Category G

b)

Category H

c)

Category I

d)

Category J

37.

Which auxiliary label should be affixed to a prescription bottle for a medication that has the following instruction: 1 gt os bid

a)

For external use

b)

For the ear

c)

For the eye

d)

Use rectally

38.

Which of the following medications should have the auxiliary label May Discolor Urine affixed to the prescription container?

a)

ciprofloxacin

b)

nitrofurantoin

c)

phenazopyridine

d)

tetracycline

39.

Citalopram is indicated for the treatment of

a)

alcohol abuse

b)

attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

c)

depression

d)

smoking

40.

Interpret the following prescription. Which directions for use should appear on the prescription label? Lorazepam 0.5 mg #30; 1 tab PO TID prn anxiety; Refill × 2

a)

Take one tablet by mouth as needed for anxiety.

b)

Take one tablet by mouth three times a day for anxiety.

c)

Take one tablet by mouth three times a day as needed for anxiety.

d)

Take one tablet three times a day as needed for anxiety.

41.

Which of the following categories of medications is found on the list of High-Alert Medications issued by the ISMP for community/ambulatory care settings?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

c)

Opioids

d)

Proton pump inhibitors

42.

MEDMARX is overseen by which organization?

a)

ASHP

b)

IOM

c)

ISMP

d)

USP

43.

What type of hospital error occurs when a patient is administered a dose that is greater or less than the prescribed amount?

a)

Improper dose error

b)

Omission error

c)

Wrong dosage form

d)

Wrong dose preparation

44.

How much Demerol would be given to a patient if the dose on hand was 50 mg/mL50\,\text{mg}/\text{mL} and the patient was to receive 75 mg75\,\text{mg} ?

a)

0.5 mL

b)

1.0 mL

c)

1.5 mL

d)

2.0 mL

45.

Which of the following is considered a mechanical error?

a)

Failing to counsel a patient

b)

Failing to make the correct decision during drug utilization evaluation

c)

Failing to screen a patient properly

d)

Performing incorrect pharmacy calculations

46.

A patient comes to the pharmacy seeking a prescription refill. The patient does not know their prescription number or the name of the medication; however, they know that it is used to relieve the symptoms of atrial fibrillation. After reviewing the patient's profile and speaking to the pharmacist, the patient is requesting which medication?

a)

adalimumab

b)

digoxin

c)

glipizide

d)

lisinopril

47.

A pharmacy must register with the CNR prior to dispensing which medication?

a)

ciprofloxacin

b)

clozapine

c)

isotretinoin

d)

thalidomide

48.

Which is the generic name for Cymbalta?

a)

duloxetine

b)

fluoxetine

c)

paroxetine

d)

sertraline

49.

Which of the following medications has been associated with a high incidence of medication errors?

a)

acetaminophen

b)

glyburide

c)

levothyroxine

d)

naproxen

50.

Which of the following is an Internet-accessible database that hospitals and health care systems can use to report medication errors?

a)

ISMP

b)

MEDMARX

c)

MedWatch

d)

NCCMERP

51.

Which is the generic name for Detrol LA?

a)

ibandronate

b)

mirtazapine

c)

ramelteon

d)

tolterodine

52.

Which of the following medications is indicated for seizure disorders?

a)

adapalene

b)

darifenacin

c)

fluconazole

d)

phenytoin

53.

Which of the following proprietary medications is a combination product?

a)

Cozaar

b)

Hyzaar

c)

Plavix

d)

Zetia

54.

Which of the following is a valid DEA number for Dr. Mary Rocket?

a)

AM 4525890

b)

BM 4525891

c)

BR4525892

d)

MR4525893

55.

A 75-year-old female patient presents a prescription for nitrofurantoin to be filled; what should the pharmacy technician do?

a)

Contact the prescriber's office

b)

Fill the prescription

c)

Inform the pharmacist of the situation

d)

Refuse to fill the prescription

56.

A patient calls the pharmacy and informs you that they forgot to take their morning dose of their medication; what do you do?

a)

Inform the pharmacist.

b)

Tell them that it is alright to miss a dose.

c)

Tell them to call their physician.

d)

Tell them to take the medicine immediately.

57.

Which of the following abbreviations should NOT be used in prescriptions?

a)

aa

b)

dc

c)

d/d

d)

emul

58.

Which is the generic name for Diovan?

a)

losartan

b)

pioglitazone

c)

rabeprazole

d)

valsartan

59.

Which is the generic name for Effexor XR?

a)

dutasteride

b)

nebivolol

c)

varenicline

d)

venlafaxine

60.

Which of the following classifications of medications are considered as High-Alert medications in a long-term care facility by the ISMP?

a)

ACE inhibitors

b)

Insulins

c)

NSAIDs

d)

Macrolides

61.

Which type of insulin can be added to an IV solution?

a)

Extended insulin zinc

b)

Isophane insulin

c)

NPH insulin

d)

Regular insulin

62.

What is the correct interpretation of the following prescription: 1 tsp PCN 250 mg PO qid for 10 days?

a)

Take one tablespoon of penicillin 250 mg by mouth four times a day for 10 days.

b)

Take one teaspoon of penicillin 250 mg by mouth every other day for 10 days.

c)

Take one teaspoon of penicillin G 250 mg by mouth four times a day for 10 days.

d)

Take one teaspoon of penicillin 250 mg by mouth four times a day for 10 days.

63.

Which of the following medications should be dispensed to the patient in the manufacturer's container?

a)

Crixivan

b)

Diflucan

c)

Epitol

d)

Singulair

64.

A patient is prescribed Proventil HFA for bronchospasms; which of the following would be appropriate directions?

a)

1 inhalation every 12 hours

b)

1 spray qid

c)

1–2 sprays/nostril bid

d)

2 puffs inhaled q4–6h

65.

All of the following medications must be packaged in a child-resistant container EXCEPT

a)

digoxin

b)

ibuprofen

c)

nitroglycerin

d)

simvastatin

66.

All of the following are required on a prescription label EXCEPT for which one?

a)

Directions for usage

b)

Drug name with strength and quantity

c)

Physician's DEA number

d)

Prescription or serial number

67.

A patient has been diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease; which medication would be an appropriate treatment?

a)

citalopram

b)

esomeprazole

c)

gabapentin

d)

venlafaxine

68.

What type of medication error occurs but did not reach the patient?

a)

No error

b)

Error, no harm

c)

Error, harm

d)

Error, death

69.

The pharmacy technician receives a prescription for amoxicillin 250 mg, and the instructions read 1 cap PO tid. What is the total daily dose?

a)

250 mg

b)

500 mg

c)

750 mg

d)

100 mg

70.

What auxiliary label should be included on a container of medication that has the following instruction: "iv gtt au bid"?

a)

For external use

b)

For the ear

c)

For the eye

d)

Use rectally

71.

All of the following are controlled substances indicated for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder EXCEPT

a)

amphetamine/dextroamphetamine.

b)

atomoxetine.

c)

lisdexamfetamine.

d)

methylphenidate.

72.

How many days will the following prescription last? Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 mL 150 mL 1 tsp PO tid

a)

1

b)

5

c)

10

d)

15

73.

The formation of a precipitate indicates instability of which dosage form?

a)

Cream

b)

Emulsion

c)

Ointment

d)

Solution

74.

Which of the following medications may exacerbate heart failure in an elderly patient according to the Beers criteria?

a)

bupropion

b)

medroxyprogesterone

c)

naproxen

d)

ondansetron

75.

Which of the following antidepressant is classified as an SNRI?

a)

duloxetine

b)

escitalopram

c)

fluoxetine

d)

phenelzine

76.

Which USP chapter addresses compounding nonsterile products?

a)

USP <790>

b)

USP <795>

c)

USP <797>

d)

USP <800>

77.

A patient is being prescribed Hytrin for benign prostate hypertrophy. When should the patient take their medication?

a)

After meals

b)

At bedtime

c)

Before meals

d)

In the morning

78.

All of the following medications may be crushed or chewed EXCEPT

a)

amoxicillin.

b)

ampicillin.

c)

isotretinoin.

d)

trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole.

79.

A patient is experiencing an overdose associated with Coumadin; which medication should be prescribed to treat this situation?

a)

cyanocobalamin

b)

folic acid

c)

phytonadione

d)

thiamine

80.

All of the following pharmacy abbreviations would be used for a regularly scheduled maintenance medication EXCEPT

a)

BID.

b)

QID.

c)

STAT.

d)

TID.

81.

A patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disease but has difficulty swallowing. Which of the following medications is available as a chewable tablet?

a)

carbamazepine

b)

divalproex

c)

lithium

d)

valproic acid

82.

A patient receives the following prescription. How many days will the prescription last? Albuterol HFA 200 inhalations 1 canister 2 puffs inhaled q 6h

a)

15 days

b)

20 days

c)

25 days

d)

30 days

83.

You have received a prescription for amoxicillin 500 mg PO. The patient is unable to chew or swallow capsules or tablets. The physician has approved the dispensing of amoxicillin suspension. How many milliliters should be given in each dose if the concentration is 125 mg/5 mL?

a)

5 mL

b)

10 mL

c)

15 mL

d)

20 mL

84.

What is the generic name for Glucophage?

a)

glimepiride

b)

glipizide

c)

glyburide

d)

metformin

85.

Cozaar and Zocor are examples of

a)

confused drug names.

b)

medications using tall man lettering.

c)

medications that may be therapeutically substituted.

d)

nonproprietary drugs.

86.

Interpret the following prescription. Which of the following is appropriate for this prescription? prochlorperazine 25 mg supp #12 1 supp pr q 6-8 h prn N&V

a)

Insert one suppository per every 6-8 hours as needed for nausea and vomiting.

b)

Insert one suppository every 6-8 hour for nausea and vomiting.

c)

Insert one suppository every 6-8 hours as needed for N&V.

d)

Insert one suppository rectally every 6-8 hours as needed for nausea and vomiting.

87.

Which of the following does not need to be dispensed in a child-resistant container?

a)

amoxicillin

b)

ethinyl estradiol/norethindrone

c)

metformin

d)

prednisone

88.

Which of the following is classified as a bowel evacuant?

a)

docusate sodium

b)

lactulose

c)

methylcellulose

d)

polyethylene glycol/electrolytes

89.

Which of the following agents is used to increase the viscosity of a suspension?

a)

Emulsifier

b)

Flocculating agent

c)

Mucilage

d)

Thickening agent

90.

Which of the following drugs requires a medication guide to be given to the patient every time the prescription is dispensed?

a)

Alendronate

b)

Ampicillin

c)

Cephalexin

d)

Normal saline

91.

A patient has been prescribed Humalog insulin. Which route of administration should be used?

a)

ID

b)

IM

c)

PO

d)

SC

92.

Which medication should have the auxiliary label "This drug may impair the ability to operate a car or machinery" affixed to the prescription bottle?

a)

azithromycin

b)

metformin

c)

naproxen

d)

spironolactone

93.

Which statement is true about pharmaceutical equivalent drugs?

a)

Chemically different but expected to produce the same therapeutic outcome and toxicity

b)

Chemically identical in strength, concentration, dosage form, and route of administration

c)

Contain different active ingredients

d)

Priced exactly the same as brand name drugs

94.

predniSONE and prednisoLONE are examples of which pharmacy safety practice?

a)

Drugs that should not be crushed

b)

Drugs using tall man lettering

c)

High-alert medications

d)

Proprietary drug names

95.

What is the duration of action for Humulin N insulin?

a)

1 to 4 hours

b)

6 to 10 hours

c)

10 to 16 hours

d)

20 to 24 hours

96.

A patient has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which medication would be prescribed for this condition?

a)

amitriptyline

b)

escitalopram

c)

paroxetine

d)

quetiapine fumarate

97.

Which auxiliary label would be appropriate for an inhaled corticosteroid medication?

a)

Discard after 14 days use

b)

May cause drowsiness

c)

Refrigerate

d)

Shake well

98.

A patient’s blood cholesterol level is 240 mg/mL240\,\text{mg/mL} . Which medication would be appropriate to dispense?

a)

amlodipine

b)

bupropion

c)

esomeprazole

d)

simvastatin

99.

A prescription for penicillin 500 mg tablets was dispensed. Which of the following should be used to clean the pill tray afterward?

a)

70% isopropyl alcohol

b)

90% isopropyl alcohol

c)

Hydrogen peroxide

d)

Water

100.

A pregnant patient presents a prescription for isotretinoin to be filled. What should the pharmacy technician do?

a)

Alert the pharmacist of the situation

b)

Contact the prescriber to determine awareness of the pregnancy

c)

Fill the prescription

d)

Return the prescription to the patient

101.

Which of the following drugs must be placed in a child-resistant container?

a)

Erythromycin ethylsuccinate tablets in packages not containing more than 16 g

b)

Mebendazole tablets

c)

Rosiglitazone tablets

d)

Sodium fluoride tablets

102.

A prescription reads cyclobenzaprine 10 mg, "i PO tid." What is the total daily dose?

a)

10 mg

b)

20 mg

c)

30 mg

d)

40 mg

103.

How often is a biennial inventory for controlled substances taken in a pharmacy?

a)

Monthly

b)

Twice per year

c)

Yearly

d)

Every 2 years

104.

Which classification of antidepressants requires a washout period before switching to another antidepressant?

a)

Lithium

b)

MAOIs

c)

SSRIs

d)

TCAs

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