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Worksheets

ryan4

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which process propels contents through the gastrointestinal tract from esophagus to rectum?

a)

Segmentation contractions along short sections

b)

Peristalsis with coordinated wave-like motion

c)

Haustral churning within the colon only

d)

Valsalva maneuver during defecation

2.

Which factor most commonly slows peristalsis and contributes to constipation in hospitalized adults?

a)

Short-term use of stool softeners

b)

Immobility related to bed rest orders

c)

Regular physical ambulation after meals

d)

High-fiber diet with adequate fluids

3.

A patient has infrequent, hard stools that are difficult to eliminate. Which bowel problem best fits this description?

a)

Incontinence with loss of control

b)

Constipation as a symptom not disease

c)

Diarrhea with frequent liquid stools

d)

Impaction with retained hard feces

4.

Which finding most strongly suggests fecal impaction rather than simple constipation?

a)

Small hard stools passed every few days

b)

Loose stools after increased fiber intake

c)

Collection of hardened feces wedged in rectum

d)

Abdominal cramping relieved by defecation

5.

After abdominal surgery, a patient develops paralytic ileus. What is the primary pathophysiology?

a)

Spasm of the anal sphincter muscles

b)

Inflammation causing increased peristalsis

c)

Temporary cessation of intestinal movement

d)

Obstruction from impacted feces in rectum

6.

Which patient action demonstrates the Valsalva maneuver during defecation?

a)

Relaxing pelvic floor while exhaling

b)

Forcefully exhaling against a closed airway

c)

Rapid shallow breathing through the mouth

d)

Contracting gluteal muscles while inhaling

7.

Which factor listed is most likely to increase intestinal gas leading to flatulence?

a)

Increased bile secretion into intestines

b)

Reduced gut flora after antibiotics

c)

Accumulation of gas causing walls to stretch

d)

Decreased gas with low-fiber diet

8.

During bowel assessment, which cue best indicates diarrhea rather than normal elimination?

a)

Soft formed stool every morning

b)

An increase in number of stools daily

c)

No bowel movement for three days

d)

Small pellet-like stool with straining

9.

Which step is performed first during an abdominal examination to avoid stimulating peristalsis and altering findings?

a)

Percuss all four quadrants systematically

b)

Auscultate bowel sounds in each quadrant

c)

Palpate lightly then deeply for tenderness

d)

Inspect scars, contour, and symmetry

10.

During bowel elimination assessment, which right lower quadrant landmark is auscultated because bowel sounds are normally present there?

a)

McBurney point near the ileocecal valve

b)

Left lower quadrant sigmoid region

c)

Epigastric area near xiphoid

d)

Midclavicular line at the umbilicus

11.

A client’s stool is described as separate hard lumps like nuts and difficult to pass. Which Bristol Stool Scale type does this indicate?

a)

Type 5 soft blobs with clear edges

b)

Type 1 separate hard lumps like nuts

c)

Type 4 like a smooth soft sausage

d)

Type 2 sausage-shaped but lumpy

12.

Which laboratory or diagnostic test pair is most appropriate for detecting occult gastrointestinal bleeding and visualizing the colon?

a)

Serum amylase test and ultrasonography

b)

Fecal occult blood test and colonoscopy

c)

Stool culture and magnetic resonance

d)

Urinalysis dipstick and endoscopy

13.

Dark, tarry stools most likely suggest a higher gastrointestinal bleed. Which principle guides this interpretation?

a)

Darker color implies higher up the GI bleed is

b)

Fresh red blood indicates prolonged transit time

c)

Clay color implies pancreatic enzyme excess

d)

Green color implies lower small bowel obstruction

14.

During palpation of the abdomen in a bowel assessment, which characteristics should be noted to identify abnormal masses or tenderness?

a)

Reflexes, tone, strength, coordination, gait pattern

b)

Turgor, moisture, lesions, exudate, blanching response

c)

Location, size, shape, consistency, surface, mobility, pulsatility, tenderness

d)

Color, temperature, capillary refill, edema grade, hair distribution

15.

A patient presents with abdominal distention and hyperactive bowel sounds. Which finding would most strongly support a mechanical obstruction rather than ascites?

a)

Bulging flanks with fluid wave sign

b)

High-pitched rushing sounds with tinkling

c)

Uniformly dull percussion across flanks

d)

Tympany with shifting dullness on percussion

16.

Which nursing diagnosis best fits a patient with decreased fluid intake, opioid use, and hard, dry stools with straining?

a)

Self-care deficit related to impaired mobility only

b)

Bowel incontinence related to sphincter dysfunction

c)

Diarrhea related to malabsorption and intestinal cramping

d)

Constipation related to decreased peristalsis and dehydration

17.

A priority short-term goal for a patient beginning a bowel training program is most appropriate as which statement?

a)

Patient will require digital stimulation each morning

b)

Patient will restrict fluids to reduce fecal frequency

c)

Patient will have no bowel movements for three days

d)

Patient will pass soft, formed stool within 24 hours

18.

Which intervention best promotes establishment of a regular elimination pattern in an ambulatory adult?

a)

Delay toileting after meals to reduce urgency

b)

Provide routine bedpan use to avoid bathroom trips

c)

Offer clear liquids only and limit insoluble fiber

d)

Encourage high-fiber diet with adequate fluids daily

19.

For a patient using a bedpan, which positioning action most facilitates defecation mechanics?

a)

Keep patient supine with legs fully extended

b)

Maintain flat bed with head turned to one side

c)

Elevate head of bed and flex hips and knees

d)

Place patient in Trendelenburg for gravity assist

20.

Which dietary teaching is best for preventing constipation in a patient without bowel disease?

a)

Use stimulant laxatives each evening routinely

b)

Choose low-residue diet with minimal fluids

c)

Increase fiber-rich foods and hot liquids daily

d)

Avoid fruits and vegetables to reduce gas

21.

A patient with diarrhea requires diet modification. Which plan aligns with recommended care?

a)

Encourage fasting with only ice chips for days

b)

Increase spicy foods and cold caffeinated drinks

c)

Offer small, bland meals with tepid liquids

d)

Add bulk laxatives and high-fat fried foods

22.

Which medication class primarily stimulates bowel peristalsis to ease defecation?

a)

Laxatives that stimulate defecation

b)

Antidiarrheal agents suppress peristalsis

c)

Opiates increase bowel movements

d)

Rectal suppositories anesthetize mucosa

23.

Which instruction best reduces discomfort during enema administration?

a)

Use sterile technique for cleansing enemas

b)

Explain need to retain solution before defecation

c)

Avoid wearing gloves for better dexterity

d)

Always select hypertonic solution for speed

24.

Digital removal of stool is indicated under which circumstance?

a)

Preferred over osmotic laxatives

b)

First-line therapy for mild constipation

c)

When enema fails to remove impaction

d)

Routine care to prevent constipation

25.

A patient with a nasogastric tube to low suction most likely has which tube type and purpose?

a)

Large-bore tube for continuous enteral feeding

b)

Fine-bore tube for long-term feeding

c)

Large-bore tube for gastric decompression

d)

Fine-bore tube for medication delivery

26.

Which finding requires immediate action when assessing a new ileostomy stoma?

a)

Pale or dusky stoma color

b)

Bright red, moist stoma surface

c)

Peristomal skin intact and dry

d)

Moist, elevated stoma above skin

27.

Which ethical consideration is most relevant when managing bowel care for a dependent patient?

a)

Delegate all tasks regardless of consent

b)

Ensure dignity and minimize embarrassment

c)

Avoid discussing risks to reduce anxiety

d)

Prioritize rapid procedures over privacy needs

28.

Which teaching point helps maintain nasogastric tube patency during enteral therapy?

a)

Use clean technique for routine care

b)

Select the smallest bore for suction

c)

Clamp the tube for extended periods

d)

Avoid flushing between medications

29.

Which statement best describes the primary function of the kidneys in urinary elimination?

a)

Provide a passage for urine to exit body

b)

Transport urine from kidneys to bladder

c)

Store urine and control voluntary release

d)

Remove wastes and balance fluids and electrolytes

30.

Which normal urine characteristic would prompt immediate concern for renal perfusion when reduced?

a)

Specific gravity near 1.020

b)

Slight ammonia-like odor

c)

Pale yellow to amber color

d)

Output less than 30 mL per hour

31.

During urination, which sequence reflects normal neural control?

a)

Cerebral cortex inhibits detrusor and tightens sphincter

b)

Signals initiate bladder contraction and sphincter relaxation

c)

Spinal reflex suppresses urge and stops stream

d)

Sphincter contracts while detrusor muscle relaxes

32.

Which laboratory result most specifically reflects filtration of nitrogenous waste from protein metabolism?

a)

Serum creatinine concentration

b)

Urine nitrite screen

c)

Urine specific gravity

d)

Urine protein dipstick

33.

Which finding on routine urinalysis is considered abnormal and warrants follow-up?

a)

Positive protein on dipstick

b)

Yellow clear appearance

c)

Specific gravity within range

d)

Sterile urine with no bacteria

34.

A 24-hour urine collection is ordered to assess creatinine clearance. What is the most critical first step?

a)

Discard the first void and then begin timing

b)

Collect only the first morning urine

c)

Refrigerate the first sample and begin timing

d)

Start timing after the second daytime void

35.

Which instruction is correct for obtaining a clean-catch midstream urine sample?

a)

Begin voiding, stop, collect midstream, then finish

b)

Hold urine to fill container completely

c)

Collect sample after voiding is fully complete

d)

Start collection with the first urine released

36.

Which combination of BUN and creatinine use is accurate for evaluating kidney function?

a)

Both assist in evaluating overall renal function

b)

BUN alone determines glomerular filtration rate

c)

Creatinine alone measures liver protein synthesis

d)

Both primarily reflect urinary tract infection

37.

A patient returns from anesthesia and has not voided within 6 hours. Which term best describes the concern to assess first?

a)

Urinary retention after anesthesia

b)

Chronic urinary incontinence

c)

Functional stress incontinence

d)

Psychogenic anuria from fear

38.

Which factor commonly increases risk for urinary tract infection that nurses should avoid when possible?

a)

Short preoperative fasting period

b)

Indwelling urinary catheter insertion

c)

High citrus fruit consumption alone

d)

Regular physical activity increase

39.

Which description best defines stress incontinence?

a)

Urgent need to void then bladder contraction

b)

Loss despite a normal urinary tract function

c)

Inability to empty the bladder fully

d)

Leakage with sudden pressure like coughing

40.

A patient reports a sudden urge to void followed by leakage before reaching the toilet. What type of incontinence is most likely?

a)

Functional incontinence

b)

Overflow incontinence

c)

Stress incontinence

d)

Urge incontinence

41.

Which finding best indicates overflow incontinence?

a)

Leakage due to mobility barriers to toilet

b)

Leakage when sneezing from increased pressure

c)

Leakage because bladder never empties completely

d)

Leakage with strong urge after trigger

42.

Which characteristic is typical of urinary retention?

a)

Painful urination with burning sensation

b)

Gross blood visible with urination

c)

Nocturnal urination two times nightly

d)

Difficulty starting stream or weak flow

43.

Which factor most increases risk for urinary tract infection in hospitalized patients?

a)

Using breathable cotton underwear

b)

Daily intake of 2000 milliliters water

c)

Voiding completely after each meal

d)

Catheterized individuals with obstructed flow

44.

Calculate the 8-hour intake and output balance: Oral intake 700 mL, IV fluids 1250 mL; urine output 940 mL, emesis 50 mL. What is the fluid balance?

a)

Positive 360 milliliters over eight hours

b)

Negative 360 milliliters over eight hours

c)

Negative 250 milliliters over eight hours

d)

Positive 250 milliliters over eight hours

45.

A patient has oral intake 100 mL and tube feeding 480 mL. Output is urine 640 mL and Hemovac drainage 400 mL. What is the 8-hour fluid balance?

a)

Positive 540 milliliters net balance

b)

Negative 540 milliliters net balance

c)

Negative 460 milliliters net balance

d)

Positive 460 milliliters net balance

46.

Which nursing implementation will most directly help a patient with nocturia sleep better?

a)

Encourage full bladder emptying before bedtime

b)

Restrict all fluids to less than 1000 daily

c)

Schedule toileting during night to reduce urgency

d)

Teach Kegel exercises every morning only

47.

Which principle reduces catheter-associated infection risk during insertion?

a)

Maintain sterile technique and closed drainage

b)

Irrigate routinely without an order

c)

Break the system to obtain urine samples

d)

Elevate bag above bladder for gravity flow

48.

An older adult with mobility limits has incontinence but normal bladder function. Which intervention best addresses the cause?

a)

Teach double-voiding for residuals

b)

Restrict evening fluids completely

c)

Start antimuscarinic bladder medication

d)

Provide frequent opportunities to void

49.

Which action best prevents urinary catheter–related infection during ambulation?

a)

Hanging bag at hip level temporarily

b)

Keeping drainage bag below bladder level

c)

Clamping tubing during walking periods

d)

Elevating bag above waist while moving

50.

Which perineal care instruction most reduces UTI risk in adults?

a)

Use scented bubble baths weekly

b)

Apply powder to keep area dry

c)

Clean with mild soap and water daily

d)

Rinse with no‑rinse cleanser only

51.

A patient asks about Kegel exercises. Which outcome should the nurse emphasize?

a)

Lower bladder capacity and fewer voids

b)

Stronger pelvic floor reduces incontinence risk

c)

Faster antibiotic absorption during infections

d)

Improved kidney filtration and urine output

52.

Which strategy should be included in teaching to prevent recurrent lower UTIs?

a)

Void after sexual intercourse consistently

b)

Limit oral fluids to reduce frequency

c)

Wear tight, non‑breathable underwear

d)

Prefer daily baths over quick showers

53.

Which finding most strongly suggests cystitis rather than pyelonephritis?

a)

Dysuria with suprapubic pain

b)

Fever with costovertebral angle pain

c)

Chills with flank tenderness

d)

Nausea with vomiting episodes

54.

An older adult with a lower UTI may present most atypically with which sign?

a)

Severe nausea and repeated emesis

b)

Confusion without fever or dysuria

c)

Marked flank pain and chills

d)

Pink urine with clots present

55.

Which medication teaching is correct for a patient prescribed phenazopyridine?

a)

It replaces the need for antibiotics

b)

It tints urine an orange color

c)

It turns urine blue or green

d)

It prevents all bacterial growth

56.

A patient with suspected pyelonephritis most likely needs which initial tests?

a)

Urinalysis, culture, CBC, and imaging

b)

Electrolytes, ECG, and chest X‑ray

c)

Liver panel and abdominal paracentesis

d)

Skin testing and peak flow spirometry

57.

Which scenario requires the most urgent escalation for possible urosepsis?

a)

UTI symptoms with hypotension and chills

b)

Dysuria relieved by oral phenazopyridine

c)

Cloudy urine without fever or pain

d)

Frequency during pregnancy but afebrile

58.

Which statement best distinguishes dementia from delirium in an older adult?

a)

Dementia has gradual onset with progressive decline

b)

Delirium presents chronic memory loss without reversal

c)

Delirium shows slow decline with intact attention

d)

Dementia has sudden onset with fluctuating course

59.

A patient after a stroke has aphasia. Which nursing action best supports communication early in recovery?

a)

Avoid gestures to prevent confusion

b)

Increase background noise to stimulate

c)

Use short phrases and allow extra time

d)

Speak rapidly to encourage responses

60.

Which finding is most consistent with depression rather than dementia or delirium?

a)

Acute inattention with fluctuating alertness

b)

Gradual decline in problem solving ability

c)

Sudden confusion after infection onset

d)

Persistent low mood with loss of interest

61.

Which sense alteration is most likely with aging and requires checking hearing aids and minimizing background noise?

a)

Smell impairment with enhanced odor detection

b)

Hearing impairment with difficulty hearing speech

c)

Taste impairment with constant metallic taste

d)

Vision impairment with loss of central fields

62.

A nurse suspects delirium in a hospitalized patient. Which combination of features supports this suspicion?

a)

Acute onset, fluctuating attention, reversible cause

b)

Chronic onset, consistent confusion, irreversible mood

c)

Slow onset, stable attention, irreversible cause

d)

Gradual onset, progressive language loss, stable mood

63.

Which intervention best reduces sensory deprivation in a long-term care resident with limited visitors?

a)

Restrict activities to promote quiet rest

b)

Provide meaningful stimuli and regular interaction

c)

Limit conversation to avoid overstimulation

d)

Dim lights and reduce all environmental input

64.

After a cerebrovascular accident, a patient shows expressive aphasia. Which tool most effectively aids expression of needs?

a)

Background television prompts

b)

Rapid-fire yes–no questioning

c)

Complex written paragraphs

d)

Picture board with simple images

65.

Which nursing safety check is most important for a patient with vision impairment when arranging the room?

a)

Place equipment in new locations each shift

b)

Ensure clear path and consistent object placement

c)

Add varied lighting patterns for stimulation

d)

Encourage fast ambulation to build confidence

66.

Which finding best characterizes sensory overload in a hospitalized adult?

a)

Improved arousal to ignore repetitive background noise

b)

Stable sleep pattern with improved concentration

c)

Gradual loss of ability to interpret simple directions

d)

Difficulty filtering stimuli with restlessness and anxiety

67.

A client has expressive aphasia and hearing loss. Which nursing action directly compensates for these deficits?

a)

Provide visual cues and adaptive communication boards

b)

Encourage prolonged conversations during procedures

c)

Increase room stimulation with television and visitors

d)

Rely on the client to lip‑read complex instructions

68.

Which intervention is most appropriate to reduce sensory overload in an ICU setting?

a)

Cluster care to establish a predictable routine

b)

Keep lights bright to maintain arousal levels

c)

Play constant music to mask monitor alarms

d)

Encourage frequent unannounced staff visits

69.

Myopia primarily results in which functional limitation?

a)

Tunnel vision with normal color perception

b)

Loss of central vision with intact periphery

c)

Clear distant vision but blurred near vision

d)

Clear near vision but blurred distant vision

70.

Which statement best differentiates cataracts from glaucoma?

a)

Cataracts cause lens clouding; glaucoma raises intraocular pressure

b)

Cataracts cause optic nerve cupping; glaucoma causes lens opacity

c)

Cataracts cause peripheral field loss; glaucoma blurs central vision

d)

Cataracts occur acutely; glaucoma always resolves spontaneously

71.

A client with diabetes has progressive visual changes due to damaged retinal vessels. Which condition is most likely?

a)

Presbyopia with ciliary muscle spasm

b)

Diabetic retinopathy with microvascular damage

c)

Macular degeneration with lens clouding

d)

Glaucoma with acute corneal edema

72.

Which care plan best addresses risk for sensory deprivation in an isolated, non‑stimulating room?

a)

Limit visitors and reduce conversations during care

b)

Schedule regular meaningful interactions and provide tactile activities

c)

Discourage the use of hearing aids and glasses

d)

Dim lights at all times and minimize stimuli

73.

Which visual change is most characteristic of cataracts as shown in the diagram with a cloudy scene?

a)

Central blind spot with straight lines wavy

b)

Patchy black spots scattered across vision

c)

Peripheral vision loss with tunnel-like view

d)

Generalized blurry, cloudy vision of the scene

74.

A balloon festival image is used to depict glaucoma. What key functional loss best matches this diagram?

a)

Loss of central vision for fine detail

b)

Grey curtain descending over the field

c)

Gradual loss of peripheral vision first

d)

Patchy scotomas in random locations

75.

The duck image labeled diabetic retinopathy shows multiple blotchy dark spots. What pathologic process best explains this pattern?

a)

Lens opacity scattering incoming light waves

b)

Retinal microvascular damage with hemorrhages

c)

Optic nerve cupping with increased pressure

d)

Macular protein deposits causing central blur

76.

In the flower market image for macular degeneration, which functional deficit should a nurse expect the patient to report?

a)

Difficulty recognizing faces due to central loss

b)

Complete vision loss with sudden onset blindness

c)

Intermittent blackouts with transient monocular loss

d)

Trouble navigating hallways from peripheral loss

77.

A patient with presbycusis is admitted. Which nursing communication strategy is most appropriate?

a)

Rely on overhead announcements for education

b)

Increase speech volume with rapid instructions

c)

Face the patient and speak clearly at a lower pitch

d)

Speak softly while looking away from the patient

78.

You are caring for a visually impaired patient at home. Which action best applies the 'clock method' for meal setup described in the notes?

a)

Explain item locations using clock positions

b)

Allow exploration without any verbal cues

c)

Place utensils on the right and remain silent

d)

Describe each food color and texture only

79.

Which intervention supports safety for a patient with tactile alterations when bathing at home?

a)

Avoid assistive devices to preserve patient independence

b)

Test water temperature with an elbow for accurate reading

c)

Verify bathwater is about 37.8°C using a thermometer

d)

Use very hot water to promote circulation during bathing

80.

Which home safety measure addresses olfactory or gustatory deficits?

a)

Provide only cold meals to reduce burn risk

b)

Install carbon monoxide detectors in living spaces

c)

Remove all mirrors to reduce confusion at night

d)

Increase room humidity to enhance smell perception

81.

Which cerebrovascular accident description matches an ischemic stroke?

a)

A ruptured aneurysm bleeds into surrounding brain tissue

b)

A clot blocks blood flow through a narrowed vessel

c)

Trauma causes diffuse axonal injury and swelling

d)

A transient event resolves without any brain injury

82.

Which aphasia type is defined by an inability to understand spoken or written language while speech production may remain fluent?

a)

Anomic aphasia with severe motor deficits

b)

Global aphasia with preserved comprehension

c)

Broca’s aphasia with impaired motor speech

d)

Wernicke’s aphasia with impaired comprehension

83.

Which feature best distinguishes delirium from dementia?

a)

Irreversible neurodegeneration with stable alertness

b)

Primary memory loss without any attention changes

c)

Gradual onset with steady decline over many years

d)

Acute onset with fluctuating course and inattention

84.

A family asks how to help their loved one with hearing impairment communicate at home. Which instruction is most appropriate?

a)

Speak slowly and clearly at 3 to 5 feet in good lighting

b)

Raise your voice loudly from another room when speaking

c)

Use rapid speech to maintain patient attention and flow

d)

Cover your mouth to improve sound direction and focus

85.

Which delegation is appropriate after RN assessment for a patient with cognitive or sensory alterations?

a)

Assign medication teaching entirely to family caregivers

b)

Delegate interdisciplinary referrals without RN oversight

c)

Delegate specific care tasks to UAP with clear instructions

d)

Delegate assessment of new deficits to experienced UAP

86.

Which planning strategy helps prevent caregiver burnout in families caring for a person with dementia at home?

a)

Ensure access to respite care and social support

b)

Encourage family to assume all care tasks alone

c)

Limit outside services to maintain patient privacy

d)

Avoid discussing advance care plans with family

87.

Which evaluation finding indicates nursing interventions improved a patient’s sensory function?

a)

The patient reports better ability to perform self-care

b)

The chart shows increased number of clinic visits

c)

The nurse observes fewer requests for pain medication

d)

The family notes the patient sleeps longer during day

88.

Which tool supports telephone communication for a person who is deaf or severely hearing-impaired?

a)

Standard handset used with high television volume

b)

Speakerphone positioned two rooms away from user

c)

Analog amplifier that increases random background noise

d)

Telecommunications device for the deaf sending text