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ETC Certification Exam Ed. 4

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When possible, emergency telecommunicators should always ask the caller for permission before providing Pre-Arrival Instructions.

a)

true

b)

false

2.

In the context of the communication process, the “medium” is:

a)

a message volume that is not too loud or too soft.

b)

the sender of the message.

c)

the message itself.

d)

the channel or means of communication

3.

A caller reports a heavy, black smoke coming from the window of a nearby building. What is the most appropriate fire/rescue call classification for this case?

a)

Alarms

b)

Outside Fire

c)

Smoke Investigation (Outside)

d)

Structure Fire

4.

An alert first-party caller reports that he doesn’t feel well. He explains that he feels nauseated and has some chest pain. What is the most appropriate medical call classification for this case?

a)

Abdominal Pain/Problems

b)

Cardiac Arrest or Respiratory Arrest/Death

c)

Chest Pain/Chest Discomfort (Non-Traumatic)

d)

Sick Person (Specific Diagnosis)

5.

When faced with an ethical dilemma in the communication center, the ETC should FIRST:

a)

ask the nearest coworker for help.

b)

consult his or her attorney.

c)

follow established protocol, procedure, and policy.

d)

follow his or her instincts.

6.

What does the acronym TDD stand for?

a)

telecommunications device for the deaf

b)

telecommunicator dial-up dispatch

c)

text-to-dispatch data

d)

total disaster danger

7.

When communicating with a caller suffering from hallucinations or delusions, the ETC should challenge the caller’s false assertions and beliefs.

a)

true

b)

false

8.

In recent years, the total number of emergency calls has increased dramatically due to:

a)

more teen drivers than ever before.

b)

wake-effect collisions.

c)

wireless technology.

d)

an increase in workplace accidents.

9.

One of the best techniques for reducing the negative effect of call-processing gaps is to:

a)

ask the caller to tell you what’s going on now.

b)

tell the caller what you are doing and why.

c)

pretend the gaps don’t exist—the caller won’t be concerned if you’re not.

d)

fill the gaps with casual conversation.

10.

Interagency communication (interoperability) tends to be inefficient and ineffective:

a)

without standardized cross-agency rules and procedures for radio use.

b)

without the most expensive radio equipment currently available.

c)

when all involved agencies use an agreed upon system of communication.

d)

when information is broadcast in short segments with breaks between them.

11.

The nonspecific response of the body to any demand for change is:

a)

burnout.

b)

overload.

c)

stress.

d)

unrelated.

12.

The International Academies of Emergency Dispatch® (IAED™) recommends that emergency telecommunicators verify the address and callback number by repeating the information back to the caller.

a)

true

b)

false

13.

A caller reports someone breaking into a home. What is the most appropriate law enforcement/police call classification for this case?

a)

Burglary (Break-and-Enter)/Home Invasion

b)

Damage/Vandalism/Mischief

c)

Robbery/Carjacking

d)

Theft (Larceny)

14.

Most emergency callers are uncooperative or hysterical.

a)

true

b)

false

15.

Which of the following lists contains the four elements necessary to prove negligence in a court of law?

a)

injury or damage, duty, liability, detrimental reliance

b)

duty, breach of duty, injury or damage, causation

c)

foreseeability, causation, duty, liability

d)

foreseeability, duty breach of duty, injury or damage

16.

A caller reports a strange person hanging around the neighborhood. What is the most appropriate law enforcement/police call classification for this case?

a)

Abduction (Kidnapping)/Custodial

b)

Abduction/Custody Issue/Hostage Situation

c)

Disturbance/Nuisance

d)

Missing/Runaway/Found Person

e)

Suspicious/Wanted (Person, Circumstances, Vehicle)

17.

In this course, the “three Ps” refer to:

a)

politeness, privilege, and politics.

b)

professionalism, priority, and public service.

c)

protocol, procedure, and policy.

d)

party (of caller), Pre-Arrival Instructions, and Post-Dispatch Instructions.

18.

A procedure that has been highly defined and structured and placed into a reference system is known as a:

a)

protocol.

b)

guideline.

c)

logarithm.

d)

policy.

19.

Under the Incident Command System (ICS), the areas assigned for the location and deployment of resources to minimize congestion at the scene is referred to as the:

a)

emergency operations center (EOC)

b)

staging area

c)

incident action plan (IAP)

d)

Logistics Section

20.

The legal concept of detrimental reliance applies when:

a)

one party thwarts the promised efforts of another party for help or assistance by acting in a manner that hurts the situation.

b)

one party relies on the promised efforts of another party for help or assistance and, as a result, misses the opportunity to act in a manner that would have improved the situation.

c)

promised efforts determine the outcome of the situation.

d)

there is an omission of remedial or other prudent actions on the part of an employer toward an employee whose poor performance is known.

21.

For many law enforcement/police calls, the most important characteristic of the reported event is the:

a)

evidence on scene.

b)

number of suspects.

c)

presence of weapons.

d)

time of occurrence.

22.

In some emergency communication centers, the responsibilities of calltaking and dispatching are distinct roles performed by separate individuals.

a)

true

b)

false

23.

What does the term “mechanism of injury” (MOI) refer to?

a)

an incident that involves an acute or chronic illness or other malady

b)

the substances that typically cause drug overdoses and poisonings

c)

a response level determined by medical professionals and Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD) evaluation

d)

the exchange of forces that results in an injury to the patient

24.

When a caller is having difficulty understanding you over the phone, speaking louder is generally more helpful than speaking slower.

a)

true

b)

false

25.

In the context of law enforcement/police emergency radio telecommunications, BOLO stands for:

a)

“Be on the lookout.”

b)

“Body locator.”

c)

“Brief officers last on.”

d)

“Broadcast of lost officer.”

26.

Which of the following best describes the difference between eustress and distress?

a)

Eustress is felt immediately. Distress is only felt after a period of time.

b)

Eustress is internally sourced. Distress is externally sourced.

c)

Eustress is positive and motivating. Distress is negative and disabling.

d)

Eustress is experienced through others. Distress is experienced directly.

27.

An incident requiring a HAZMAT response involves:

a)

a nonemergency request for assistance.

b)

an electrical hazard without fire present.

c)

a rapidly growing forest fire.

d)

the release or escape of a gas, liquid, or solid that, in any quantity, poses a threat to life, health, or property.

28.

The International Academies of Emergency Dispatch® (IAED™) recognizes the emergency telecommunicator (ETC) as the first Incident Commander (IC) under the Incident Command System (ICS).

a)

true

b)

false

29.

Which of the following lists contains the Four Hallmarks of Distress?

a)

vicarious traumatization, activity overload, prolonged incidents, varying schedules

b)

persistent feelings of fatigue, loss of motivation for the job, negativity, persistent cynicism

c)

headaches, irritability, burnout, compassion fatigue

d)

memory loss, confusion, erratic movements, flashes of anger

30.

An effective quality improvement program includes random case review, private individual feedback, open shift/agency feedback, and:

a)

continuing dispatch education (CDE)

b)

critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)

c)

paid time off (PTO)

d)

predetermined appropriate punishment (PAP)

31.

In the context of firefighting, what does bunker (or turnout) gear refer to?

a)

firefighting suit specifically designed to be worn in extreme heat not caused by a structure fire

b)

suit used for protection from chemical absorption and respiration hazards

c)

self-contained breathing apparatus

d)

either the basic trousers, boots, and jacket worn by firefighters or the entire combination of personal protective gear

32.

The hysteria threshold refers to:

a)

callers who don’t act on their reflexive reactions during stressful events.

b)

defensive actions taken by callers who have been offended by a caller.

c)

the point at which a caller loses control over her/his actions and emotions.

d)

callers who have calmed down and suddenly become emotional again.

33.

A radio tuner is used to “tune into” a specific bandwidth signal. Each tuning point is commonly called:

a)

repeater

b)

channel

c)

an electromagnetic wave

d)

an antenna.

34.

Within the electromagnetic spectrum, radio waves are the highest energy wave-type.

a)

true

b)

false

35.

Quality improvement programs use quality assurance findings to:

a)

identify the poorest performing employees in order to punish them.

b)

develop strategies and training to help employees improve.

c)

reduce employment redundancies.

d)

post individual case review feedback for everyone to see.

36.

When an ETC is having trouble communicating with a caller who primarily speaks a foreign language, the ETC should:

a)

talk louder.

b)

ask the caller to repeat the information.

c)

obtain foreign language support, if available.

d)

politely explain to the caller that s/he can’t understand what the caller is saying and then perform a routine disconnect.

37.

In an emergency telecommunications context, what does the acronym CAD stand for?

a)

call assistance and dispatch

b)

calltakers and dispatchers

c)

computer-animated device

d)

computer-aided dispatch

38.

If a responder or field unit needs additional resources at the scene, who would typically be responsible for locating, notifying, and coordinating those additional resources?

a)

that responder or field unit

b)

the communication center’s director

c)

the chief training officer

d)

the emergency telecommunicator

39.

Which of the following lists contains the four priority symptoms?

a)

abdominal pain, heart palpitations, serious hemorrhage, severe pain (any)

b)

abdominal pain (any), blurred vision, heart palpitations, serious hemorrhage

c)

abnormal breathing, chest pain/discomfort (any), decreased level of consciousness, serious hemorrhage

d)

abnormal breathing, chest pain/discomfort, heart palpitations (any), severe pain

40.

In regard to legal negligence, causation is proven when:

a)

harm (physical, mental, or financial) has been verified.

b)

there were no clearly established standards of care.

c)

a duty was not performed or was performed inappropriately.

d)

a direct link between the breach of duty and the identified injury or damage has been established.

41.

Post-Dispatch Instructions (PDIs) are:

a)

instructions that provide a “dispatch diagnosis” of the patient’s problem.

b)

basic-level instructions given to the caller immediately after initiating dispatch.

c)

advanced-level instructions provided to the caller in time-critical situations.

d)

special instructions provided to responders while en route to an incident.

42.

The best definition for “wake-effect collision” from the following is:

a)

a traffic accident caused by the passage of an emergency vehicle that does not directly involve (hit) the emergency vehicle.

b)

a traffic accident involving an emergency vehicle and a civilian vehicle.

c)

a traffic accident involving two emergency vehicles.

d)

any accident involving or caused by an emergency vehicle.

43.

A fire/rescue apparatus is:

a)

a heat-resistant suit worn by fire/rescue responders when combating fires.

b)

the individual radios used by each fire/rescue responder.

c)

a protective suit worn by fire/rescue responders when entering hazardous environments.

d)

a mobile fire/rescue unit that responds to the scene of fire/rescue incidents.

44.

Quality assurance specialists listen to audio recordings of randomly selected calls in order to:

a)

compare ETC performance with specific protocol and customer service performance standards.

b)

publically post every ETC error that is detected.

c)

try to catch the ETC making mistakes.

d)

make fun of any ETC errors discovered.

45.

Which of the following terms is best described as a disorder that occurs when a person’s normal response to a traumatic event does not fade over the course of a few days or weeks?

a)

post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

b)

compassion fatigue

c)

learned helplessness

d)

fight or flight response (acute stress response)

46.

During a disaster, the Incident Command System (ICS) provides an important framework for:

a)

communication center management and preparedness.

b)

determining firefighting strategies and scene safety.

c)

maintaining command, managing resources, and coordinating efforts.

d)

creative problem solving and out-of-the box thinking.

47.

Which of the following is the best definition for “repetitive persistence”?

a)

A calming technique in which the calltaker repeats a phrase verbatim using a firm but caring tone. The phrase should contain both an action and a reason for the action.

b)

A calming technique in which the calltaker repeats a phrase verbatim using a firm but caring tone. The phrase includes the caller’s name or title and assurance that help is on the way.

c)

A calming technique in which the calltaker repeats each answer provided by the caller verbatim using a firm but caring tone.

d)

A calming technique in which the calltaker repeats the caller’s name or title verbatim using a firm but caring tone.

48.

For the caller, the perceived response time is often longer than the actual response time.

a)

true

b)

false

49.

Which of the following would be an example of a trauma incident?

a)

a report of a patient with a terrible headache

b)

a report of a burned patient

c)

a report of a patient who is seizing

d)

a report of a patient having diabetic problems

50.

Burnout is best described as:

a)

a fire/rescue term indicating that a fire has been extinguished.

b)

protective gear worn by firefighters.

c)

a type of exhaustion (or inability to function normally) resulting from a buildup of long-term stress.

d)

fatigue resulting from intense physical exercise.