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US History S1 Final Review

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the belief in the superiority and interests of one's own nation, often at the expense of other nations?

a)

Race

b)

Nationalism

c)

Popular sovereignty

d)

Human rights

2.

What term refers to a group of people who share a common cultural background or ancestry?

a)

Ethnicity

b)

Race

c)

Freedom

d)

Identity

3.

Which historical period emphasized reason, science, and individual rights, influencing the founding of the United States?

a)

Enlightenment

b)

Great Awakening

c)

The Revolution

d)

Gilded Age

4.

What principle states that the authority of a government comes from the people?

a)

Federalism

b)

Popular sovereignty

c)

Rule of law

d)

Nationalism

5.

What does "consent of the governed" mean in the context of democracy?

a)

The government can act without approval

b)

The people give permission to be governed

c)

Only the president has power

d)

Laws are made by judges

6.

How does federalism divide power in the United States?

a)

Between the president and Congress

b)

Between national and state governments

c)

Between citizens and the military

d)

Between judges and lawmakers

7.

Which of the following is a basic tenet of democracy?

a)

Rule by a single leader

b)

Majority rule with respect for minority rights

c)

Hereditary monarchy

d)

Government by divine right

8.

What is the term for a government in which the people elect representatives to make decisions on their behalf?

a)

Direct democracy

b)

Representative democracy

c)

Oligarchy

d)

Theocracy

9.

Which of the following is NOT a tenet of democracy?

a)

Free and fair elections

b)

Equal protection under the law

c)

Censorship of the press

d)

Protection of individual rights

10.

What is the main function of checks and balances in a democracy?

a)

To allow one branch to dominate the others

b)

To prevent any one branch from becoming too powerful

c)

To eliminate the legislative branch

d)

To increase the power of the executive branch

11.

Suffrage

a)

Right to Vote

b)

Right to Assemble

c)

Right to suffer

d)

Right to Leave

12.

Which document begins with the phrase "We the People of the United States..."?

a)

The Declaration of Independence

b)

The US Constitution

c)

The Bill of Rights

d)

The Articles of Confederation

13.

Which amendment guarantees freedom of speech, religion, press, assembly, and petition?

a)

First Amendment

b)

Second Amendment

c)

Fifth Amendment

d)

Tenth Amendment

14.

Which amendment abolished slavery in the United States?

a)

10th Amendment

b)

13th Amendment

c)

15th Amendment

d)

19th Amendment

15.

Which branch of government is responsible for interpreting the Constitution?

a)

Executive

b)

Legislative

c)

Judicial

d)

Administrative

16.

How does the system of checks and balances work under the US Constitution?

a)

Each branch of government can limit the powers of the other branches

b)

The President controls all branches

c)

Congress can override the Bill of Rights

d)

The Supreme Court makes all laws

17.

What was the main argument made by Federalists in favor of the Constitution?

a)

It would create a weak central government

b)

It would protect the rights of states over the federal government

c)

It would provide stability and unity through a strong central government

d)

It would abolish the presidency

18.

Which scenario best illustrates the protection provided by the Fourth Amendment?

a)

A person is allowed to speak freely at a protest

b)

A person’s home cannot be searched without a warrant

c)

A person is given a trial by jury

d)

A person is allowed to own a firearm

19.

How did the Federalist and Anti-Federalist views differ regarding the balance of power between the national and state governments?

a)

Federalists wanted more power for the states; Anti-Federalists wanted more power for the national government

b)

Federalists wanted a strong national government; Anti-Federalists wanted stronger state governments

c)

Both wanted equal power for states and the national government

d)

Neither supported a national government

20.

What is the process by which a foreign-born person becomes a citizen of the United States called?

a)

Urbanization

b)

Naturalization

c)

Assimilation

d)

Americanization

21.

Which term refers to the process of adopting the culture and customs of another group, often the dominant one?

a)

Assimilation

b)

Agrarian

c)

Steerage

d)

Muckraker

22.

What is the term for a society or economy based on farming?

a)

Agrarian

b)

Urbanization

c)

Industrialization

d)

Manufacturing

23.

What is the movement of people from rural areas to cities called?

a)

Urbanization

b)

Naturalization

c)

Mass production

d)

Muckraker

24.

What economic policy advocates minimal government interference in business?

a)

Laissez-faire

b)

Americanization

c)

Tenement

d)

Civics

25.

What is the term for a crowded, often run-down apartment building in a city?

a)

Tenement

b)

Steerage

c)

Settlement house

d)

Manufacturing

26.

Who was the journalist and photographer known for exposing the living conditions of the urban poor in "How the Other Half Lives"?

a)

Jacob Riis

b)

Andrew Carnegie

c)

Jane Addams

d)

Upton Sinclair

27.

Which of the following best describes the goal of Americanization programs in the early 20th century?

a)

To help immigrants adopt American customs and language

b)

To encourage immigrants to return to their home countries

c)

To promote laissez-faire economics

d)

To build new infrastructure

28.

Which of the following best explains the difference between old immigrants and new immigrants in the late 19th century?

a)

Old immigrants came from Northern and Western Europe, while new immigrants came from Southern and Eastern Europe

b)

Old immigrants were mostly from Asia, while new immigrants were from Africa

c)

Old immigrants arrived after 1920, while new immigrants arrived before 1800

d)

Old immigrants were only women, while new immigrants were only men

29.

The main immigration processing station in San Francisco was called

a)

Ellis Island

b)

Angel Island

c)

Tammany Hall

d)

Hull House

30.

What was the main goal of the "Know Nothing" Party in the mid-1800s?

a)

To promote women's suffrage

b)

To oppose immigration and Catholic influence

c)

To support the abolition of slavery

d)

To encourage westward expansion

31.

Which law was the first significant federal legislation to restrict immigration to the United States?

a)

Immigration Act of 1924

b)

Chinese Exclusion Act of 1882

c)

National Origins Act

d)

Alien and Sedition Acts

32.

Which organization experienced a resurgence in the 1920s and targeted not only African Americans but also immigrants, Catholics, and Jews?

a)

The American Federation of Labor

b)

The second Ku Klux Klan

c)

The Populist Party

d)

The Progressive Party

33.

Which ideology argued that certain races were superior to others and justified discrimination based on "survival of the fittest"?

a)

Social Darwinism

b)

Nativism

c)

Anarchism

d)

Populism

34.

How did the Immigration Act of 1924 change the demographic makeup of immigrants to the United States?

a)

It increased immigration from Asia

b)

It favored immigrants from Northern and Western Europe

c)

It allowed unlimited immigration from all countries

d)

It banned all immigration

35.

Which of the following best explains the relationship between social Darwinism and immigration policy in the early 20th century?

a)

Social Darwinism encouraged open borders

b)

Social Darwinism was used to justify restricting immigration from certain groups

c)

Social Darwinism promoted equal treatment for all immigrants

d)

Social Darwinism had no impact on immigration policy

36.

A historian is analyzing the impact of the Immigration Act of 1924. Which evidence would best support the claim that the act was influenced by nativist attitudes?

a)

The act increased quotas for Asian immigrants

b)

The act set low quotas for Southern and Eastern European countries

c)

The act promoted multiculturalism

d)

The act encouraged religious tolerance

37.

What is the term for a crowded, often run-down apartment building in a city?

a)

Tenement

b)

Steerage

c)

Settlement house

d)

Manufacturing

38.

What does DACA stand for?

a)

Deferred Action for Criminal Aliens

b)

Deferred Action for Citizenship Application

c)

Deferred Action for Child Asylum

d)

Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals

39.

Which legislation ended the system of immigration quotas based on national origin?

a)

Immigration Act of 1924

b)

Immigration and Nationality Act of 1965

c)

Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986

d)

Immigration Act of 1990

40.

What is the main focus of the Refugee Act of 1980?

a)

To expedite the removal of undocumented immigrants

b)

To enforce employer sanctions

c)

To increase the number of H-1B visas

d)

To provide a permanent and systematic procedure for the admission of refugees

41.

Which act is known for introducing employer sanctions?

a)

Immigration Reform & Control Act (1986)

b)

Immigration and Nationality Act of 1952

c)

Immigration Act of 1990

d)

Homeland Security Act (2002)

42.

Which act was passed in response to the 9/11 attacks to reorganize U.S. security agencies?

a)

Immigration Act of 1990

b)

Immigration Reform & Control Act (1986)

c)

Refugee Act of 1980

d)

Homeland Security Act (2002)

43.

Which U.S. government agency is responsible for processing applications for asylum?

a)

U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS)

b)

Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE)

c)

Department of State

d)

Customs and Border Protection (CBP)

44.

Which term refers to the belief that the United States was destined to expand across the North American continent?

a)

Dawes Act

b)

Manifest Destiny

c)

Sunbelt

d)

Sharecropping

45.

What was the forced relocation of Native Americans from their ancestral lands to designated areas west of the Mississippi River called?

a)

The Long Walk

b)

Trail of Tears

c)

Indian Relocation Act

d)

Red Summer

46.

What term describes the migration of African Americans from the rural South to urban areas in the North during the early 20th century?

a)

The Great Migration

b)

The Long Walk

c)

Suburbanization

d)

Okies

47.

Which movement celebrated African American culture, art, and literature in the 1920s?

a)

The Harlem Renaissance

b)

Red Summer

c)

Urban Ghettos

d)

Jim Crow

48.

How did Jim Crow laws institutionalize discrimination in the United States?

a)

By promoting Native American self-government

b)

By enforcing racial segregation in public facilities

c)

By granting citizenship to all Americans

d)

By encouraging suburbanization

49.

Which term refers to the period of rapid industrial growth and ostentatious wealth in the late 19th century United States?

a)

The Jazz Age

b)

The Gilded Age

c)

The Roaring 20s

d)

The Great Depression

50.

What is the economic system in which private individuals own and control property in accordance with their interests?

a)

Socialism

b)

Capitalism

c)

Communism

d)

Feudalism

51.

Which term describes a business structure where one company controls an entire market or industry?

a)

Merger

b)

Monopoly

c)

Trust

d)

Corporation

52.

What is the main difference between blue-collar and white-collar workers?

a)

Blue-collar workers are managers; white-collar workers are laborers

b)

Blue-collar workers perform manual labor; white-collar workers perform office or professional work

c)

Blue-collar workers work in agriculture; white-collar workers work in factories

d)

Blue-collar workers are self-employed; white-collar workers are salaried

53.

What is the main characteristic of the "Roaring 20s" in American history?

a)

Economic depression and high unemployment

b)

Economic prosperity and cultural change

c)

The rise of feudalism

d)

The end of industrialization

54.

Who was the author of "The Jungle," a novel that exposed unsanitary conditions in the meatpacking industry?

a)

Upton Sinclair

b)

Alice Hamilton

c)

Florence Kelley

d)

Samuel Gompers

55.

What is a "scab" in the context of labor strikes?

a)

A worker who replaces a striking worker

b)

A union leader

c)

A factory owner

d)

A government inspector

56.

How did the Pullman Strike influence labor relations in the United States?

a)

It led to increased federal intervention in labor disputes

b)

It ended all labor unions

c)

It resulted in higher tariffs

d)

It banned collective bargaining

57.

Which term refers to government programs designed to provide financial assistance to individuals in need?

a)

Social Safety Net

b)

Monetary Policy

c)

Trust Busting

d)

Subprime Lending

58.

What was the period of severe economic downturn in the 1930s called?

a)

The Great Society

b)

The New Deal

c)

The Great Depression

d)

Glass-Steagall

59.

What is the name of the federal program that provides health insurance to people aged 65 and older?

a)

Medicaid

b)

Medicare

c)

SNAP

d)

Head Start

60.

Which government agency is responsible for regulating the U.S. money supply and interest rates?

a)

Federal Reserve

b)

National Labor Relations Board

c)

Works Progress Administration

d)

Block Grants

61.

Which program was created during the New Deal to provide jobs for millions of unemployed Americans?

a)

Works Progress Administration

b)

Head Start

c)

SNAP

d)

Medicare

62.

How did the New Deal aim to address unemployment during the Great Depression?

a)

By creating job programs and public works projects

b)

By increasing interest rates

c)

By reducing taxes on capital gains

d)

By separating commercial and investment banking

63.
1. The Smoot-Hawley Tariff Act of 1930 made the Great Depression worse because it:
a)
Increased the amount of money spent on US military defense.
b)
Caused other nations to raise their own taxes on US goods.
c)
Eliminated all income taxes for most American citizens.
d)
Allowed new groups of immigrants into the country.
64.
2. The main goal of the Marshall Plan after World War II was to help European countries:
a)
Establish new military alliances to fight the Soviet Union.
b)
Develop new types of energy and power resources.
c)
Buy American-made products to rebuild their economies.
d)
Give up their remaining colonies in Africa and Asia.
65.
4. Which early US law primarily aimed to raise money for the federal government instead of trying to protect US factories?
a)
The Tariff of Abominations passed in the year 1828.
b)
The McKinley Tariff passed in the year 1890.
c)
The Tariff Act passed in the year 1789.
d)
The Fordney-McCumber Act passed in 1922.
66.
6. A main concern about NAFTA (1994) was that it would cause the US to:
a)
Lose manufacturing jobs to low-wage workers in Mexico.
b)
Have a major decrease in the price of oil and gas.
c)
Stop trading completely with the nation of Canada.
d)
Build new factories in the northern United States.
67.
10. What invention greatly sped up global trade and shipping after the 1950s?
a)
The widespread use of the new steam-powered train engine.
b)
The standardized steel shipping container.
c)
The first successful commercial air flights.
d)
The invention of the telegraph cable system.
68.
12. Dollar Diplomacy, used by President Taft, meant the US would use its:
a)
Strong army and navy to solve all foreign policy issues.
b)
Business investments and money to influence foreign nations.
c)
New system of mandatory isolation from foreign affairs.
d)
United Nations vote to block all European actions.
69.
15. The Military-Industrial Complex (MIC), as defined by Eisenhower, describes the close link between:
a)
The United Nations and the World Trade Organization.
b)
Labor unions and factory owners in the Midwest.
c)
Defense contractors and government military spending.
d)
The US dollar and the price of gold overseas.
70.
17. The Dawes Plan (1924) helped to manage the cycle of:
a)
German reparations and Allied debts to the US banks.
b)
US military spending during World War I.
c)
Global oil production and energy prices.
d)
The US purchase of land for the Panama Canal.
71.
24. Which Gilded Age law raised protective tariffs to one of the highest levels in US history?
a)
The McKinley Tariff of 1890
b)
The Underwood Tariff of 1913
c)
The Walker Tariff of 1846
d)
The Revenue Act of 1862
72.
26. The World Trade Organization (WTO), founded in 1995, is primarily known for its power to:
a)
Set global prices for all major agricultural goods.
b)
Enforce trade rules and settle disputes between nations.
c)
Prevent all member nations from raising trade tariffs.
d)
Manage the global production of computer chips.
73.

What is the name of the 1960 plan that shaped California’s public higher education system?

a)

The Master Plan

b)

The Central Valley Project

c)

The Clean Air Act

d)

The Superfund

74.

Which grant is awarded based on financial need and is funded by the federal government?

a)

Cal Grant

b)

Pell Grant

c)

GI Bill

d)

Venture Capital

75.

What does FAFSA stand for?

a)

Federal Application for Student Aid

b)

Free Application for Federal Student Aid

c)

Federal Aid for Students and Families

d)

Financial Assistance for Students Act

76.

Which act was created to address hazardous waste sites and fund their cleanup?

a)

Clean Air Act

b)

Superfund

c)

Cal Grant

d)

GI Bill

77.

Which New Deal program was established as a multi-state federal corporation for integrated regional development, flood control, and power?

a)

Central Valley Project (CVP)

b)

Bonneville Dam

c)

Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA)

d)

Silicon Valley

78.

According to Bernard Bailyn, what did the Declaration of Independence represent for the colonists?

a)

Their deepest fears and beliefs

b)

A list of trade agreements

c)

A peace treaty with England

d)

A guide to farming techniques

79.

Which acts did the colonists see as evidence of a conspiracy against their liberty?

a)

The Stamp Act and the Coercive Acts

b)

The Navigation Acts and the Sugar Act

c)

The Tea Act and the Quartering Act

d)

The Alien and Sedition Acts

80.

What was the main strategy used in the Declaration of Independence to unite people, according to Zinn?

a)

Using language that was inspiring to all classes and listing grievances against the British.

b)

Promising land to all colonists.

c)

Offering tax breaks to the wealthy.

d)

Encouraging loyalty to the British crown.