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Blood Components Overview

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes the composition of blood shown in the diagram with plasma and formed elements?

a)

Blood is only plasma without cellular components

b)

Blood is solely formed elements without plasma

c)

Blood consists of plasma and formed elements

d)

Blood is plasma mixed with lymph fluid only

2.

In the tube diagram separating layers after centrifugation, what does the buffy coat primarily contain?

a)

Water and electrolytes only

b)

Erythrocytes only

c)

Leukocytes and platelets

d)

Plasma proteins only

3.

Which plasma protein is removed to produce serum?

a)

Fibrinogen

b)

Albumin

c)

Regulatory proteins

d)

Globulins

4.

Based on the differential count ranges shown, which leukocyte type is most abundant in normal blood?

a)

Neutrophils are the most abundant

b)

Basophils are the most abundant

c)

Lymphocytes are the most abundant

d)

Monocytes are the most abundant

5.

Which set correctly lists the formed elements of blood depicted in the diagram?

a)

Erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets

b)

Albumins, globulins, fibrinogen

c)

Water, electrolytes, nutrients

d)

Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes

6.

In the oxygen pressure graph, where is O2 pressure highest?

a)

Arterial blood after lung capillaries

b)

Venous blood before lungs

c)

Systemic capillaries after tissues

d)

Venous blood returning from tissues

7.

According to the O2 pressure curve, what happens to oxygen levels as blood passes through systemic capillaries?

a)

O2 pressure decreases due to tissue exchange

b)

O2 pressure oscillates without trend

c)

O2 pressure increases sharply to peak

d)

O2 pressure remains constant throughout

8.

Which plasma protein primarily maintains blood’s osmotic pressure within the microvasculature?

a)

Albumin produced by the liver

b)

α-globulins transporting lipids

c)

β-globulins carrying iron ions

d)

Fibrinogen polymerizing to fibrin

9.

Which statement best describes fibrinogen’s role during hemostasis?

a)

Polymerizes to insoluble cross-linked fibrin

b)

Transports iron and lipids systemically

c)

Neutralizes bacterial toxins in plasma

d)

Acts as the main osmotic regulator

10.

Select the globulin types correctly paired with a chief function.

a)

β-globulins—carry iron ions and lipids

b)

α-globulins—polymerize into fibrin

c)

α-globulins—transport some lipids and metal ions

d)

γ-globulins—serve as immunoglobulins

11.

Which component makes up the largest proportion of blood plasma by percentage?

a)

Water at about ninety-two percent

b)

Fibrinogen at nearly four percent

c)

Albumin at around fifty-eight percent

d)

Globulins at roughly thirty-seven percent

12.

All plasma proteins share which general function listed below?

a)

Convert carbon dioxide to bicarbonate

b)

Buffer against pH changes

c)

Catalyze aerobic respiration

d)

Establish membrane potentials

13.

Which set correctly matches solute category with its role in plasma homeostasis?

a)

Electrolytes—regulate osmotic balance and pH

b)

Wastes—enhance plasma viscosity

c)

Nutrients—energy source and biosynthetic precursors

d)

Respiratory gases—oxygen for respiration, CO₂ as waste

14.

Which is TRUE of complement proteins in plasma?

a)

Primary agents maintaining osmotic pressure

b)

Major carriers of iron throughout bloodstream

c)

Factors involved in inflammation and microbe destruction

d)

Structural precursors of fibrin in clots

15.

Which pairing of component and function is INCORRECT?

a)

Albumin—retains fluid within microvasculature

b)

γ-globulins—antibodies mediating immune responses

c)

β-globulins—transport respiratory gases predominantly

d)

Fibrinogen—participates in blood coagulation

16.

During clotting, which direct transformation occurs to limit blood loss from small vessels?

a)

Albumin to transport lipoproteins

b)

Fibrinogen to cross-linked fibrin

c)

γ-globulins to complement enzymes

d)

β-globulins to prothrombin factors

17.

Which statement accurately compares albumin and globulins in plasma?

a)

Albumin carries iron; globulins buffer pH exclusively

b)

Albumin forms fibrin; globulins maintain osmotic pressure

c)

Albumin mediates inflammation; globulins are metabolic wastes

d)

Albumin is most abundant; globulins include transporters and antibodies

18.

In the stained blood smear diagram, which component is identified as the small, anucleate discs predominating the field?

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Platelets

19.

During smear preparation shown in the diagram sequence, what is the purpose of using a second slide to pull the drop across the first slide?

a)

Create a thin film

b)

Increase stain uptake

c)

Remove plasma proteins

d)

Prevent hemolysis

20.

Which labeled leukocyte in the diagram has a large kidney-shaped nucleus and abundant cytoplasm?

a)

Lymphocyte

b)

Monocyte

c)

Basophil

d)

Band neutrophil

21.

Identify the feature of normal erythrocytes visible in the sectional view diagram:

a)

Biconcave disc

b)

Cylindrical tube

c)

Spherical cell

d)

Biconvex lens

22.

According to the dimension labels on the erythrocyte diagram, what is the approximate thickness at the edge of a normal RBC?

a)

0.75 micrometers

b)

2.6 micrometers

c)

15 micrometers

d)

7.5 micrometers

23.

In the micrograph illustrating rouleaux, what arrangement of RBCs is depicted?

a)

Radial spokes

b)

Parallel rows

c)

Random clusters

d)

Stacked coins

24.

Which statements about erythrocyte morphology are correct based on the diagrams?

a)

High surface-to-volume ratio

b)

Flexible to pass capillaries

c)

Central pallor due to thin center

d)

Contains prominent nucleus

25.

What is the typical red blood cell concentration in adult women per microliter?

a)

6.5–8.0 million per microliter

b)

4.1–6.0 million per microliter

c)

3.9–5.5 million per microliter

d)

2.0–3.0 million per microliter

26.

Which best describes the plasma membrane composition of a red blood cell?

a)

30% lipid, 20% carbohydrate, 50% protein

b)

40% lipid, 10% carbohydrate, 50% protein

c)

50% lipid, 10% carbohydrate, 40% protein

d)

40% lipid, 20% carbohydrate, 40% protein

27.

Which proteins are integral membrane components commonly found in red blood cells?

a)

Band 3 protein

b)

Ankyrin

c)

Glycophorin A

d)

Spectrin

28.

Which cytoskeletal arrangement maintains red blood cell shape and flexibility?

a)

Keratin filaments linked to desmin

b)

Spectrin lattice bound to actin

c)

Tubulin network connected to myosin

d)

Collagen mesh anchored to integrins

29.

What is the typical lifespan of a human red blood cell?

a)

60 days

b)

90 days

c)

120 days

d)

180 days

30.

Which event initiates polymerization of HbS leading to sickling in capillaries?

a)

Oxidation of heme iron by ROS

b)

Phosphorylation of beta chains

c)

Deoxygenation of hemoglobin S

d)

Binding of CO to hemoglobin

31.

Select the consequences of sickle cell disease at the microcirculatory level.

a)

Greater blood viscosity

b)

Improved capillary flexibility

c)

Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues

d)

Poor microvascular circulation

32.

In sickle cell disease, which specific missense change occurs in the beta-globin chain?

a)

Glutamate to valine substitution

b)

Valine to glutamate substitution

c)

Glycine to proline substitution

d)

Proline to glycine substitution

33.

Which leukocyte is the most abundant in peripheral blood and primarily phagocytoses bacteria?

a)

Eosinophil

b)

Basophil

c)

Neutrophil

d)

Lymphocyte

e)

Monocyte

34.

Which leukocyte has a bilobed nucleus and combats helminthic parasites while modulating local inflammation?

a)

Eosinophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Basophil

d)

Lymphocyte

35.

Which leukocyte releases histamine to modulate inflammation, especially during allergic reactions?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Basophil

d)

Monocyte

36.

Which cell type serves as an effector and regulatory cell in adaptive immunity and can live from hours to many years?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Basophil

c)

Eosinophil

d)

Lymphocyte

37.

Which leukocyte differentiates into macrophages and other mononuclear phagocytic cells within tissues?

a)

Eosinophil

b)

Monocyte

c)

Neutrophil

d)

Basophil

38.

Which of the following are granulocytes?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Basophils

e)

Monocytes

39.

What nuclear morphology best characterizes neutrophils on a blood smear?

a)

Three to five lobes

b)

Bilobed or S-shaped

c)

Indented or C-shaped

d)

Rather spherical

40.

Which leukocyte typically shows red to dark pink specific granules on routine stains?

a)

Eosinophil

b)

Basophil

c)

Neutrophil

d)

Monocyte

41.

Arrange the following leukocytes by typical differential count from highest to lowest: Basophils, Neutrophils, Eosinophils.

a)

Neutrophils > Eosinophils > Basophils

b)

Eosinophils > Basophils > Neutrophils

c)

Eosinophils > Neutrophils > Basophils

d)

Basophils > Neutrophils > Eosinophils

42.

Which pair correctly matches a leukocyte with a principal function?

a)

Monocyte—mediate immediate hypersensitivity

b)

Basophil—release histamine in allergy

c)

Lymphocyte—phagocytose bacteria rapidly

d)

Neutrophil—kill helminths and parasites

43.

Which leukocyte typically has dark blue to purple specific granules and may have a bilobed or S-shaped nucleus?

a)

Eosinophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Basophil

d)

Lymphocyte

44.

Which statements about agranulocytes are correct?

a)

They are always shorter lived than neutrophils

b)

They function in adaptive and phagocytic roles

c)

They lack specific cytoplasmic granules

d)

They include lymphocytes and monocytes

45.

Which statement best describes where leukocytes become functional after leaving circulation?

a)

They act mainly inside venule lumens

b)

They function in lymph node sinuses

c)

They act within bone marrow niches

d)

They become functional at tissue sites

46.

Which pair correctly lists the two major divisions of leukocytes?

a)

Granulocytes and agranulocytes

b)

Erythrocytes and platelets

c)

Neutrophils and eosinophils

d)

Monocytes and lymphocytes

47.

Upon entering connective tissue, what shape change and motility do leukocytes typically exhibit?

a)

Spindle shape with flagella

b)

Spherical and ameboid motility

c)

Flattened and ciliated movement

d)

Biconcave and passive drift

48.

Which group is classified as granulocytes?

a)

Megakaryocytes, platelets, erythrocytes

b)

Lymphocytes, NK cells, plasma

c)

Monocytes, macrophages, dendritic

d)

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

49.

Granulocytes contain two granule types. Which pairing is accurate?

a)

Peroxisomes and glycogen granules

b)

Secretory granules and melanosomes

c)

Azurophilic lysosomes and specific granules

d)

Primary lysosomes and tertiary vesicles

50.

Which statement about agranulocytes on the slide is correct?

a)

They primarily stain with neutral dyes

b)

They have abundant Golgi and ER

c)

They include lymphocytes and monocytes

d)

They lack azurophilic granules entirely

51.

Healthy adult leukocyte count per microliter is approximately which range?

a)

500–1,500 cells/µL

b)

4,500–11,000 cells/µL

c)

15,000–25,000 cells/µL

d)

50,000–100,000 cells/µL

52.

In the neutrophil migration diagram, which event is most directly mediated by selectins?

a)

Firm adhesion to endothelium

b)

Transendothelial diapedesis

c)

Chemokine-driven motility

d)

Slow rolling along endothelium

53.

Which molecules on endothelial cells bind neutrophil integrins to achieve firm adhesion?

a)

ICAM-1 receptors

b)

TLR4 receptors

c)

CD3 complexes

d)

Fc gamma receptors

54.

Which sequence correctly orders early steps of neutrophil recruitment shown?

a)

Selectin-mediated rolling

b)

Integrin activation and adhesion

c)

Cytokine release by macrophages

d)

Transendothelial migration

55.

Which statement best describes the typical proportion of neutrophils among circulating leukocytes?

a)

Approximately 54–62 percent in blood

b)

Approximately 10–20 percent in blood

c)

Approximately 30–40 percent in blood

d)

Approximately 70–80 percent in blood

56.

What is the usual nuclear morphology of a mature neutrophil?

a)

Nucleus with 2–5 lobules

b)

Bilobed nucleus only

c)

Nucleus with 8–10 lobules

d)

Single round nucleus

57.

Which granule type in neutrophils plays the major role in killing and degrading engulfed microorganisms?

a)

Secretory vesicle granules

b)

Tertiary gelatinase granules

c)

Azurophilic primary granules

d)

Specific secondary granules

58.

Select the functions correctly matched to the listed molecules found in neutrophil granules.

a)

Myeloperoxidase generates hypochlorite toxic to bacteria

b)

Lysozyme synthesizes bacterial cell walls

c)

Defensins disrupt membranes of many bacteria

d)

Myeloperoxidase degrades extracellular matrix proteins

59.

Compared with azurophilic granules, which features characterize specific secondary granules in neutrophils?

a)

Smaller and less dense than primary granules

b)

Pink staining and pale cytoplasm appearance

c)

Contain ECM-degrading enzymes

d)

Major source of hypochlorite generation

60.

Which finding would most likely indicate a female neutrophil in a blood smear?

a)

Blue cytoplasm lacking any granules

b)

Uniformly round nucleus with dense chromatin

c)

A drumstick appendage from condensed X chromosome

d)

Large azurophilic granules obscuring the nucleus

61.

Neutrophils contribute to inflammation by releasing which mediators?

a)

Cytokines

b)

Chemokines

c)

Lipid mediators

d)

Antibodies

62.

Which event directly follows a neutrophil engulfing bacteria into a phagosome?

a)

Azurophilic granules fuse and acidify

b)

Specific granules fuse and discharge

c)

Mitochondria increase ATP production

d)

Nucleus condenses and fragments

63.

During the respiratory burst, which reactive species is first generated and contributes to microbial killing?

a)

Hydrogen peroxide H2O2

b)

Hypochlorite OCl−

c)

Hydroxyl radical •OH

d)

Superoxide anion O2−

64.

Which combination forms a powerful microbial killing system inside neutrophils?

a)

MPO with halide ions

b)

Lysozyme with peptidoglycan

c)

Superoxide with halide ions

d)

Lactoferrin with iron

65.

What is the role of lactoferrin in neutrophil-mediated bacterial killing?

a)

Acts as a proton pump acidifier

b)

Perforates bacterial membranes

c)

Binds iron and starves bacteria

d)

Neutralizes superoxide anions

66.

Which outcome reflects the combined action of neutrophil enzymes and killing mechanisms on microbes and tissues?

a)

Increase in mitochondrial density

b)

Formation of viscous yellow pus

c)

Expansion of rough endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Generation of granular cytoplasm

67.

A hereditary defect in NADPH oxidase most directly leads to which consequence in neutrophils?

a)

Impaired actin polymerization and motility

b)

Failure to produce H2O2 and hypochlorite

c)

Excessive ECM digestion by proteases

d)

Loss of lysosomal enzymes and granules

68.

In the TEM image of a human neutrophil, what distinguishes azurophilic granules from specific granules?

a)

Presence of abundant mitochondria nearby

b)

Larger, electron-dense lysosomal nature

c)

Smaller, pale variably stained content

d)

Association with central Golgi apparatus

69.

Which feature best characterizes the nucleus of eosinophils?

a)

Multilobed irregular nucleus

b)

Anucleate cytoplasm

c)

Bilobed segmented nucleus

d)

Single round nucleus

70.

Eosinophil specific granules are described as large acidophilic and oval due to high content of which protein?

a)

C-reactive protein content

b)

Major basic protein content

c)

Lysozyme protein content

d)

Histamine binding protein

71.

What percentage of circulating leukocytes are typically eosinophils?

a)

Less than 1 percent

b)

About 1 to 3 percent

c)

Approximately 20 percent

d)

Around 5 to 10 percent

72.

Which combination of factors primarily enables eosinophils to kill parasitic worms (helminths)?

a)

Cytotoxic T-cell perforin

b)

Major basic protein in granules

c)

Eosinophilic peroxidase enzyme

d)

Other eosinophil toxins and enzymes

e)

Complement C3 convertase

73.

Which statement best explains why eosinophil granules stain acidophilic?

a)

Dominance of heme-containing peroxidases

b)

Presence of neutral mucopolysaccharides

c)

Granules contain abundant acidic lipids

d)

High arginine-rich MBP confers cationic charge

74.

In allergic reactions, eosinophils primarily contribute by releasing which mediators?

a)

Chemokines that recruit leukocytes

b)

Cytokines that modulate inflammation

c)

Interferons that inhibit parasites

d)

Lipid mediators that amplify allergy

75.

Beyond killing helminths, which function is attributed to eosinophils in tissues?

a)

Removing antigen–antibody complexes

b)

Presenting antigens to CD8 T cells

c)

Synthesizing complement proteins

d)

Producing antibodies against viruses