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Grade 8 ICT Exam Revision

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main function of System Software in a computer system?

a)

To allow users to play games

b)

To control and manage hardware and software resources

c)

To store personal data

d)

To edit text documents

2.

Which of the following is an example of system software?

a)

Web browser

b)

Antivirus software

c)

Operating system

d)

Word processor

3.

What does a computer system's processor (CPU) do?

a)

It stores files and documents

b)

It processes data and executes instructions

c)

It provides a graphical interface

d)

It supplies power to the computer

4.

Which part of a computer is considered the "brain" of the system?

a)

Hard drive

b)

Monitor

c)

Central Processing Unit (CPU)

d)

Keyboard

5.

What is a computer network?

a)

A collection of websites

b)

A group of connected computers that share resources

c)

A method to store data

d)

A device that processes data

6.

What is the purpose of a Local Area Network (LAN)?

4 lines
7.

Which of the following is a task performed by the processor?

a)

Receiving input from the keyboard

b)

Fetching and executing instructions

c)

Displaying images on the monitor

d)

Providing power to the system

8.

What happens if there is no operating system on a computer?

a)

The computer will turn on but not function properly

b)

The computer will not turn on at all

c)

The computer will still run programs as usual

d)

The computer will only display the image

9.

Which of the following is true about system software?

a)

It helps users write documents

b)

It manages the computer’s hardware and runs application programs

c)

It is optional for a computer to function

d)

It refers to games and other entertainment programs

10.

What is the primary role of an operating system (OS)?

a)

To run games and entertainment programs

b)

To manage files and folders

c)

To control hardware resources and allow software to run

d)

To provide internet connectivity

11.

What is the difference between hardware and software in a computer system?

a)

Hardware is the physical components, while software is the programs and instructions

b)

Hardware refers to external devices, and software is stored on USB drives

c)

Software is tangible, while hardware is not

d)

There is no difference between hardware and software

12.

What type of network connects computers in different cities or countries?

a)

Local Area Network (LAN)

b)

Personal Area Network (PAN)

c)

Wide Area Network (WAN)

d)

Home Area Network (HAN)

13.

Which of the following is the purpose of the memory in a computer system?

a)

To permanently store data for future use

b)

To temporarily hold data and instructions being processed

c)

To display information to the user

d)

To provide power to the computer system

14.

What is the primary role of an operating system?

a)

To design hardware components

b)

To manage hardware resources and allow software to run

c)

To provide power to the system

d)

To connect the computer to the internet

15.

Which of the following is a task performed by an operating system?

a)

Writing documents

b)

Managing memory and processor time

c)

Installing hardware components

d)

Designing software applications

16.

How does an operating system manage hardware devices?

a)

By directly controlling the devices

b)

By acting as an intermediary between applications and the hardware

c)

By running the hardware's built-in software

d)

By disconnecting non-essential devices

17.

Which of the following is an example of an operating system managing storage?

a)

A) Organizing files and folders on the hard drive

b)

B) Running an antivirus program

c)

C) Compressing files for backup

d)

D) Displaying images on the monitor

18.

What does an operating system do when multiple programs are running at the same time?

a)

It crashes the system

b)

It allows only one program to run

19.

How does an operating system manage memory?

a)

By allocating memory to running programs and freeing it when no longer needed

b)

By storing programs permanently

c)

By compressing data in memory

d)

By copying data between RAM and ROM

20.

Which task is performed by the operating system to manage applications?

a)

It automatically creates new applications

b)

It allocates resources to run the applications and terminates them when finished

c)

It stores applications permanently on the disk

d)

It updates applications automatically

21.

What is the function of a file system in an operating system?

a)

It creates new hardware devices

b)

It organizes and manages how data is stored and retrieved on storage devices

c)

It controls network settings

d)

It compresses data automatically

22.

Which of the following is an example of the operating system handling files?

a)

Copying, renaming, and deleting files

b)

Connecting to the internet

c)

Running a web browser

d)

Installing drivers

23.

What is the purpose of device drivers in an operating system?

a)

To allow the operating system to communicate with hardware devices

b)

To store data on external devices

c)

To update the operating system

d)

To increase system performance

24.

How does an operating system handle system security?

a)

By managing user permissions and providing security features like firewalls

b)

By installing antivirus software automatically

25.

What happens if the operating system's memory management fails?

a)

A) Programs may crash or the system may freeze

b)

B) New files cannot be created

c)

C) The computer will automatically reboot

d)

D) The processor will stop working

26.

Which of the following is NOT a task of the operating system?

a)

A) Managing hardware resources

b)

B) Designing software applications

c)

C) Handling file storage and retrieval

d)

D) Running programs in the background

27.

How does the operating system control user access to files and applications?

a)

It automatically creates a backup of user files

b)

It manages user accounts and permissions

c)

It encrypts all files on the system

d)

It deletes old user accounts automatically

28.

What is the primary function of utility programs in a computer system?

a)

To create new hardware devices

b)

To perform maintenance tasks that optimize and protect the system

c)

To write software applications

d)

To replace the operating system

29.

Which of the following is an example of a utility program?

(a)  

30.

What is the role of device drivers in a computer system?

a)

To allow the operating system to communicate with hardware devices

b)

To increase the speed of the processor

c)

To update the operating system automatically

d)

To store files permanently

31.

What does a defragmentation tool do in a computer system?

a)

It deletes unnecessary files

b)

It cleans the computer's registry

c)

It reorganizes scattered data on the hard drive to improve performance

d)

It compresses files to save space

32.

Which of the following is an example of security software?

a)

Web browser

b)

Antivirus program

c)

Disk partitioning tool

d)

Graphics card driver

33.

What is the main purpose of antivirus software?

a)

To organize files on the computer

b)

To detect and remove malware from the system

c)

To enhance system speed

d)

To defragment the hard drive

34.

Why are utility programs like firewalls important?

a)

They help improve the graphical quality of games

b)

They monitor and block unauthorized access to the network

c)

They increase the speed of the internet connection

d)

They are used to install new drivers

35.

What does a disk cleanup utility do?

a)

It defragments the hard drive

b)

It removes unnecessary files to free up space

c)

It repairs damaged files

d)

It backs up important data

36.

Which of the following is an example of a file management utility?

a)

Graphics editing software

b)

File compression tool (e.g., WinZip)

c)

Web development tool

d)

Media player

37.

Why is defragmentation important for maintaining a computer’s performance?

a)

It deletes duplicate files

b)

It updates the operating system

c)

It reorganizes fragmented data to speed up file access

d)

It scans for viruses

38.

Which of the following is true about device drivers?

a)

They are used to store files

b)

They ensure the correct operation of hardware devices

c)

They monitor system performance

d)

They defragment the hard drive

e)

It organizes files into folders

39.

What does the term "scalability" refer to in network design?

a)

A) The speed of the network

b)

B) The capacity to be changed in size or scale

c)

C) The security of the network

d)

D) The type of cables used in the network

40.

Which of the following factors can affect the scalability of a network?

a)

A) Distance and amount of data to be transmitted

b)

B) Type of operating system

c)

C) Size of the server

d)

D) Color of the cables

41.

How can the impact of distance on network scalability be mitigated?

a)

A) By using faster processors

b)

B) By using signal boosters or ethernet cables

42.

Why is it important to ensure network scalability?

a)

To reduce the cost of hardware

b)

To ensure the network can grow and handle more data over time

c)

To improve the quality of the internet connection

d)

To reduce the number of users on the network

43.

What is the role of a signal booster in a network?

a)

It amplifies the signal to allow devices further away to connect

b)

It speeds up data processing in the CPU

c)

It secures the data being transmitted

d)

It stores additional network data

44.

Which of the following can improve a weak wireless signal in a network?

a)

Adding a signal booster

b)

Replacing the hard drive

c)

Lowering the bandwidth

d)

Disconnecting other devices

45.

What is the role of a router in a network?

a)

To secure the network from hackers

b)

To receive and forward data, connecting the network to the internet

c)

To store data permanently

d)

To increase the bandwidth of the network

46.

Why might a signal booster be needed in a network?

a)

To increase the download speed of the network

b)

Because the signal does not reach far enough or obstacles are in the way

c)

To lower the cost of network maintenance

d)

To improve the visual quality of web pages

47.

Which of the following is a potential cost factor when designing a network?

a)

Speed of the processor

b)

Operating system version

c)

Adding Wi-Fi boosters or cables to extend the network

d)

The colour of the cables used

48.

What is one reason Wi-Fi might be cheaper than a wired network?

a)

A) New devices can be added without needing additional cables

b)

B) Wi-Fi requires fewer security protocols

c)

C) Wi-Fi networks have unlimited bandwidth

d)

D) Wi-Fi does not need routers

49.

What is the primary purpose of network security?

a)

To increase the speed of the network

b)

To protect data, systems, and networks from unauthorized access, attacks, or damage

c)

To improve the graphics quality of websites

d)

To reduce the cost of hardware

50.

Which of the following is a key factor to consider when implementing network security?

a)

Color of network cables

b)

Accessibility, cost, and data sensitivity

c)

Size of the monitor

d)

Number of devices connected to the network

51.

What is the trade-off between security and accessibility in network design?

a)

More security always improves accessibility

b)

The more secure a system, the harder it might be to access

c)

Security does not affect accessibility

d)

Increased accessibility makes systems more secure

52.

What is the role of firewalls in network security?

a)

To store data on the network

b)

To filter incoming and outgoing traffic as the first line of defence

c)

To increase the speed of data transmission

d)

To manage user passwords

53.

How does encryption help secure a network?

a)

It converts data into a coded format to prevent unauthorized access

b)

It removes viruses from the system

c)

It filters network traffic

54.

Which of the following is a benefit of using a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?

a)

It encrypts internet connections for secure remote access

b)

It increases the bandwidth of the network

c)

It speeds up data processing in the CPU

d)

It secures files on a local computer

55.

What is the function of Access Control Lists (ACLs) in network security?

a)

To boost the internet connection speed

b)

To define permissions for who can access specific resources in a network

c)

To encrypt data in storage

d)

To reduce the cost of maintaining a network

56.

Which type of data would require the highest level of security measures?

a)

Social media posts

b)

Financial or healthcare records

c)

Publicly available data

d)

General business emails

57.

What does multi-factor authentication provide in terms of network security?

a)

A) Faster access to the network

b)

B) Stronger authentication by requiring multiple forms of verification

c)

C) Automatic encryption of all data

d)

D) Unlimited access to network resources

58.

What is the primary role of antivirus software in network security?

a)

To encrypt data

b)

To protect systems from malicious attacks

c)

To manage network traffic

d)

To control user access to resources

59.

A network topology is:

a)

the arrangement of different elements (links, nodes, etc.) in a computer network

b)

a type of computer virus

c)

a programming language used for networking

d)

the speed at which data travels in a network

60.

What is a network topology?

a)

The physical layout/arrangement of devices in a network

b)

The software used to manage network traffic

c)

A method to secure data in a network

d)

The speed at which data is transmitted in a network

61.

In a bus topology, how are the devices connected?

a)

All devices are connected to a single central device

b)

Devices are connected in a closed loop

c)

Devices are connected to a single central cable

d)

Devices are connected wirelessly

62.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a ring topology?

a)

Each device is connected to every other device

b)

All devices are connected to a central hub

c)

Data travels in one direction around a closed loop

d)

Data is transmitted randomly to all devices

63.

What happens if the central hub fails in a star topology?

a)

Only one device loses connection

b)

The entire network is disrupted

c)

Data is rerouted automatically

d)

Only the hub will need to be replaced

64.

Which topology has the advantage of being simple to install but is prone to data collisions?

a)

A) Bus topology

b)

B) Ring topology

c)

C) Star topology

d)

D) Mesh topology

65.

Which of the following is an advantage of the star topology?

4 lines
66.

What is the disadvantage of the bus topology?

a)

It requires a lot of cabling

b)

It is difficult to add new devices

c)

It has low data collision rates

d)

If the main cable fails, the entire network fails

67.

How does a ring topology handle data transmission?

a)

Data is sent directly from one device to another without interruption

b)

Data travels in both directions around the loop

c)

Data travels in one direction, and each device passes it along until it reaches the destination

d)

Data is broadcast to all devices at once

68.

Which of the following is a key disadvantage of a star topology?

a)

High cost due to the use of a central hub

b)

Low fault tolerance because all devices share the same connection

c)

Slow data transfer rates

d)

Difficulty in troubleshooting network issues

69.

What is the advantage of a ring topology over a bus topology?

a)

It is easier to add new devices

b)

It has no data collisions, making it more efficient

c)

It uses fewer cables than a bus topology

d)

It is more reliable in case of a central device failure

70.

What is the primary purpose of a parity bit?

a)

To increase the speed of data transmission

b)

To compress data for storage

c)

To detect errors in data transmission

d)

To encrypt data for security

71.

In even parity, what happens if the total number of 1s in the data and parity bit is odd?

a)

Data is accepted as correct

b)

A parity bit is added to make the total even

c)

Data is compressed to remove the extra 1s

d)

No action is taken

72.

Which type of parity requires the total number of 1s, including the parity bit, to be odd?

a)

Even parity

b)

Odd parity

c)

Error parity

d)

Reverse parity

73.

If a parity bit is used and an error occurs during data transmission, what is the main limitation of parity error detection?

a)

It cannot detect any errors

b)

It can only detect errors but cannot correct them

c)

It can correct errors but not detect them

d)

It adds significant delays in transmission

74.

How does a parity bit detect an error in a transmitted data packet?

4 lines
75.

What type of errors can a single parity bit detect?

a)

Single-bit errors only

b)

Multiple-bit errors only

c)

Both single-bit and multiple-bit errors

d)

No errors at all

76.

Which of the following is a major disadvantage of parity bits in error detection?

a)

They require complex hardware

b)

They cannot detect multiple-bit errors

c)

They reduce the reliability of the data

d)

They increase data transmission time significantly

77.

If a system uses even parity and a data packet contains the bits 1011011, what would be the parity bit?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

Cannot be determined

78.

What is the primary role of a protocol in data transmission?

a)

To provide encryption for secure communication

b)

To define rules and standards for data exchange between devices

79.

Which of the following is a fundamental function of the TCP/IP protocol?

a)

Securing data with encryption

b)

Managing hardware devices

c)

Breaking data into packets and ensuring their reliable delivery

d)

Compressing data to save bandwidth

80.

How does TCP ensure reliable data transmission?

a)

By encrypting all data packets

b)

By confirming the receipt of each packet and retransmitting lost packets

c)

By compressing data to reduce transmission time

d)

By using shorter data packets

81.

What is the relationship between TCP and IP in the TCP/IP protocol suite?

a)

TCP handles hardware communication, while IP handles software communication

b)

TCP manages application data, while IP handles addressing and routing packets

c)

TCP encrypts data, while IP ensures secure delivery

d)

TCP and IP are identical protocols with no distinct roles

82.

Which protocol in the TCP/IP suite is responsible for ensuring packets are routed to the correct destination?

a)

TCP

b)

HTTP

c)

IP

d)

FTP

83.

IP stands for:

a)

Internet Protocol

b)

Internal Process

c)

Input Port

d)

Information Path

84.

What does TCP stand for?

a)

Transmission control protocol

b)

Transfer control people

c)

Transfer control protocol

d)

None of the above

85.

What is the primary focus of Industry 4.0?

a)

Manual labour-intensive production processes

b)

Integration of advanced digital technologies in manufacturing

c)

Minimizing automation in industrial settings

d)

Increasing fossil fuel consumption in industries

86.

Which of the following is an example of Machine Learning in Industry 4.0?

a)

Robots performing repetitive tasks without adaptation

b)

A system that learns from production data to optimize efficiency

c)

A factory that exclusively relies on human workers

d)

Manual scheduling of production tasks

87.

What role does Machine Learning play in predictive maintenance?

a)

Predicting the design of new machines

b)

Analyzing data to forecast when a machine might fail

c)

Automating repairs without human intervention

d)

Reducing the need for maintenance entirely

88.

How does Machine Learning contribute to quality control in manufacturing?

a)

By replacing all workers with robots

b)

By identifying defects in products through automated data analysis

89.

Internet provider

a)

Internet Protocol

b)

Internet people

c)

None of the above

90.

Which of the following is an appropriate use of a spreadsheet model?

a)

Creating a dynamic simulation for financial forecasting

b)

Storing and querying large volumes of unstructured data

c)

Generating static reports without calculations

d)

Managing relational data across multiple tables

91.

What does the MAX function in a spreadsheet do?

a)

Calculates the average of a range of cells

b)

Finds the largest value in a range of cells

c)

Adds up all the values in a range of cells

d)

Counts the number of numeric values in a range of cells

92.

In a spreadsheet, the formula =MIN(A1:A10) will:

a)

Return the smallest value in the range A1 to A10

b)

Return the sum of all values in the range A1 to A10

c)

Display the difference between the largest and smallest values in the range

d)

Count the number of cells with numeric values in the range

93.

What is the purpose of naming a cell in a spreadsheet?

a)

To organise data in alphabetical order

b)

To make formulas easier to understand and reference

94.

Which of the following is the correct formula to find the number of numeric values in a range?

a)

=SUM(A1:A10)

b)

=COUNT(A1:A10)

c)

=COUNTA(A1:A10)

d)

=MAX(A1:A10)

95.

If you need to calculate the smallest value in a range and ignore blank cells, which function should you use?

a)

=MAX(A1:A10)

b)

=MIN(A1:A10)

c)

=COUNTA(A1:A10)

d)

=SUM(A1:A10)

96.

Why are spreadsheet models widely used in business environments?

a)

They require no training or knowledge to use

b)

They can automate repetitive calculations and analysis

c)

They replace databases in all cases

d)

They eliminate the need for software like word processors

97.

What is a cell in Google Sheets?

a)

A. A collection of worksheets

b)

B. The intersection of a row and a column

c)

C. A formula used for calculations

d)

D. A group of charts

98.

Which of the following is an example of a cell reference?

a)

A. A1

b)

B. SUM

c)

C. Sheet1

d)

D. Data Range

99.

Which of the following is a basic operation in Google Sheets?

a)

= Average(A1:A5)

b)

= A1 + B1

c)

= COUNTIF(B2:B10, ">5")

d)

= FILTER(A1:B5, A1:A5 > 10)

100.

The formula =COUNT(A1:A10) will:

a)

Count all non-empty cells

b)

Count only cells containing text

c)

Count only cells containing numbers

d)

Count empty cells