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Fall 2025 VTEC 1023 Review

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What organization is responsible for accreditation of veterinary technology programs in the United States?

a)

AVMA

b)

State veterinary medical board

c)

NAVTA

d)

State veterinary medical association

2.

Which of the following team members are found in a corporate veterinary practice and not in a small animal private practice?

a)

Kennel assistants

b)

Veterinary technicians

c)

Hospital administrators

d)

Students

3.

While training a new kennel assistant, which of the following duties would you not include?

a)

Identifying emergency situations with patients

b)

Establish positive client relations

c)

Be familiar with cleaning products and procedures

d)

Maintain a clean environment for patients

4.

A veterinary assistants duty includes all of the following except:

a)

Greeting clients upon arrival

b)

Patient restraint

c)

Laboratory skills

d)

Patient care

5.

Which of the following best describes the skills needed to be a good animal groomer?

a)

Understand nutrition and proper diet allocations for each animal species.

b)

Calculate dosage of drugs and develop safety protocols.

c)

Educate clients on animal care, interpret medical records, and maintain an effective appointment management system.

d)

Have patience and flexibility, exceptional customer service skills, and awareness of skin and zoonotic diseases.

6.

A receptionist is at the front line of a veterinary hospital, which means this team member is most likely to be responsible for?

a)

Understanding and teaching the significance of disease

b)

Manage accounts receivable and collections

c)

Greet clients and interpret medical records

d)

Develop client coping strategies

7.

The mission of a hospital is best defined as the___________________.

a)

The purpose of the hospital

b)

The desired future of the practice

c)

The guiding principles of the practice

8.

The values of a veterinary hospital are best defined as the _______________.

a)

purpose of the hospital

b)

desired future of the practice

c)

guiding principles of the hospital

9.

The vision of the veterinary hospital is best defined as the _____________.

a)

Guiding principles of the hospital

b)

Desired future of the practice

c)

Purpose of the hospital

10.

Traits of an individual with a high emotional intelligence include someone that is:

a)

Self-aware

b)

Self-controlled

c)

Self-motivated

d)

All listed answer options

11.

Positive practice culture promotes all of the following except:

a)

Open communication

b)

Independence

c)

Increased turnover rates

d)

Accountability

12.

Which of the following is an outcome of a “WOW” service experience?

a)

An increase in regular check-up appointments

b)

A more thorough understanding of pet care

c)

Increased client compliance

d)

Increased payments made at the time of service

13.

The purpose of the FLSA: Fair Labor and Standards Act is to:

a)

Prohibits the discrimination of individuals enrolled in the military

b)

Prevent discrimination based on race, color, gender, religion, and national origin

c)

Set minimum wage and overtime regulations

14.

_____________ provides a quick reference resource when personnel issues arise.

a)

Procedural manual

b)

Job description

c)

Employee manual

15.

Work ethic is an example of ________ skills.

a)

Soft

b)

Hard

16.

The impact that caring for others has on you is known as:

a)

Stress

b)

Compassion fatigue

c)

Burnout

17.

______ refers to a mental or emotional state, wherein a person encounters tension due to adverse conditions.

a)

Stress

b)

Compassion fatigue

c)

Burnout

18.

____________ is characterized by a state of emotional, mental, and physical exhaustion that is caused by excessive and prolonged stress.

a)

Stress

b)

Compassion fatigue

c)

Burnout

19.

What does STS stand for?

a)

Secondary tranquilizing stress

b)

Secondary traumatic syndrome

c)

Secondary traumatic stress

20.

What are the three ‘R’s’ of burnout?

a)

Recognize, recover, resume

b)

Recognize, recover, renew

c)

Recognize, reverse, resilience

d)

Recognize, remove, recover

21.

The veterinary Code of Ethics outlines _______________ within the industry.

a)

The standard of behavior

b)

The standard of care

22.

Which type of ethics do the following documents uphold: the American Veterinary Medical Association’s Principles of Veterinary Medical Ethics, the Veterinary Hospital Managers Association’s Code of Ethics, and the National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America’s Code of Ethics?

a)

Social

b)

Personal

c)

Professional

23.

__________ is defined as the performance of an act that a reasonable person under the same circumstance would not perform.

a)

Negligence

b)

Malpractice

24.

Any form of negligence is defined as ________.

a)

Ethical violation

b)

Malpractice

c)

Criminal violation

25.

The AVMA Code of Ethics requires all veterinary hospitals to provide what type of after hours services?

a)

Boarding services

b)

Hospitalization services

c)

Emergency services

26.

Which of the following is one of the most common violations presented to the board of veterinary medicine?

a)

Improper record keeping

b)

Disrespect to a client

c)

Unexpected death of a pet

d)

Lack of communication

27.

A consent form that makes the owner aware of risks, benefits, and a prognosis of potential treatment; is which type of consent?

a)

Uninformed consent

b)

Veterinary consent

c)

Informed consent

28.

Ethical violations are enforced by which of the following:

a)

Law enforcement

b)

AVMA

c)

State board of veterinary medicine

29.

Medical records are owned by the _____________.

a)

Veterinarian

b)

Veterinary practice

c)

Client/pet owner

30.

Lack of communication describes a common complaint to the _________________.

a)

American Veterinary Medical Association

b)

State Board of Veterinary Medicine

c)

National Association of Veterinary technicians of America

31.

When is it most appropriate for a veterinary team member to engage in career-planning exercises?

a)

While in school

b)

After graduation

c)

During the job search

d)

After 5 years on the job

e)

Ongoing

32.

Skills that have been gathered through various jobs and experiences are known as:

a)

Transferable skills

b)

Personal skills

c)

A skill surveys

d)

Educational

33.

Which of the following is most likely to help with client traffic flow, reduce staff tension, and maximize productivity?

a)

Accounting software

b)

Internal marketing campaign

c)

Client newsletter

d)

Appointment management system

e)

Employee manual

34.

Which of the following best describes one of the key reasons for staggering client appointments in a multi-veterinarian clinical practice?

a)

To prevent overwhelming each individual technician with patients

b)

To avoid overwhelming each individual doctor with patients

c)

To alleviate crowding at the front desk

d)

Appointments do not need to be staggered

35.

When a practice manager is setting up a template in a new appointment management system, which of the following variables should be put in place first?

a)

Usual surgical hours

b)

Doctors’ and technicians’ vacation days

c)

Hours the practice is open

36.

A team member is scheduling an appointment for a client. The team member, using the practice’s appointment management software, types into the appointment slot the client’s name and phone number as well as the patient’s name. Which of the following additional information is most appropriate to include?

a)

Reason for the patient’s visit

b)

Date of the patient’s last visit

c)

How long the client has been coming to the clinic

d)

Clients on-time history

37.

If a client comes into the clinic without an appointment during a busy time day, what should the receptionist offer the client:

a)

Drop the patient off

b)

Come back the next day

c)

to have a seat in the waiting room

38.

Using an appointment management system allows the clinic to be ____________. This allows the clinic to determine needs and wants before the client walks in the door.

a)

Proactive

b)

Reactive

39.

A client arrives at the clinic with a cat 2 days earlier than the scheduled appointed time for a routine wellness examination. The client claims this is the correct scheduled appointment, but the practice’s appointment management software states otherwise. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step that the receptionist should take?

a)

Gently tell the client that she is mistaken and ask if she can wait until the scheduled appointment time 2 days from now

b)

Check the client’s appointment card to ensure that the staff member did not write the wrong date

c)

Make every attempt to get the client in to see the veterinarian

d)

Ask the next client if he minds if this client goes in to see the veterinarian before he does

40.

What does the acronym SWOT stand for?

a)

Service with outstanding treatment

b)

Service, website, appearance, transactions

c)

Strengths, weakness, opportunities, and threats

41.

How often should a practice’s marketing strategy be reanalyzed to ensure it is accomplished the practice owner’s goals?

a)

Monthly

b)

Annually

c)

Semiannually

42.

Which of the following best describes the goal of internal marketing?

a)

To retain current clients

b)

To attract new clients

43.

Marketing targeting individuals with conditions such as allergies or obesity is best defined as ________________.

a)

Direct marketing

b)

Targeted marketing

44.

Designing a logo and a few accompanying descriptive words about a veterinary practice and then using the logo and text on letterhead, advertisements, signage, and other materials constitutes which of the following types of marketing?

a)

Internal marketing

b)

External marketing

c)

Direct marketing

d)

Targeted marketing

45.

Which of the following best describes a product distributor?

a)

A vendor who sells products made by several manufactures

b)

A representative of a product manufacturer

c)

A company that is paid to transport products to customers

d)

A company that is paid to give free samples of products to customers

46.

The top 20% of inventory items within a veterinary practice should turn ______ times per year.

a)

10

b)

4

c)

12

d)

24

47.

Which of the following could be a problem when using a just-in-time product or supply reordering method?

a)

Vendors’ backlogs

b)

Product expiration

c)

High holding costs

d)

Available shelf space

48.

The point a stock level reaches when it is time to order is defined as the:

a)

Order time

b)

Reorder point

c)

Lead time

d)

Shelf life

49.

Items such as surgical tables, exam tables, and laboratory equipment is defined as:

a)

Capital inventory

b)

Inventory

c)

Investments

d)

Capital overhead

50.

Which of the following are federally required for all chemical products that are sold or used within a veterinary practice?

a)

Material Safety Data Sheets/ Safety Data Sheet

b)

Product Pricing Data Sheets

c)

Chemical Dispensing Sheet

d)

Chemical Use and Disposal Statements

51.

Which of the following best describes controlled substances?

a)

Drugs with high abuse potential

b)

Substances manufactured under government regulations

c)

Substances sold by regulated distributors

d)

Drugs that are addictive

52.

Which controlled substance schedule has the highest rate of abuse?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule V

d)

Schedule VI

53.

After completing an annual controlled substance physical inventory, a manager checks the results against the clinic’s drug log book. The manager finds some controlled substance is unaccounted for and must report it to the proper authorities if the discrepancy equals or is more than which of the following percentages?

a)

3%

b)

1%

c)

1.5%

d)

2%

54.

A new veterinary practice owner must establish a controlled substance log book. The log book should include the initials of the person dispensing the drug, the bottle number, date/time, and the client’s and patient’s names. Which of the following also should be included?

a)

The name of the drug distributor

b)

Manufacturer of the drug

c)

Cost of the drug

d)

Initial amount of the drug and the amount used

e)

Diagnosis of the animal to which the drug is being administered and the initials of the veterinarian who is prescribing it

55.

Which controlled substance schedule has no DEA limits for dispensing?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

e)

Schedule V

56.

A dog is brought into the hospital prior to surgery to repair a laceration. The client is apprised of the estimated charges for the procedure and follow-up care and is told that charges may vary depending on the rise of unforeseen circumstances. During surgery, the veterinarian encounters an unexpected complication requiring an additional procedure, which is completed while the dog is still on the surgical table. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the practice team to take?

a)

Do not call the client or charge a fee to treat the complication because the initial estimate did not include them

b)

Call the client immediately to report the complication, but do not charge an extra fee for treating the dog

c)

Call the client immediately to report the complication and extra charge to treat it

d)

Do not call the client, but explain the extra charge when the dog is released

57.

Which of the following is the most appropriate way for a practice owner to gauge how satisfied clients are with the services being offered by the practice?

a)

Look at client retention rates from year to year

b)

Administer a client survey

c)

Gather anecdotal information about client feedback from team members

d)

Form a focus group of a select group of clients

58.

When utilizing the SMART acronym during the implementation phase of strategic planning, what does the “S” represent?

a)

Strength

b)

Specific

c)

Science

d)

Success

59.

Mission, vision, and values should be developed during which phase of the business life cycle?

a)

Introductory

b)

Growth

c)

Maturity

d)

Decline

60.

An OSHA inspection can be postponed by ______ hours, if the safety manager is not present at the time of the inspection.

a)

72 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

48 hours

d)

12 hours

61.

Hearing protection should be provided for all employees is the noise level exceeds ______ db.

a)

80

b)

75

c)

85

d)

40

62.

Which of the following agencies creates policy concerning the safe use and disposal of chemicals used in a veterinary practice?

a)

County health commissioner

b)

Occupational safety and health administration

c)

Food and drug administration

d)

State department of agriculture

e)

State veterinary board

63.

Which of the following has passed a comprehensive examination that tests knowledge of accounting and tax principles, auditing standards, and business law?

a)

Bookkeeper

b)

Accountant

c)

Certified Public Accountant

d)

Head Receptionist

e)

Public accountant

64.

Which of the following is most likely to be responsible for accounts payable, accounts receivable, and payroll?

a)

Accountant

b)

Bookkeeper

c)

Veterinarian

65.

Which of the following are most likely to be considered helpful planning tools that can ensure a practice’s success?

a)

Profit statements

b)

Liability reports

c)

Budgets

d)

Expense reports

e)

Accounts receivable

66.

Medical supplies and medications are examples of which type of cost for the veterinary practice?

a)

Fixed

b)

Variable

c)

Direct

d)

Indirect

67.

Accounts receivable should not exceed _____ of the annual budget.

a)

5%

b)

1%

c)

2%

68.

Use of a collection agency can help a clinic to collect a client’s outstanding balance. For this service, the agency collects a percentage of the client’s outstanding balance. What percentage does the collection agency typically collect?

a)

60%-75%

b)

10%-20%

c)

5%-15%

d)

40%-60%

69.

Which of the following best describes the annual limit as it pertains to pet health insurance?

a)

The maximum amount the insurance company will pay each time a new incident occurs

b)

The maximum amount the insurance company pays for a condition or illness during the policy term

c)

The maximum amount the insurance company pays over the lifetime of the pet

d)

The maximum amount the insurance will pay for a specific condition

70.

Payment plan that allows a client to divide the cost of preventive care into small monthly payments is best known as a(n) _______________.

a)

Insurance plan

b)

Payment plan

c)

Wellness plan

71.

A client pays a set amount each month for a pet health insurance policy. Which of the following is the name of this monthly payment?

a)

Premium

b)

Per-incident limit

c)

Lifetime limit

d)

Deductible