WorksheetsMusculoskeletal Injury Quiz EMT
Total questions: 15
Worksheet time: 8mins
A 34-year-old male fell while repairing his roof. His left leg is shortened, rotated outward, and extremely painful to touch. Distal pulse is weak but present. What type of injury is MOST likely?
Sprain
Dislocation
Open fracture
Closed fracture
A patient’s forearm is crushed between two steel beams. Thirty minutes later, he complains of severe, worsening pain, numbness in his hand, and pain that increases dramatically with passive stretching of the fingers. You should suspect:
Tendon rupture
Compartment syndrome
Radial nerve injury
Arterial occlusion
A 22-year-old mountain biker fell on a trail. A piece of bone is visible through a laceration on the lower leg. Bleeding is moderate. This injury is best described as a(n):
Simple fracture
Closed fracture
Greenstick fracture
Open fracture
A 19-year-old basketball player felt a “pop” in his shoulder after a fall. He holds the arm against his body, and the shoulder looks squared-off. Distal pulse and motor function are intact. What injury should you suspect?
Clavicle fracture
Shoulder dislocation
AC joint separation
Rotator cuff tear
A patient twisted his ankle stepping off a curb. The joint is swollen and painful, but he can still bear minimal weight. X-ray later shows no bone injury. This is most consistent with a:
Strain
Sprain
Subluxation
Stress fracture
A 67-year-old woman tripped and fell onto her hip. She reports intense pelvic pain and cannot stand. When you gently palpate the pelvis, she screams and says the pain radiates to her back. What is the BEST action?
Apply a pelvic binder
Perform repeated pelvic compression
Log roll to examine for bruising
Splint each leg individually
A 21-year-old male has a midshaft femur deformity with no other trauma. Distal pulse is present, and there is severe pain but no pelvic involvement. The MOST appropriate splint is a:
Rigid board splint
Traction splint
Long spine board
Sling and swathe
A patient has a painful, angulated femur but also has pelvic instability and shortened leg rotation. Why is a traction splint contraindicated?
Traction worsens pain
It increases swelling
It can worsen pelvic injury
It cannot be applied to angulated fractures
Before splinting an angulated tibia-fibula fracture, your first step should be to:
Apply the splint
Administer pain medications
Check motor, sensory, and circulation
Straighten the leg manually
A patient has an angulated arm fracture with no distal pulse. What is the correct management?
Apply the splint in the position found
Attempt gentle realignment once
Straighten forcefully until a pulse returns
Transport immediately without splinting
During a fall assessment, a patient has point tenderness, swelling, crepitus, and inability to use the limb. These signs most strongly indicate a:
Nerve contusion
Ligament tear
Bone fracture
Muscle spasm
A cyclist falls onto an outstretched hand. The patient complains of shoulder pain. You observe swelling over the mid-clavicle and the patient supports the arm against the chest. Which injury is MOST likely?
Shoulder dislocation
Humerus fracture
Clavicle fracture
Rotator cuff injury
A 78-year-old female slipped in her kitchen. Her right leg is shortened and externally rotated. She complains of severe hip pain and cannot move the leg. The signs indicate a fracture of the:
Pelvis
Femoral head
Tibia-fibula
Sacrum
A patient has a suspected fractured radius. He also has a weak radial pulse and obvious deformity. What is the BEST immobilization approach?
Splint the elbow only
Immobilize the joint above and below
Only bandage the wrist
Use a traction splint
A patient with a painful, swollen ankle after misstepping off a ladder has intact pulses and no deformity. Appropriate initial care includes:
RICE (rest, ice, compression, elevation)
Immediate traction
Manual reduction
Full-body immobilization
