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Bone Healing Quiz

Total questions: 20

Worksheet time: 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Primary bone healing occurs when:

a)

There is micromotion at the fracture site

b)

Rigid internal fixation eliminates movement

c)

Fracture is treated conservatively

d)

A large callus forms

2.

Gap healing occurs when:

a)

There is no fracture gap

b)

Callus forms immediately

c)

A small gap remains after rigid fixation

d)

The fracture is unstable

3.

Contact healing occurs through:

a)

Soft callus formation

b)

Cutting cone mechanism

c)

Fibrocartilage formation

d)

Endochondral ossification

4.

Soft callus is typically visible on X-ray around:

a)

Day 1

b)

1 week

c)

3 weeks

d)

3 months

5.

Hard (bony) callus formation begins around:

a)

1–2 days

b)

1 week

c)

3–4 weeks

d)

1 year

6.

The remodeling phase of bone healing lasts approximately:

a)

2–3 weeks

b)

3 months

c)

6 months

d)

Up to 2 years

7.

A 55-year-old diabetic patient with an open tibial fracture is most likely to show delayed healing due to impairment in which stage?

a)

Remodeling

b)

Callus consolidation

c)

Hematoma formation

d)

Inflammation and cellular proliferation

8.

Which fracture location is MOST likely to heal rapidly due to direct blood vessel invasion of trabeculae?

a)

Mid-diaphysis of femur

b)

Metaphysis of tibia

c)

Cancellous bone of the vertebra

d)

Posterior cortex of humerus

9.

A surgeon uses bridge plating for a comminuted femur shaft fracture. What type of stability and healing is expected?

a)

Absolute stability → direct healing without callus

b)

Absolute stability → callus formation

c)

Relative stability → indirect healing with callus

d)

No stability → nonunion

10.

In cancellous bone healing by creeping substitution, rapid healing occurs because:

a)

Cartilage is converted directly into lamellar bone

b)

Blood vessels grow into trabeculae providing immediate scaffolding

c)

Cutting cones drill channels across the fracture

d)

Micromotion is completely absent

11.

The first step in systematic X-ray reading is:

a)

Identifying the fracture

b)

Checking patient name and date

c)

Looking for displacement

d)

Estimating bone density

12.

Two joints must be included in long bone X-rays because:

a)

They reduce radiation

b)

They ensure immobilization

c)

To avoid missing associated injuries

d)

They improve soft tissue contrast

13.

The densest material on an X-ray appears:

a)

Black

b)

Dark grey

c)

Light grey

d)

White

14.

A simple oblique fracture is identified by:

a)

Horizontal fracture line

b)

Spiral pattern

c)

Diagonal fracture line

d)

Multiple fragments

15.

When describing displacement, movement is described for the:

a)

Proximal fragment

b)

Distal fragment

c)

Both fragments independently

d)

Whichever fragment appears larger

16.

In a femur AP X-ray, the lesser trochanter appears more prominent. This most commonly indicates:

a)

Internal rotation

b)

External rotation

c)

Neutral rotation

d)

Overexposure

17.

A long bone fracture is visible on only one X-ray view. The MOST appropriate next step is:

a)

Ignore the finding

b)

Diagnose as simple fracture

c)

Obtain an additional orthogonal view

d)

Repeat the same view with more exposure

18.

A fracture appears nondisplaced on an AP view, but displaced on the lateral view. This suggests displacement in the:

a)

Coronal plane

b)

Sagittal plane

c)

Axial plane

d)

Oblique plane

19.

A wedge-shaped fragment with cortical disruption on one side most likely represents:

a)

Spiral fracture

b)

Wedge fracture

c)

Butterfly comminution

d)

Oblique fracture

20.

When assessing angulation, the correct method is to evaluate:

a)

Direction of apex of the fracture

b)

Movement of soft tissues

c)

Length shortening

d)

Callus formation