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Characteristics of Life and Biological Concepts Quiz

Total questions: 158

Worksheet time: 2hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT one of the seven characteristics of life?

a)

Order: organized structures from cells to organs

b)

Energy processing: acquire and use energy

c)

Growth and development: programmed by genetic information

d)

Photosynthesis: the process of converting sunlight into food

2.

What is the primary difference between bacteria and archaea?

a)

Bacteria have peptidoglycan cell walls, while archaea have membranes with branched isoprenoid chains.

b)

Archaea have a nucleus, while bacteria do not.

c)

Bacteria are eukaryotic, while archaea are prokaryotic.

d)

Archaea are pathogenic, while bacteria are not.

3.

Which of the following is a characteristic of eukaryotic cells?

a)

No nucleus and no membrane-bound organelles

b)

Peptidoglycan cell walls

c)

Linear chromosomes and membrane-bound organelles

d)

Unbranched fatty acids with ester linkages

4.

Which major eukaryotic group is mostly unicellular and very diverse?

a)

Fungi

b)

Protists

c)

Plants

d)

Animals

5.

What is a hypothesis?

a)

A proven scientific fact

b)

A testable, falsifiable explanation for an observation

c)

A random guess about an experiment

d)

A statement that cannot be tested

6.

Which of the following is true about fungi?

a)

They are photosynthetic.

b)

They have cell walls made of cellulose.

c)

They absorb nutrients and act as decomposers.

d)

They ingest food like animals.

7.

Which of the following statements about plants is correct?

a)

Plants have no cell walls.

b)

Plants are multicellular and photosynthetic.

c)

Plants ingest food like animals.

d)

Plants have peptidoglycan in their cell walls.

8.

What is the role of evolutionary adaptation in life?

a)

It helps organisms respond to stimuli.

b)

It improves survival and reproduction by changing heritable traits in populations.

c)

It allows organisms to acquire and use energy.

d)

It maintains stable internal conditions.

9.

What is the role of a good hypothesis in scientific experiments?

a)

It provides definitive proof of a theory.

b)

It leads to predictions that can be tested with controlled experiments or observational studies.

c)

It eliminates the need for data collection.

d)

It ensures all experiments are successful.

10.

Which property of water makes it a good solvent for polar and charged solutes?

a)

High specific heat

b)

Polarity

c)

Ice density

d)

Cohesion

11.

What is the significance of water's cohesion and adhesion properties?

a)

They help water resist temperature changes.

b)

They enable water to move in plants.

c)

They make ice less dense than liquid water.

d)

They increase water's solubility for polar molecules.

12.

What happens to water when it freezes?

a)

It becomes denser than liquid water.

b)

It floats due to being less dense than liquid water.

c)

It loses its ability to act as a solvent.

d)

It evaporates faster.

13.

What is the pH range of human blood and cells for survival?

a)

6.0–6.5

b)

7.0–7.8

c)

8.0–8.5

d)

5.5–6.0

14.

Which functional group is polar, forms hydrogen bonds, and increases solubility in alcohols and sugars?

a)

Carbonyl (C=O)

b)

Hydroxyl (–OH)

c)

Ketone (–CO–)

d)

Aldehyde (–CHO)

15.

What is the difference between aldehyde and ketone in the carbonyl group?

a)

Aldehyde is found in alcohols, while ketone is found in sugars.

b)

Aldehyde is at the end of a molecule, while ketone is in the middle.

c)

Aldehyde is nonpolar, while ketone is polar.

d)

Aldehyde increases solubility, while ketone decreases solubility.

16.

Which functional group is acidic and can donate H+, often ionized as –COO⁻ in amino acids and fatty acids?

a)

Amino (–NH₂ / –NH₃⁺)

b)

Sulfhydryl (–SH)

c)

Carboxyl (–COOH)

d)

Phosphate (–PO₄²⁻)

17.

What is the primary role of dehydration synthesis in biological molecules?

a)

Breaking polymers into monomers by adding water

b)

Joining monomers into polymers by removing a water molecule

c)

Transporting energy within cells

d)

Stabilizing protein structure through disulfide bridges

18.

Which type of carbohydrate is composed of long chains of monosaccharides and serves storage or structural roles?

a)

Monosaccharides

b)

Disaccharides

c)

Polysaccharides

d)

Lipids

19.

Which of the following is an example of a structural carbohydrate in plant cell walls?

a)

Glycogen

b)

Cellulose

c)

Chitin

d)

Sucrose

20.

What is the major type of lipid that consists of glycerol and three fatty acids, and serves functions such as energy storage, insulation, and cushioning?

a)

Phospholipids

b)

Steroids

c)

Fats/Triglycerides

d)

Monosaccharides

21.

Which functional group is negatively charged, very polar, and involved in energy transfer in ATP, DNA, and phospholipids?

a)

Sulfhydryl (–SH)

b)

Phosphate (–PO₄²⁻)

c)

Amino (–NH₂ / –NH₃⁺)

d)

Carboxyl (–COOH)

22.

What is the difference between hydrolysis and dehydration synthesis?

a)

Hydrolysis removes water, while dehydration synthesis adds water.

b)

Hydrolysis breaks polymers into monomers, while dehydration synthesis joins monomers into polymers.

c)

Hydrolysis forms covalent bonds, while dehydration synthesis breaks covalent bonds.

d)

Hydrolysis occurs in anabolic reactions, while dehydration synthesis occurs in catabolic reactions.

23.

Which carbohydrate is used for energy storage in animals?

a)

Starch

b)

Glycogen

c)

Cellulose

d)

Chitin

24.

What is the role of oligosaccharides on glycoproteins and glycolipids?

a)

Energy storage

b)

Structural support

c)

Cell recognition/signaling

d)

Insulation

25.

Which functional group can form disulfide bridges that stabilize protein structure?

a)

Carboxyl (–COOH)

b)

Sulfhydryl (–SH)

c)

Amino (–NH₂ / –NH₃⁺)

d)

Phosphate (–PO₄²⁻)

26.

Which type of fatty acid has no double bonds and is solid at room temperature?

a)

Unsaturated fatty acids

b)

Saturated fatty acids

c)

Phospholipids

d)

Steroids

27.

What is the structure of phospholipids?

a)

Four fused rings

b)

Glycerol + 2 fatty acids + phosphate-containing head

c)

Linear sequence of amino acids

d)

Central carbon bonded to amino group and carboxyl group

28.

Which major protein function involves catalyzing biochemical reactions?

a)

Structural

b)

Enzymes

c)

Transport

d)

Defense

29.

What determines the properties of amino acids?

a)

Phosphate group

b)

R group

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Peptide bonds

30.

Which level of protein structure involves the association of multiple polypeptide chains into a functional protein?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

31.

What type of bond connects the nucleotide sequence in nucleic acids?

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Ionic bonds

c)

Phosphodiester bonds

d)

Disulfide bonds

32.

Which protein function is responsible for movement in muscles?

a)

Transport

b)

Defense

c)

Movement

d)

Signaling

33.

What stabilizes the tertiary structure of proteins?

a)

Backbone hydrogen bonds

b)

Interactions among R groups

c)

Peptide bonds

d)

Phosphodiester bonds

34.

What is the primary structure of proteins?

a)

Local folding into α-helices and β-pleated sheets

b)

Linear sequence of amino acids

c)

Overall 3D shape of one polypeptide

d)

Association of multiple polypeptide chains

35.

Which type of fatty acid is liquid at room temperature and contains one or more cis C=C bonds?

a)

Saturated fatty acids

b)

Unsaturated fatty acids

c)

Steroids

d)

Phospholipids

36.

Which of the following describes the secondary structure of nucleic acids?

a)

3D folding of a whole nucleic acid molecule

b)

Complexes of nucleic acids with proteins or other nucleic acids

c)

Local base-pairing patterns such as DNA double helix and RNA hairpins

d)

Binding of nucleic acids to histones

37.

What drives the folding of nucleic acids?

a)

Ionic interactions with charged backbone and binding to proteins

b)

Complementary base pairing and base stacking

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

38.

Which base pairing is complementary in DNA?

a)

A–U, G–C

b)

A–T, G–C

c)

A–G, T–C

d)

A–C, G–T

39.

What is the primary difference between DNA and RNA in terms of sugar composition?

a)

DNA contains ribose sugar, while RNA contains deoxyribose sugar

b)

DNA contains deoxyribose sugar, while RNA contains ribose sugar

c)

Both DNA and RNA contain ribose sugar

d)

Both DNA and RNA contain deoxyribose sugar

40.

Which of the following is a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?

a)

Presence of a nucleus with linear chromosomes

b)

Presence of membrane-bound organelles

c)

DNA in nucleoid, usually one circular chromosome

d)

Larger size (10–100 µm)

41.

What is a major difference between animal and plant cells?

a)

Animal cells have chloroplasts, while plant cells do not

b)

Plant cells have cell walls, while animal cells do not

c)

Animal cells have a cytoskeleton, while plant cells do not

d)

Plant cells lack membrane-bound organelles

42.

Where is RNA primarily found in eukaryotic cells?

a)

Only in the nucleus

b)

In the nucleus and cytoplasm

c)

Only in mitochondria

d)

Only in chloroplasts

43.

Which of the following is true about eukaryotic cells?

a)

They lack a cytoskeleton

b)

They have many membrane-bound organelles

c)

Their DNA is found in a nucleoid

d)

They are smaller than prokaryotic cells

44.

Which organelle is responsible for synthesizing proteins for secretion, membranes, and lysosomes?

a)

Smooth ER

b)

Rough ER

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Lysosomes

45.

What is the primary function of chloroplasts in plant cells?

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Lipid synthesis

d)

Protein modification

46.

Which organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes and is primarily found in animal cells?

a)

Lysosomes

b)

Peroxisomes

c)

Vacuoles

d)

Mitochondria

47.

What is the main difference between plant and animal cells regarding vacuoles?

a)

Animal cells have large central vacuoles, while plant cells have small vacuoles.

b)

Plant cells have large central vacuoles, while animal cells have small vacuoles.

c)

Both plant and animal cells have large central vacuoles.

d)

Neither plant nor animal cells have vacuoles.

48.

Which organelle is responsible for detoxifying peroxides and breaking down fatty acids?

a)

Lysosomes

b)

Peroxisomes

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Smooth ER

49.

What structure in eukaryotic cells is responsible for cell shape, movement, and organelle transport?

a)

Cytoskeleton

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

50.

Which organelle is involved in lipid synthesis and detoxification?

a)

Rough ER

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Peroxisomes

51.

What is the primary function of the Golgi apparatus?

a)

Synthesizing proteins

b)

Modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids into vesicles

c)

Detoxifying peroxides

d)

Breaking down macromolecules

52.

Which organelle contains circular DNA and ribosomes and is involved in ATP production?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chloroplasts

d)

Lysosomes

53.

Which organelle is unique to animal cells and is not found in plant cells?

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Centrioles

c)

Vacuoles

d)

Peroxisomes

54.

Which organelles are found only in plant cells?

a)

Nucleus, ER, Golgi, mitochondria

b)

Chloroplasts, large central vacuole, cellulose cell wall, plasmodesmata

c)

Peroxisomes, cytoskeleton, plasma membrane

d)

Ribosomes, lysosomes, vesicles

55.

What is the primary function of molecular 'zip codes' in the endomembrane system?

a)

To synthesize proteins in the ER lumen

b)

To direct proteins to specific organelles

c)

To modify proteins in the Golgi apparatus

d)

To transport vesicles to the plasma membrane

56.

Which of the following is a main component of the cell membrane?

a)

Phospholipid bilayer

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Nucleolus

57.

What type of membrane protein spans the bilayer and interacts with lipid tails?

a)

Peripheral proteins

b)

Integral proteins

c)

Glycoproteins

d)

Cholesterol

58.

Which transport mechanism involves the movement of small nonpolar molecules directly through the bilayer without energy?

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Active transport

c)

Simple diffusion

d)

Endocytosis

59.

What type of interaction primarily holds the lipid tails of the phospholipid bilayer together?

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Hydrophobic interactions

c)

Ionic bonds

d)

Covalent bonds

60.

Which of the following is a characteristic of peripheral membrane proteins?

a)

Embedded in the bilayer

b)

Loosely attached to the membrane surface

c)

Function as channels and carriers

d)

Interact with lipid tails

61.

What is the role of cholesterol in animal cell membranes?

a)

To synthesize proteins

b)

To provide structural support

c)

To attach carbohydrates to lipids

d)

To regulate membrane fluidity

62.

What is facilitated diffusion?

a)

Movement against gradient via pumps powered by ATP hydrolysis

b)

Movement down gradient via transport proteins; specific, saturable; no energy

c)

Diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane

d)

Movement of large polar molecules across the hydrophobic core

63.

Which type of transport requires energy and proteins?

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active transport

d)

Passive diffusion

64.

Why do nonpolar, small molecules diffuse passively across the hydrophobic core?

a)

They are blocked by the hydrophobic interior

b)

They require transport proteins

c)

They cross the hydrophobic core easily or moderately easily

d)

They use endocytosis/exocytosis

65.

What is osmosis?

a)

Movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from lower solute concentration to higher solute concentration

b)

Movement of large polar molecules across the hydrophobic core

c)

Movement against gradient via pumps powered by ATP hydrolysis

d)

Diffusion of charged ions across the membrane

66.

What is the difference between exergonic and endergonic reactions?

a)

Exergonic reactions require input of free energy, while endergonic reactions release free energy

b)

Exergonic reactions release free energy and occur spontaneously, while endergonic reactions require input of free energy and are not spontaneous

c)

Exergonic reactions increase entropy, while endergonic reactions decrease entropy

d)

Exergonic reactions require activation energy, while endergonic reactions do not

67.

What is energy coupling?

a)

The use of energy released by exergonic reactions to drive endergonic reactions

b)

The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane

c)

The release of free energy during spontaneous reactions

d)

The blocking of large polar molecules by the hydrophobic interior

68.

Which process is an example of energy coupling?

a)

Diffusion of small molecules across the hydrophobic core

b)

ATP hydrolysis driving active transport and polymer synthesis

c)

Osmosis from hypotonic to hypertonic solutions

d)

Competitive inhibition of enzymes

69.

What is the role of competitive inhibition in enzyme regulation?

a)

It blocks the active site of the enzyme

b)

It increases the rate of exergonic reactions

c)

It drives endergonic reactions

d)

It facilitates osmosis across membranes

70.

What is competitive inhibition in enzymes?

a)

Inhibitor binds to a site other than the active site, changing enzyme shape and activity.

b)

Inhibitor resembles substrate and binds to the active site, competing with the substrate.

c)

Inhibitor stabilizes the active form of the enzyme.

d)

Inhibitor increases the temperature of the enzyme.

71.

What happens to enzymes when the temperature becomes too high?

a)

Enzymes become more active and efficient.

b)

Enzymes denature, losing their structure and activity.

c)

Enzymes bind more substrates at the active site.

d)

Enzymes stabilize their active form.

72.

Which of the following is true about allosteric regulation?

a)

It involves inhibitors binding to the active site.

b)

It changes enzyme shape and activity by binding to a site other than the active site.

c)

It increases substrate concentration to overcome inhibition.

d)

It only occurs at high temperatures.

73.

What is the main function of glycolysis in cellular respiration?

a)

To produce 26-28 ATP through oxidative phosphorylation.

b)

To oxidize pyruvate into acetyl-CoA.

c)

To break down glucose into pyruvate, producing ATP and NADH.

d)

To pump protons into the intermembrane space.

74.

Where does pyruvate oxidation occur in cellular respiration?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Mitochondrial matrix

c)

Inner mitochondrial membrane

d)

Intermembrane space

75.

What is the role of the electron transport chain (ETC) in cellular respiration?

a)

To produce pyruvate from glucose.

b)

To pump protons into the intermembrane space, creating an H+ electrochemical gradient.

c)

To oxidize NADH and FADH2 into CO2.

d)

To regenerate NAD+ for glycolysis.

76.

What happens to pyruvate during pyruvate oxidation?

a)

It is converted into glucose.

b)

It loses one carbon as CO2 and forms acetyl-CoA.

c)

It is directly used in the electron transport chain.

d)

It is stored in the cytosol for later use.

77.

What is the approximate ATP yield from oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

2 ATP

b)

4 ATP

c)

26-28 ATP

d)

36-38 ATP

78.

What is the role of ATP synthase in chemiosmosis?

a)

It uses proton flow to phosphorylate ADP.

b)

It oxidizes NADH to NAD+.

c)

It splits water molecules to release oxygen.

d)

It reduces CO2 to carbohydrates.

79.

In anaerobic conditions, what is the final product of alcohol fermentation?

a)

Lactic acid

b)

Ethanol

c)

Acetaldehyde

d)

Pyruvate

80.

Which molecule is fixed by Rubisco during the Calvin cycle?

a)

Oxygen

b)

NADPH

c)

CO2

d)

ATP

81.

What is the primary function of Photosystem II in photosynthesis?

a)

To reduce NADP+ to NADPH

b)

To absorb light and drive water splitting

c)

To fix CO2 into carbohydrates

d)

To pump protons into the thylakoid lumen

82.

How does CAM photosynthesis differ from C4 photosynthesis?

a)

CAM separates steps spatially, while C4 separates steps temporally.

b)

CAM separates steps temporally, while C4 separates steps spatially.

c)

Both CAM and C4 separate steps spatially.

d)

Both CAM and C4 separate steps temporally.

83.

What are the three universal steps in cell signaling?

a)

Reception, transduction, and response

b)

Reception, translation, and replication

c)

Transduction, transcription, and translation

d)

Response, replication, and transcription

84.

What is the main difference between photosynthesis and respiration in terms of energy?

a)

Photosynthesis is exergonic, while respiration is endergonic.

b)

Photosynthesis is endergonic, while respiration is exergonic.

c)

Both are exergonic processes.

d)

Both are endergonic processes.

85.

Which molecule is regenerated by most G3P during the Calvin cycle?

a)

ATP

b)

NADPH

c)

RuBP

d)

CO2

86.

Which of the following is NOT a signaling range mentioned in the text?

a)

Autocrine

b)

Paracrine

c)

Synaptic

d)

Osmotic

87.

What is the role of ligand binding in GPCR activation?

a)

Promotes GDP-GTP exchange on Gα

b)

Inhibits GDP-GTP exchange on Gα

c)

Activates intrinsic GTPase activity of Gα

d)

Prevents second messenger generation

88.

Which type of receptor binds small, hydrophobic, nonpolar ligands such as steroid hormones?

a)

Surface receptors

b)

Intracellular receptors

c)

GPCRs

d)

Juxtacrine receptors

89.

What is the primary difference between haploid and diploid genome content?

a)

Haploid cells contain two copies of each chromosome, while diploid cells contain one.

b)

Haploid cells are specialized reproductive cells, while diploid cells are somatic cells.

c)

Haploid cells contain one copy of each chromosome, while diploid cells contain two.

d)

Haploid cells are identical to diploid cells in genome content.

90.

Which phase of the cell cycle involves DNA replication?

a)

G1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

M phase

91.

What is a common consequence of gain-of-function mutations in proto-oncogenes?

a)

Increased apoptosis

b)

Increased proliferation

c)

Decreased proliferation

d)

Enhanced DNA repair

92.

Which checkpoint ensures spindle fidelity during the cell cycle?

a)

G1/S checkpoint

b)

G2/M checkpoint

c)

M checkpoint

d)

S checkpoint

93.

Which treatment concept aims to restore or mimic tumor suppressor pathways?

a)

Kinase inhibitors

b)

Receptor antibodies

c)

PARP inhibitors

d)

p53 reactivation

94.

What is chromatin primarily composed of?

a)

DNA and lipids

b)

DNA and proteins

c)

RNA and proteins

d)

RNA and lipids

95.

Which of the following is a specialized haploid reproductive cell?

a)

Chromatid

b)

Gamete

c)

Chromosome

d)

Centromere

96.

What is the main difference between sister chromatids and homologous chromosomes?

a)

Sister chromatids are identical copies, while homologous chromosomes are maternal and paternal versions carrying the same genes.

b)

Sister chromatids align as bivalents, while homologous chromosomes align as tetrads.

c)

Sister chromatids are haploid, while homologous chromosomes are diploid.

d)

Sister chromatids undergo crossing over, while homologous chromosomes do not.

97.

Which phase of meiosis involves homologs aligning as bivalents and segregating to opposite poles?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase II

98.

What is a key difference between meiosis and mitosis?

a)

Meiosis involves one division, while mitosis involves two divisions.

b)

Meiosis produces four nonidentical haploid cells, while mitosis produces two identical diploid cells.

c)

Meiosis conserves ploidy, while mitosis halves ploidy.

d)

Meiosis occurs in somatic cells, while mitosis occurs in gametes.

99.

What is one source of genetic variation during meiosis?

a)

Synapsis during metaphase II

b)

Independent assortment of homologs during prophase I

c)

Crossing over during prophase I

d)

Random fertilization after meiosis

100.

What genetic disorder is caused by nondisjunction in meiosis I or II?

a)

Sickle cell anemia

b)

Trisomy 21 Down syndrome

c)

Huntington's disease

d)

Cystic fibrosis

101.
What is cancer?
a)
The heart does not receive enough blood.
b)
Sudden disruption of blood flow to part of the brain.
c)
Blood filled weak spot.
d)
Uncontrolled growth and spread of abnormal cells.
102.

This is called Turners syndrome, can you notice the mutation in the chromosomes?

a)

Both chromosomes 1 are bent

b)

There are too many chromosomes

c)

There are too many of chromosome 3

d)

There is no Y chromosome

103.

Part of one chromosome is transported and attached

to a non-homologous chromosome

a)

Inversion Mutation

b)

Translocation Mutation

c)

Duplication Mutation

d)

Point Mutation

104.

What type of mutation involves substituting a DNA base with a different base?

a)

point mutation

b)

frameshift mutation

c)

silent mutation

d)

chromosomal mutation

105.

If a point mutation does not change the order of the amino acid sequence, this is called a:

a)

nonsense mutation

b)

silent mutation

c)

missense mutation

d)

frameshift mutation

106.

If a mutation codes for "stop" in the amino acid chain, this is called a:

a)

nonsense mutation

b)

missense mutation

c)

silent mutation

d)

frameshift mutation

107.
A substance that can cause a change in the DNA code of an organism is called a 
a)
toxin
b)
mutagen
c)
nitrogenous base
d)
nucleotide
108.

What are considered "negative" mutations?

a)

mutations in the DNA sequence that changes the resulting protein and harms the organism

b)

mutations in the DNA sequence that changes the resulting protein and benefits the organism

c)

mutations in the DNA sequence that produces the same protein

d)

all mutations are considered bad and harm the organisms

109.
What type of chromosomal mutation is this?
a)
Translocation
b)
Inversion
c)
Deletion
d)
Duplication
110.

Which type of mutation is demonstrated in the image below?

a)

missense

b)

nonsense

c)

insertion

d)

deletion

111.

The model shows a mutation to a partial sequence of bases in a gene. Which type of mutation does the model demonstrate?

a)

deletion

b)

insertion

c)

substitution

d)

translocation

112.

Sickle-shaped red blood cells result from a mutation in the gene that codes for hemoglobin. This mutation results in sickle-cell anemia. A partial sequence of bases from a normal hemoglobin gene and a sequence that results in sickle- anemia are shown

What type of mutation is depicted in this sequence?

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Deletion

d)

Frameshift

113.

Which of the following DNA segments show a INSERTION mutation of this original sequence:


TAC CGG TTA ACT

a)

TAC CGC TTA ACT

b)

TAC CGG TTT AAC T

c)

TAC GCT TAA CT

114.

What type of mutation is shown in the image?

a)

Silent Mutation

b)

Trinucleotide Repeat Expansion

c)

Frameshift

d)

Gene Translocation

115.
Sickle-shaped red blood cells result from a mutation in the gene that codes for hemoglobin. This mutation results in sickle-cell anemia. A partial sequence of bases from a normal hemoglobin gene and a sequence that results in sickle-cell anemia are shown picture. What type of mutation is depicted in this sequence?
a)
Substitution
b)
Insertion
c)
Deletion
d)
Frameshift
116.

An illustration of how a particular DNA mutation will most likely affect the polypeptide produced is shown. What type of mutation is illustrated?

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

Substitution

d)

Translocation

117.

Muscular dystrophy (MD) refers to a group of genetic disorders whose major symptom is muscle wasting.  The genetic disorder occurs because of a mutation in the gene sequence as seen in the image below. Which type of mutation is shown in the image?

a)

Point Mutation

b)

Frameshift

c)

Nonsense

d)

Missense

118.

6E: Different types of mutations can occur in DNA. The diagram represents a type of mutation. Which statement describes the mutation in the diagram?

a)

A silent mutation results in the insertion of a different amino acid

b)

A substitution occurs with the adenine base

c)

A deletion of a cytosine base occurs

d)

A base is inserted into one strand of the DNA

119.

Any changes that take place in the nucleus (often times said to be a mistake in the DNA) is referred to as a(n) _______________.

a)

gene

b)

allele

c)

trait

d)

mutation

120.

Which type of mutation is illustrated in the image below?

a)

substitution

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

d)

frameshift

121.

DNA is made of repeating units of these.

a)

amino acids

b)

nucleotides

c)

polysaccharides

d)

mitosis chains

122.
A point mutation changes the mRNA strand UCU to UCC. What type of point mutation is this?
a)
silent mutation
b)
nonsense mutation
c)
insertion
d)
deletion
123.

A certain mutation in the gene for hemoglobin results in the red blood cells becoming sticky, rigid, and irregularly shaped. These irregularly shaped red blood cells block the flow of blood throughout the body. A single base mutation is responsible for these irregularly shaped blood cells. Which of these mutations most likely results in the mutated hemoglobin gene?

a)

insertion

b)

deletion

c)

duplication

d)

substitution

124.

Which of the following best explains what cancer is and how it is related to the cell cycle?

a)

Cells that have been stopped at G0 and are no longer dividing

b)

Unregulated cell division, where cells grow and divide much quicker than they normally would

c)

Mutated cells that do not grow or divide as efficiently as they normally would

d)

None of the above

125.

Analyze the image in the picture provided.

What type of mutation is shown?

a)

insertion

b)

inversion

c)

translocation

d)

deletion

126.

Living things are made up of units called

a)

DNA

b)

Cells

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Seeds

127.

Is this an example of a gene or chromosomal mutation?

a)

Gene mutation

b)

Chromosomal mutation

c)

Not a mutation

128.

6E: A certain mutation in the gene for hemoglobin results in the red blood cells becoming sticky, rigid, and irregularly shaped. These irregularly shaped red blood cells block the flow of blood throughout the body. A single base mutation is responsible for these irregularly shaped blood cells. Which of these mutations most likely results in the mutated hemoglobin?

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

Duplication

d)

Substitution

129.

True or False. A mutation in DNA will cause a change in the amino acid

a)

True

b)

False

130.
Which phrase best describes cancer?
a)
absence of cyclins
b)
multiple gene mutations
c)
uncontrolled cell growth
d)
precesnce of genetic defects
131.

Where in the cell does DNA replication occur?

a)

ribosomes

b)

cell membrane

c)

nucleus

d)

cytoplasm

132.

Mitosis results in ______.

a)

two identical daughter cells

b)

one identical daughter cell

c)

four diverse daughter cells

d)

multiple diverse daughter cells

133.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

134.

What type of mutation is shown above?

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Deletion

d)

Frame-shift mutation

135.

Which statement describes the mutation in the diagram?

a)

A silent mutation results in the insertion of a different amino acid.

b)

A substitution occurs with the adenine base.

c)

A deletion of cytosine base occurs

d)

A base inserted into one strand of the DNA

136.

What type of mutation is shown above?

a)

Inversion

b)

Insertion

c)

Deletion

d)

Substitution

137.

What is the name of the following mutation?

a)

Silent

b)

Trinucleotide Repeat Expansion

c)

Nondisjunction

d)

Frameshift

138.

What type of chromosomal mutation is this?

a)

Inversion

b)

Duplication

c)

Translocation

d)

Deletion

139.

An illustration of how a particular DNA mutation will most likely affect the polypeptide produced is shown. What type of mutation is illustrated?

a)

insertion

b)

translocation

c)

substitution

d)

deletion

140.
When an extra base is inserted into the DNA sequence of a gene, the protein doesn't work. Which explains why?
a)
the base increases rate of translation
b)
the base causes DNA to be transcribed in opposite direction
c)
the inserted base causes the codons in the sequence to be incorrect for the desired protein
d)
the base signals enzymes to translate DNA rather than RNA
141.

What type of mutation is shown above:

a)

Inversion

b)

Insertion

c)

Substitution

d)

Deletion

142.

The first albino deer is born in a population was most likely due to

a)

exposure to chemicals after birth.

b)

a mutation in a parent body cell.

c)

a mutation in the DNA of a gamete.

d)

exposure to environmental changes.

143.

in which stage of the cell cycle will the DNA make a copy of itself?

a)

M

b)

S

c)

G1

d)

G2

144.

In some cases this condition of having extra sets of chromosomes can be beneficial, such as in certain plants that are stronger and larger as a result.

a)

polyploidy

b)

point mutation

c)

frameshift mutation

d)

inversion

145.

A single-base mutation in a messenger RNA molecule could transcribe the DNA sequence CAGTAT into

a)

GTCATA

b)

GUCAUA

c)

GTCUTU

d)

GUAAUA

146.

A certain mutation in the gene for hemoglobin results in the red blood cells becoming sticky, rigid, and irregularly shaped. These irregularly shaped red blood cells block the flow of blood throughout the body. A single base mutation is responsible for these irregularly shaped blood cells.

Which of these mutations most likely results in the mutated hemoglobin gene?

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

Duplication

d)

Substitution

147.

What type of mutation is shown in the image?

a)

Nondisjunction

b)

Gene Translocation

c)

Trinucleotide Repeat Expansion

d)

Frameshift

148.

What causes "sickle shaped" blood cells?

a)

Point Mutation

b)

Frameshift Mutation

c)

Trinucleotide Repeat Expansion

d)

Gene Translocation

149.

Definition of mutation

a)

A random change to a gene that sometimes results in a new trait.

b)

How something works.

c)

Information about the natural world that is used to support go against a claim.

d)

An instruction for making a protein molecule.

150.

What type of mutation is shown in the image?

a)

Frameshift

b)

Nondisjunction

c)

Trinucleotide Repeat Expansion

d)

Silent Mutation

151.
Sickle cell anemia is caused by what type of mutation?
a)
Chromosomal mutation
b)
Non-disjunction
c)
DNA substitution mutation
d)
None of these
152.

Unit 5

The model shows a mutation to a partial sequence of bases in a gene.

Which type of mutation does the model demonstrate?

a)

Deletion

b)

Insertion

c)

Substitution

d)

Translocation

153.

Changes is DNA sequences that affect genetic information are known as

a)

replications

b)

mutations

c)

transformations

d)

translations

154.

If part of the chromosome is turned around in the opposite direction this is called:

a)

inversion

b)

translocation

c)

deletion

d)

duplication

155.

A point mutation that does not change the amino acid sequence is known as a(n) ____________ mutation.

a)

Frameshift

b)

Nondisjunction

c)

Inversion

d)

Silent

156.

What type of mutation is shown in the diagram?

a)

substitution

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

d)

no change

157.

This type of chromosomal mutation produces an extra copy of all or part of the chromosome:

a)

multiplication

b)

replication

c)

duplication

d)

inversion

158.

______________________________________ is a type of chromosomal mutation when part of the chromosome breaks off and attaches to another chromosome.

a)

duplication

b)

translocation

c)

subtraction

d)

deletion