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WorksheetsASNT SET-1
Total questions: 138
Worksheet time: 2hrs 18mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
To join two metals which of the following is essential?
a)
A) Atomic closeness
b)
B) Atomic cleanliness
c)
C) Melting
d)
D) Both A and B
2.
A typical application of powder metallurgy parts is:
a)
A) Cutting tools
b)
B) Castings for human implants
c)
C) Extrusion of thin sections
d)
D) Metal fabrication of minute welds
3.
Which of the following welding processes has the capability of producing the deepest penetration?
a)
A) Submerged arc
b)
B) Oxyacetylene gas
c)
C) Gas metal arc
d)
D) Electron beam
4.
Crater cracks in weld usually result from:
a)
A) Too high heat input
b)
B) Too low heat input
c)
C) Interruption in the welding operation
d)
D) Improper welding electrodes
5.
One millimeter is equal to:
a)
A) 25 microns
b)
B) 40 microns
c)
C) 100 microns
d)
D) 1000 microns
6.
Which of the following properties cannot be derived from a stress–strain curve?
a)
A) Yield strength
b)
B) Ultimate tensile strength
c)
C) Toughness
d)
D) % reduction in area
7.
In sand casting, chaplets are made from:
a)
A) Sand with binders
b)
B) Hard material that does not collapse
c)
C) Metal that fuses with the casting
d)
D) Wax
8.
Which of the following could NOT be a cause of failure under static loads?
a)
A) Low fatigue stress
b)
B) Low section thickness
c)
C) Large discontinuities
d)
D) Excessive overloading
9.
S–N curves are used to determine:
a)
A) The tensile strength of a material
b)
B) The creep properties of a material
c)
C) The fatigue strength of a material
d)
D) The Young’s modulus of a material
10.
Typically the highest quality of steel is produced in:
a)
A) A open-hearth furnace
b)
B) A Bessemer furnace
c)
C) A Basic Oxygen furnace
d)
D) An electric furnace
11.
The part is an aluminium forging. The indication is sharp, half-moon shape, NOT deep, and is called:
a)
A) A lap
b)
B) Center line porosity
c)
C) Heat-treat crack
d)
D) False indication
12.
A large forging is repaired by welding. Magnetic particle inspection of the repair weld reveals an irregular indication running parallel with the weld passes. It is located near the centre of the bead. This is most likely:
a)
A) Inclusions
b)
B) Crater cracks
c)
C) Weld shrinkage cracks
d)
D) Surface checking
13.
Nondestructive testing technique best suited to locating discontinuities caused by inclusions rolled into steel plate is:
a)
A) Radiographic inspection
b)
B) Ultrasonic inspection
c)
C) Visual inspection
d)
D) Magnetic particle inspection
14.
Which of the following would have least ductility?
a)
A) Cold-rolled steel plate
b)
B) Hot-rolled plate
c)
C) Gray cast iron
d)
D) Hot-rolled aluminium plate
15.
The term used to describe a discontinuity in a casting that occurs when molten metal fails to fuse at the interface with already solidified metal is:
a)
A) Segregation
b)
B) Hot tear
c)
C) Cold shut
d)
D) Lack of fusion
16.
Large voids or porosity in a casting results from:
a)
A) Turbulent flow of molten metal during pouring
b)
B) Alloy element segregation
c)
C) Molten metal boiling because of superheat
d)
D) Gas evolution during solidification
17.
When steel has been quench-hardened and is reheated to some point below the lower transformation temperature to reduce brittleness, this is called:
a)
A) Austenitization
b)
B) Thermal slip deformation
c)
C) Allotropic change
d)
D) Tempering
18.
An NDT method that has the ability to measure changes in electrical conductivity caused by the effects of heat treatment is:
a)
A) Magnetic particle testing
b)
B) Acoustic emission testing
c)
C) Eddy current testing
d)
D) Immersion ultrasonic testing
19.
Even at the early stages of product planning, nondestructive testing should be considered because:
a)
A) It may be required by codes and specifications
b)
B) The design should permit easy access to critical areas for later inspection
c)
C) The materials selected should be compatible with an NDT technique that can accurately evaluate the product
d)
D) All of the above are important
20.
If properly utilized, NDT can assist in fracture control by:
a)
A) Accurately measuring the tensile strength of design materials, providing an accurate evaluation of the number and type of discontinuities that exist in a material
b)
B) Providing an accurate evaluation of the number and type of discontinuities that exist in a material
c)
C) Predicting the time it will take a given size discontinuity to grow to a critical size
d)
D) All of the above
21.
A nondestructive testing technique best suited to locating discontinuities caused by inclusions is:
a)
A) Radiographic inspection
b)
B) Ultrasonic inspection
c)
C) Visual inspection
d)
D) Magnetic particle inspection
22.
Which of the following would have least ductility?
a)
A) Cold-rolled steel plate
b)
B) Hot-rolled steel plate
c)
C) Gray cast iron
d)
D) Hot-rolled aluminium plate
23.
Which of the following gases are most frequently used as shielding to provide an inert atmosphere?
a)
A) Argon, helium, and carbon dioxide
b)
B) Neon, tritium, and helium
c)
C) Sulphur dioxide, argon, and oxygen
d)
D) Argon, nitrogen, and hydrogen
24.
Which of the following welding processes uses a non-consumable electrode?
a)
A) Gas tungsten arc welding
b)
B) Submerged arc welding
c)
C) Gas metal arc welding
d)
D) Electroslag welding
25.
Brass and bronze are alloys of zinc, tin, and a large percentage of:
a)
A) Beryllium
b)
B) Copper
c)
C) Lead
d)
D) Nickel
26.
Corrosion-resistant steels having relatively high percentages of nickel and chromium are:
a)
A) Wrought iron
b)
B) Low alloy steels
c)
C) Stainless steels
d)
D) Nonferrous steels
27.
Low carbon steel contains approximately:
a)
A) 0.6% to 2.5% carbon
b)
B) 0.06% to 0.25% carbon
c)
C) 0.5% to 1.06% carbon
d)
D) 5% to 16% carbon
28.
An undesirable by-product of steel-making processes is:
a)
A) Coke
b)
B) Low carbon steel
c)
C) Low alloy steel
d)
D) Slag
29.
The terms “precipitation hardening” and “solution heat treatment” are often used interchangeably with the term:
a)
A) Age hardening
b)
B) Recrystallization
c)
C) Annealing
d)
D) Work hardening
30.
Processes called austenitizing, annealing, normalizing, and spheroidizing are:
a)
A) Performed only on non-ferrous metals
b)
B) Approximate equilibrium heat-treatment processes
c)
C) Cold-working processes
d)
D) Age-hardening processes
31.
The terms “body-centered cubic”, “face-centered cubic”, and “hexagonal close-packed” all refer to the:
a)
A) Different size grains that can exist at the same time in a metallic structure
b)
B) Sequence of crystalline growth in typical mild steel
c)
C) Lattice structures that make up unit cells in a solid metallic structure
d)
D) Change in a metallic structure as it undergoes plastic deformation
32.
Many metals exhibit an increase in strength caused by plastic flow beyond the elastic limit. This effect is called:
a)
A) Twinning
b)
B) Plastic deformation
c)
C) Work hardening
d)
D) Recrystallization
33.
Which types of welding defects/imperfections are not permitted in welding?
a)
A) Porosity
b)
B) Undercut
c)
C) Crack
d)
D) Overlap
34.
Which of the following is a basic joint configuration?
a)
A) A T-joint
b)
B) A single J-joint
c)
C) A single V-joint
d)
D) All of the above
35.
Applying another material over base metal for corrosion protection is:
a)
A) Galvanizing
b)
B) Hard facing
c)
C) Cladding
d)
D) Buildup
36.
What type of defect is found in forging?
a)
A) Lap
b)
B) Hot tears
c)
C) Laminations
d)
D) LOF
37.
Halogen content of penetrant is required for use on:
a)
A) Magnesium
b)
B) Copper
c)
C) Stainless steel
d)
D) Carbon steel
38.
Hydrogen-induced cracks & hydrogen embrittlement are due to:
a)
A) Absorbed hydrogen
b)
B) Preheating & PWHT
c)
C) Soft microstructure containing mainly ferrite
d)
D) B & C
39.
A temperature of 80°F would be approximately equivalent to:
a)
A) 176°C
b)
B) 300°K
c)
C) 500° Rankine
d)
D) None of the above
40.
Excessive restraint in V-preparation butt weld can give:
a)
A) Distortion
b)
B) Cracks
c)
C) Deformation & yielding
d)
D) Lack of penetration
41.
Soldering occurs below what temperature?
a)
A) 315 °C (600 °F)
b)
B) 449 °C (840 °F)
c)
C) 840 °C (449 °F)
d)
D) 600 °C (315 °F)
42.
Neutron attenuation is greatest in which of the following materials?
a)
A) Hydrogenous material
b)
B) Water
c)
C) Lead
d)
D) Boron carbide
43.
To increase the neutron beam intensity:
a)
A) L/D ratio is increased
b)
B) L/D ratio is decreased
c)
C) Fast neutrons are used
d)
D) Moderators are employed
44.
Which of the following is considered to be a source of acoustic emission?
a)
A) Defect-related deformation
b)
B) Crack growth
c)
C) Plastic deformation
d)
D) All of the above
45.
Acoustic emission testing can be used:
a)
A) To monitor the welding process during welding
b)
B) To detect a cluster of porosity allowed by code but not propagating
c)
C) For in-service inspection
d)
D) Only (a) & (c)
46.
In AET, the location of the defect is done by:
a)
A) Triangulation technique
b)
B) The rectangular technique
c)
C) The circular technique
d)
D) None of the above
47.
Thermography can be used to detect:
a)
A) Debonds in laminated structures
b)
B) Hot spots in furnace linings
c)
C) Corroded portions in pipelines
d)
D) All of them
48.
The sensor used in thermography equipment for detecting infrared waves is:
a)
A) Quartz
b)
B) Liquid nitrogen
c)
C) Indium antimonite
d)
D) Barium titanate
49.
Which one of the following is the major disadvantage of thermography testing?
a)
A) Surface emissivity of the component under test should be known
b)
B) Corrections to be applied for long-distance use
c)
C) Periodic calibration is required
d)
D) All of the above
50.
The helium mass spectrometer detector probe pressure test technique is:
a)
A) A quantitative test.
b)
B) A qualitative test.
c)
C) A semi-automatic test.
d)
D) None of the above
51.
Leak testing & AE are different from all other NDT methods by using which one of the following?
a)
A) Probe or sensor
b)
B) Differential pressure gauge
c)
C) Meter
d)
D) CRT
52.
In leak testing by pressure drop method, the leak rate is given by L.R = V × ΔP / ΔT.
a)
A) 30 Kg/sec
b)
B) 2.8 Kg/sec
c)
C) 0.5 Kg/sec
d)
C) 0.6 Kg/sec
53.
A virtual leak is:
a)
A) Leak small enough to meet acceptance standards
b)
B) A leak so small as to be impossible to detect
c)
C) A leak from an isolated pocket within a vacuum system
d)
D) Outgassing vapours within a vacuum system
54.
The simultaneous comparison of a standard lamp and an unknown light source is called:
a)
A) Absolute photometry
b)
B) Relative photometry
c)
C) Direct photometry
d)
D) Substitution photometry
55.
When checking for imperfections on rolled slabs, which viewing technique gives the sharpest image?
a)
A) Television image from a vidicon
b)
B) Television image from a charged-coupled device
c)
C) Photographic image
d)
D) Both A & B
56.
Which of the following weld defects would be visually detectable on a completed weld?
a)
A) Lack of inter-run fusion
b)
B) Subsurface porosity
c)
C) Lack of side-wall fusion
d)
D) Undercut
57.
The type of penetrant to be used on an investment casting should be:
a)
A) Water-washable fluorescent for adequate sensitivity
b)
B) Solvent removable because of size and shape
c)
C) Post-emulsifiable fluorescent for maximum sensitivity
d)
D) Solvent removable for greater visibility
58.
The sensitivity of two penetrants for crack detection is best compared by:
a)
A) Using a hydrometer to measure specific gravity
b)
B) Using cracked aluminum blocks
c)
C) Measuring contact angles in a wetting test
d)
D) The meniscus test
59.
Which of the following types of discontinuities will not be detected by the liquid penetrant?
a)
A) Surface laminations
b)
B) Internal forging bursts
c)
C) Surface cracks
d)
D) Sub-surface cracks
60.
Which of the following emulsifiers can have problems with water contamination:
a)
A) Lipophilic
b)
B) Hydrophilic
c)
C) Both above
d)
D) None of the above
61.
Factors which must be considered when interpreting an indication are:
a)
A) The direction of the magnetic field
b)
B) The strength of the leakage field at the indication
c)
C) The orientation and shape of the indication
d)
D) All of the above
62.
Ferromagnetic material is:
a)
A) Strongly attracted by a magnet
b)
B) Capable of being magnetized
c)
C) Both A and B
d)
D) Not capable of being magnetized
63.
If you are inspecting 1" thick plate with 5" prod spacing for magnetic particle inspection, the required current is:
a)
A) 80 amps/inch
b)
B) 309 amps
c)
C) 500 amps
d)
D) 200 amp-turns
64.
Hall effect is used in measuring:
a)
A) Magnetizing force
b)
B) Flux density
c)
C) Conductivity
d)
D) Resistivity
65.
The ratio of the response or amplitude from signals of interest to the response or amplitude of indications with no useful information is called:
a)
A) Poisson’s ratio
b)
B) Signal-to-noise ratio
c)
C) Conductivity-to-permeability ratio
d)
D) Reactance-to-resistance ratio
66.
A term used to describe the effect observed due to a change in electromagnetic coupling between a test specimen and a probe:
a)
A) Fill factor
b)
B) Edge effect
c)
C) End effect
d)
D) Lift-off
67.
Eddy current testing requires that the material tested be:
a)
A) Magnetic
b)
B) Non-magnetic
c)
C) Conductive
d)
D) Both B and C
68.
At a fixed frequency, in which of the following materials will the eddy current penetration be greatest?
a)
A) Aluminum (35% IACS Conductivity)
b)
B) Brass (15% IACS Conductivity)
c)
C) Copper (95% IACS Conductivity)
d)
D) Lead (7% IACS Conductivity)
69.
In Eddy Current testing, the theoretical maximum testing speed is determined by the:
a)
A) Magnetic flux density
b)
B) Testing frequency
c)
C) Conveyer drive
d)
D) Test coil impedance
70.
Figure-1 shows which radiographic technique?
a)
A) Single wall Single image
b)
B) Double wall Single image
c)
C) Single wall Double image
d)
D) Double wall Double image
71.
Because it is frequently supplied as a water-soluble compound, which of the following is considered to have an additional radiological hazard potential associated with it?
a)
A) Cobalt-60
b)
B) Thulium-170
c)
C) Iridium-192
d)
D) Cesium-137
72.
Unexposed boxes of x-ray film should be stored:
a)
A) Flat
b)
B) On edge or end
c)
C) In a pile
d)
D) It doesn't matter
73.
An excellent radiograph is obtained under given exposure conditions with the film at 36 inches from the x-ray tube target. If the film is now moved to 30 inches, the new exposure time should be:
a)
A) Unchanged
b)
B) Longer by approximately 80 percent
c)
C) Shorter by approximately 55 percent
d)
D) Only about 25 percent as long as the original exposure time
74.
Converting old units to SI units, 100 Rads = 1 Gray (Gy).
a)
How many mGy are there in 1 rad?
b)
A) 0.10
c)
B) 1.00
d)
C) 10.00
75.
Dose rate is 600 mR/hr at 1 meter from a 1 Ci source of Ir-192.
a)
A) 6 mR/hr
b)
B) 0.6 mR/hr
c)
C) 0.06 mR/hr
d)
C) 0.07 mR/hr
76.
Which of the welds is best for radiography?
a)
A) Fillet weld
b)
B) T weld
c)
C) V groove weld
d)
D) Butt weld
77.
The pocket dosimeter has the advantage of:
a)
A) Being more accurate than the film badge
b)
B) Providing a permanent record of radiation exposure
c)
C) Providing an immediate indication of radiation exposure
d)
D) All of the above
78.
12 mm thick plates were welded using GTAW process. On radiographing this weld few spots of very light density were observed in the
a)
A) Porosity.
b)
B) Tungsten inclusions.
c)
C) Pin holes on the surface of the weld.
d)
D) Worm holes.
79.
The equation describing wavelength in terms of velocity and frequency is:
a)
A) Wavelength = Velocity × Frequency
b)
B) Wavelength = Z (Frequency × Velocity)
c)
C) Wavelength = Velocity / Frequency
d)
D) Wavelength = Frequency + Velocity
80.
Which probe is most suited to examine castings using ultrasonic?
a)
A) Small straight beam probe with high frequency should be used because it can detect even small defects and can be coupled to the curved and rough surface to a better degree.
b)
B) TR-probe with high frequency should be applied to detect even small blow holes near the surface.
c)
C) Straight beam probe with high frequency and large diameter because it has the best penetration.
d)
D) Straight beam probe with low frequency and large diameter because it is better suited to the high attenuation and scattering occurring in castings.
81.
The ultrasonic test method in which finger damping is most effective in locating a
a)
A) Shear wave
b)
B) Longitudinal wave
c)
C) Surface wave
d)
C) Angle beam
82.
The TOFD principle is based on evaluation of the
a)
A) Diffraction signals at crack edges
b)
B) Amplitude of the echo height
c)
C) Sound attenuation
d)
D) Frequency
83.
When working with flat-bottomed holes for calibration or evaluation purposes, what is the
a)
A) 5%
b)
B) 25%
c)
C) 50%
d)
D) 100%
84.
Which of the following frequencies would probably result in the greatest ultrasonic
a)
A) 1 MHz
b)
B) 2.25 MHz
c)
C) 10 MHz
d)
D) 25 MHz
85.
Normal beam UT can best detect?
a)
A) Surface cracks
b)
B) Laminations
c)
C) LOF
d)
D) All of the above
86.
To detect line piping in round bars and forgings, ultrasonic testing is carried out using:
a)
A) Angle probes
b)
B) Normal probes
c)
C) Shear wave probes
d)
D) Surface wave probes
87.
Major advantage of ultrasonic testing (over radiography) is:
a)
A) Testing can be carried out even when only one surface is accessible for testing.
b)
B) Permanent record of the test is available which can be evaluated by the experts.
c)
C) U.T. has higher penetrating power and can be used for testing thick jobs.
d)
D) A and C only are correct statements.
88.
In the near vision test, CP-189 recommends that the applicant should be able to read at
a)
A) J1
b)
B) J2
c)
C) J3
d)
D) J4 letters on the Jaeger chart
89.
To be certified as NDT Level-III, initial requirement is that candidate should hold valid (CP-189: 2020):
a)
A) ASNT Level-II certificate in the applicable method(s)
b)
B) ASNT Level-III certificate in any of the method
c)
C) ASNT Level-III certificate in the applicable method
d)
D) Any of above
90.
In CP-189 2020, the minimum number of test samples required in Level-I and Level-II
a)
A) One
b)
B) Two
c)
C) Ten
d)
D) Five
91.
Which of the following statements is true concerning re-certification?
a)
A) Re-certification can be accomplished only by re-examination at least once every three years.
b)
B) Re-certification can be based upon evidence of continuing satisfactory performance.
c)
C) Once certified to a particular level, certification can only be terminated if the certified individual terminates employment with the certifying employer.
d)
D) Re-examination of a certified individual can be accomplished only after three years at a particular level.
92.
The basic levels of qualification recommended by SNT-TC-1A are
a)
A) Trainee, Level-I, Level-II, Level-III
b)
B) Trainee, apprentice, Level-I, Level-II, Level-III
c)
C) NDT Level-I, Level-II, Level-III
d)
D) None of the above
93.
According to written instructions, NDT Level-I may be qualified to perform
a)
A) Specific calibrations
b)
B) Specific nondestructive tests
c)
C) Specific evaluations
d)
D) All of the above, and write reports of test results
94.
Calibration instrument is defined as:
a)
A) The comparison of an instrument with or the adjustment of an instrument to a known reference(s)
b)
B) Ensure the manufacturer provides equipment features
c)
C) Checking the reproducibility of test equipment
d)
D) None of the above
95.
Experience is defined as:
a)
A) Classroom or laboratory training time or both
b)
B) Acquisition of skill and knowledge by actual performance or observation during work time
c)
C) Work time spent as Level-I
d)
D) Work time spent as Trainee
96.
A process of determination of a significance of a relevant indication is
a)
A) Interpretation
b)
B) Evaluation
c)
C) Either interpretation or evaluation
d)
D) None of the above
97.
What factors are to be considered to ensure that a candidate for certification in NDT has understanding of the principles and procedures involved?
a)
A) Training, experience, and education
b)
B) Training, experience, and prior certifications held
c)
C) Education, experience, and percentage of time on the job doing NDT
d)
D) Training, experience, and professional credentials
98.
Which of the following statements is not true?
a)
A) Certification is written testimony of qualification.
b)
B) Qualification is the skill, training, and experience required for personnel to properly carry out the duties of a specific job.
c)
C) The employer is the corporate or private entity which employs personnel for wages or salary.
d)
D) Training is a program developed to impart the knowledge and skills necessary for qualification.
99.
SNT-TC-1A recommends that in certification of Level-III personnel the employer:
a)
A) Must give written examinations.
b)
B) Must give a general and specific examination.
c)
C) May waive written examination if oral examination is given.
d)
D) None of above.
100.
What happens to the certificate of person on retiring?
a)
A) Suspension
b)
B) Revocation
c)
C) Expiration
d)
D) None of the above
101.
A person qualifying for UT and PT simultaneously shall fulfill work time
a)
A) PT
b)
B) UT
c)
C) Sum of UT and PT
d)
D) Total hours in NDT of UT with minimum work times of UT & PT
102.
What is required experience for Level III if the candidate has Bachelor of Science?
a)
A) 12 months
b)
B) 2 years
c)
C) 4 years
d)
C) 3 years
103.
P.T. Level-I operator is working 50% of the time in PT, 30% time in UT and 20% time in RT for 3 months. He is claiming simultaneous
a)
A) PT Level-II only
b)
B) PT Level-II and UT Level-I
c)
C) PT Level-II, UT Level-I and RT Level-I
d)
D) None of above
104.
A trainee can independently:
a)
A) Perform the test, interpret the result and record.
b)
B) Only perform and interpret. Request Level-I to record.
c)
C) Only perform and request Level-I to regularize.
d)
D) None of the above.
105.
The employer who is not an expert in NDT hires an outside agency to test his employees in order that he may certify them to different levels. If he finds that they (employees) are not performing to
a)
A) He can revoke their certification since he is responsible for their certification.
b)
B) He must sue the outside agency for fraud.
c)
C) He must train them again.
d)
D) He can revoke their certification if a clause to this effect is incorporated in his written procedure for certification.
106.
What purpose is best served by maintaining certification records and the written practice?
a)
A) For periodic approval by ASNT.
b)
B) To determine the effectiveness of outside services.
c)
C) To provide documentation for review by customer, clients and regulatory agencies.
d)
D) To protect against product liability claims.
107.
To pass TOFD, Pre requisite is
a)
A) 2 years’ experience in TOFD
b)
B) 20 hours of training
c)
C) Passing UT level II plus 320 hours’ experience
d)
D) Passing UT level I
108.
Which of the following are a NDT technique?
a)
A) ultrasonic thickness gauging
b)
B) PAUT & computer radiography only
c)
C) Remote field testing
d)
D) all of the above
109.
A candidate is required to be examined directly to Level II in Penetrant Inspection. How many hours experience must the candidate have?
a)
A) 70
b)
B) 140
c)
C) 210
d)
D) a or b
110.
A man with Engineering Degree was initially qualified as ET LEVEL II. Now he wants to be qualified in Remote field. So how much
a)
A) 40 hours
b)
B) 30 hours
c)
C) 20 hours
d)
D) 16 hours
111.
In preparing for qualification, the training times recommended for Level I in Magnetic Particle Testing are greater than Level II, why?
a)
A) Some NDT methods require more initial training at Level I because of difference in complexity and manipulative skills.
b)
B) Candidates for Level I generally have less formal education than those for Level II
c)
C) No, the candidate should always receive more training for Level II regardless of NDT method.
d)
D) Both a and b
112.
As per SNT-TC-1A 2020, How many limited certification Techniques are available
a)
A) 4
b)
B) 10
c)
C) none
d)
D) to suit the employer needs
113.
As per SNT-TC-1A 2020, Recommended Recertification intervals are
a)
A) Three years
b)
B) Five years
c)
C) Both
d)
D) None
114.
As per SNT-TC-1A 2020, a man doing the UT B-Scan can be Qualified & Certified
a)
A) Yes By the Limited Certification
b)
B) Yes after getting prior permission from ASNT
c)
C) Whether any NDT personnel should be qualified and certified depends solely upon the need of the employer and the need of the employer’s customer or clients
d)
D) No, Cannot be qualified as it is not covered in SNT-TC-1A 2020
115.
As per SNT-TC-1A, is it intended that an employer may use level III individuals in his direct employment and also use an outside
a)
A) No, an employer may use only agency at a time.
b)
B) Yes as described in the employers’ written practice
c)
C) Employer utilizing outside agency must not have a level III in his direct employment
d)
D) ASNT does not permit the use of an outside agency
116.
For LEVEL II Personnel practical minimum grade for each simple average
a)
A) 70%
b)
B) 80%
c)
C) 60%
d)
D) 90%
117.
For acquiring film interpretation
a)
A) He should have seen 1000 radiographs
b)
B) He should have reviewed minimum 1000 Radiographs
c)
C) The number of radiographs shall be addressed in the employer’s certification procedure.
d)
D) He should have evaluated minimum 500 Radiographs
118.
Color contrast differentiation should be conducted upon initial certification and then
a)
A) Annually
b)
B) At 2 year intervals
c)
C) At 3 year intervals
d)
D) At 5 year intervals
119.
Which of the following statements is false with respect to the Written Practice?
a)
A) The employer shall establish a written practice.
b)
B) The written practice should describe levels of responsibility.
c)
C) The written practice shall be submitted to clients for acceptability.
d)
D) The written practice shall be maintained on file.
120.
Written testimony of qualification is termed:
a)
A) Documentation
b)
B) Certification
c)
C) Testimonial
d)
D) Authentication
121.
If an outside agency is engaged to provide Level III services, the:
a)
A) Responsibility of certification must be retained by the employer utilizing outside services
b)
B) Outside agency may certify the personnel of the employer utilizing outside services
c)
C) Employer utilizing outside services must have a Level III in direct employment
d)
D) Employer must obtain prior permission from the customer
122.
Automatic termination of certification is recommended when the certified individual:
a)
A) Temporarily assigned to a different job function
b)
B) Take a leave of absence greater than ninety days.
c)
C) Terminates employment with the employer where certified
d)
D) Achieve higher level of certification
123.
A person working as Level II in company A leaves concern headed by a person on 12/02/2019 and joins the concern company B headed by Mr. X on 12/05/2019. Assuming he was originally certified
a)
A) He can work as the level II in the new concern
b)
B) He has to write and pass the exam
c)
C) He has to be certified as per the written practice of the new employer
d)
D) He has to be re-certified as the written practice of the old employer
124.
For LEVEL II Personnel practical minimum grade for each simple average
a)
A) 70%
b)
B) 80%
c)
C) 60%
d)
D) 90%
125.
In doing the practical examination, to get certified
a)
A) Candidate should detect all discontinuities in the test sample
b)
B) Candidate should detect all discontinuities specified by Level III in the test sample
c)
C) Candidate should detect at least 80 discontinuities specified by Level III in the test sample
d)
D) Candidate should detect all discontinuities specified by Employer in the test sample
126.
Color contrast differentiation should be conducted upon initial certification and then
a)
A) Annually
b)
B) At 2 year intervals
c)
C) At 3 year intervals
d)
D) At 5 year intervals
127.
Written testimony of qualification is termed:
a)
A) Documentation
b)
B) Certification
c)
C) Testimonial
d)
D) Authentication
128.
If an outside agency is engaged to provide Level III services, the:
a)
A) Responsibility of certification must be retained by the employer utilizing outside services
b)
B) Outside agency may certify the personnel of the employer utilizing outside services
c)
C) Employer utilizing outside services must have a Level III in direct employment
d)
D) Employer must obtain prior permission from the customer
129.
Automatic termination of certification is recommended when the certified individual:
a)
A) Temporarily assigned to a different job function
b)
B) Take a leave of absence greater than ninety days
c)
C) Terminates employment with the employer where certified
d)
D) Achieve higher level of certification
130.
A person working as Level II in company A leaves concern headed by a person on 12/02/2019 and joins company B headed by Mr. X on 12/05/2019. Assuming he was originally certified
a)
A) He can work as the Level II in the new concern
b)
B) He has to write and pass the exam
c)
C) He has to be certified as per the written practice of the new employer
d)
D) He has to be re-certified as the written practice of the old employer
131.
ASTM E 1316 to standardize
a)
A) Terminology across all NDT methods in all ASNT publication
b)
B) Recommended practices for the qualification of NDT Personnel
c)
C) Minimum requirement for the qualification of NDT Personnel
d)
D) Topical outlines for the qualification of NDT Personnel
132.
A candidate for re-examination must wait a minimum of:
a)
A) 7 Days
b)
B) 20 Days
c)
C) 30 Days
d)
D) Receive suitable additional training as determined by Level III before examination
133.
When carrying out practical examination at NDT Level III, how many check points are necessary to confirm understanding of NDT
a)
A) 1
b)
B) 5
c)
C) 10
d)
D) 15
134.
In SNT-TC-1A 2020, how many specimens are needed for Level II Practical
a)
A) One good specimen
b)
B) One flawed specimen
c)
C) At least one flawed specimen
d)
D) At least one good specimen
135.
Who has to approve the written practice
a)
A) Employer
b)
B) Level III
c)
C) Jurisdictional code
d)
D) ASME Standard
136.
Who has to establish written practice
a)
A) Employer
b)
B) Level III
c)
C) Jurisdictional code
d)
D) ASME Standard
137.
The responsibility of each level of certificate is to determine by
a)
A) Employer
b)
B) Level III
c)
C) As per ASNT Code
d)
D) As per ASME requirements
138.
How many NDT methods are specified in CP-189 2020?
a)
A) 8
b)
B) 11
c)
C) 12
d)
D) 9
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