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2025 4th Quarter Exams:

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 76-year-old male with severe aortic stenosis (AVA 0.7 cm²) scheduled for hip fracture fixation suddenly becomes hypotensive after spinal anesthesia. Which immediate step BEST stabilizes him?

a)

Administer ephedrine bolus

b)

Start phenylephrine infusion

c)

Increase propofol sedation

d)

Give high-dose nitroglycerin

2.

A patient with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy develops dynamic LVOT obstruction during laparoscopic insufflation (BP 75/40, HR 130). What perioperative intervention is MOST appropriate?

a)

Rapid increase in circulating volume + esmolol

b)

Nitroglycerin bolus

c)

Switch to desflurane

d)

Increase PEEP

3.

Which patient characteristic MOST increases risk of perioperative MI?

a)

Well-controlled diabetes

b)

History of PCI with drug-eluting stent 18 months ago

c)

Prior MI within 30 days

d)

Echocardiogram EF 55%

4.

During pericardial window surgery, the BP drops after induction. What is the MOST likely cause?

a)

Sudden increase in preload

b)

Loss of sympathetic drive ↓ venous return

5.

Which ventilatory strategy BEST supports a failing RV?

a)

Increase PEEP

b)

Decrease tidal volume and avoid hypercapnia

c)

Hyperventilate to PaCO₂ 25 mmHg

d)

Use high inspiratory pressures

6.

A septic patient remains hypotensive despite adequate volume replacement. Which MAP target is MOST appropriate according to current evidence?

a)

50 mmHg

b)

65 mmHg

c)

80 mmHg

d)

90 mmHg

7.

A trauma patient with a pacemaker is scheduled for emergent laparotomy. You cannot obtain device interrogation. Which is the BEST action?

a)

Proceed with surgery and avoid cautery

b)

Apply magnet over the pacemaker to convert to asynchronous mode

c)

Turn off electrocautery

d)

Administer atropine before incision

8.

A CABG patient on metoprolol has HR 55, BP 130/60 before minor surgery. What is the BEST perioperative plan?

a)

Hold beta-blocker

b)

Continue beta-blocker

c)

Give ephedrine pre-induction

9.

Atrial Fibrillation with RVR Intraoperatively, a patient becomes irregularly tachycardic (HR 150). BP is 95/60. What is the FIRST priority?

a)

Give amiodarone 150 mg

b)

Ensure adequate oxygenation and correct reversible triggers

c)

Give adenosine

d)

Start phenylephrine

10.

A woman with severe mitral stenosis becomes tachycardic during tumor resection. What is the BEST intervention?

a)

Administer a beta-blocker

b)

Add PEEP

c)

Increase IV fluids

d)

Give epinephrine

11.

A patient develops ST-segment depression during thyroidectomy. What is the MOST appropriate immediate action?

a)

Increase volatile anesthetic

b)

Treat hypotension, increase coronary perfusion

c)

Hyperventilate to PaCO₂ 25

d)

Give atropine

12.

Which hemodynamic goal is MOST appropriate for AR?



a)

a. Slow HR and high SVR

b)

b. Fast HR and low SVR

c)

c. Slow HR and low SVR

d)

d. Fast HR and high SVR

13.

A patient post-CPB remains hypotensive despite high-dose norepinephrine. What is the NEXT step?



a)

a. Administer vasopressin

b)

b. Give nitroglycerin

c)

c. Increase fluid bolus

d)

d. Start esmolol

14.

A patient post-CPB remains hypotensive despite high-dose norepinephrine. What is the NEXT step?

a)

Administer vasopressin

b)

Give nitroglycerin

c)

Increase fluid bolus

d)

Start esmolol

15.

A patient with EF 15% becomes hypotensive (MAP 50) despite phenylephrine. Which is the BEST drug?

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Phenylephrine

c)

Metoprolol

d)

Propofol bolus

16.

Which induction agent is LEAST likely to worsen pulmonary hypertension?

a)

Ketamine

b)

Etomidate

c)

N₂O

d)

Desflurane

17.

TEE shows empty LV cavity, kissing papillary muscles, and hyperdynamic motion. The BEST cause is:

a)

LV failure

b)

Hypovolemia

c)

Cardiac tamponade

d)

RV Infarct

18.

A patient with ischemic mitral regurgitation becomes hypotensive during induction. What is the MOST appropriate initial step?

a)

Start nitroprusside

b)

Increase afterload

c)

Improve forward flow with inotrope

d)

Slow HR

19.

During attempted separation from CPB, the BP is low and TEE shows a distended RV. Which intervention is MOST appropriate?

a)

Increase PEEP

b)

Start inhaled nitric oxide

c)

Give calcium

d)

Slow the HR

20.

A patient with VF after induction has defibrillation pads on. What is the CORRECT next action?

a)

Give amiodarone before shocking

b)

Shock immediately

c)

Start CPR but do not shock

d)

Give atropine

21.

Which of the following MOST reliably decreases with improved cardiac output?

a)

a. Pulse pressure variation

b)

b. EtCO₂

22.

Which statement BEST reflects respect for patient autonomy?

a)

Proceeding with surgery after explaining risks

b)

Encouraging the patient to follow the physician’s recommendation

c)

Allowing the patient to make an informed decision without coercion

d)

Ensuring consent form is signed by the family

23.

In anesthesia practice, beneficence primarily means:

a)

Doing what is convenient for the OR schedule

b)

Acting in the best interest of the patient

c)

Following senior consultant orders

d)

Doing no harm

24.

Which of the following is REQUIRED for valid informed consent?

a)

Family agreement

b)

Complete absence of risk

c)

Voluntary decision-making

d)

Patient being NPO

25.

Standard of care is defined as:

a)

What the consultant prefers to do

b)

The level of care a reasonable physician would provide

c)

The most advanced technique available

d)

Care dictated by patient request

26.

When a resident encounters an unsafe surgeon request, the FIRST escalation is usually to:

a)

The hospital director

b)

The circulating nurse

c)

The neurosurgeon on duty

d)

The anesthesia consultant-in-charge

27.

A leader who sets direction clearly and expects compliance without negotiation demonstrates:

a)

Democratic leadership

b)

Laissez-faire leadership

c)

Autocratic leadership

d)

Transformational leadership

28.

A patient requiring emergency surgery refuses blood transfusion on religious grounds. The hemoglobin is 5 g/dL. What is the MOST ethical action?

a)

Proceed with transfusion because it is life-saving

b)

Cancel surgery

c)

Respect refusal and optimize bloodless strategies

d)

Ask family to override the patient

29.

You notice a senior resident smells of alcohol before a case. What is the MOST appropriate action?

a)

Ignore unless performance is affected

b)

Confront immediately, remove from clinical duty, notify consultant

c)

Allow them to proceed but monitor closely

d)

Call security

30.

Intraoperative Error Disclosure You accidentally place an epidural that resulted in a dural puncture. The surgical team says “don’t mention it to the family.” The BEST action is:

a)

Document as a “minor event” only

b)

Follow surgeon’s advice

c)

Disclose the event honestly to patient/family with consultant support

d)

Wait until patient complains of headache

31.

A pharmaceutical representative offers you an expensive gift “in support of residents.” Accepting it MOSTLY violates which principle?

a)

Non-maleficence

b)

Autonomy

c)

Integrity and conflict-of-interest regulations

d)

Beneficence

32.

A surgeon insists on starting a case even though the defibrillator is malfunctioning. What should you do FIRST?

a)

Proceed because delay affects operating room efficiency

b)

Refuse and escalate to OR safety chain until equipment is available

c)

Continue but note incident

d)

Ask circulating nurse to find a replacement but still induce

33.

A terminal cancer patient is for palliative procedure under sedation. The family insists on “full resuscitation.” The patient’s advance directive states DNR. The MOST appropriate action:

a)

Follow the family’s request

b)

Follow the patient’s documented wishes

c)

Delay until ethics committee arrives

d)

Ask surgeon to cancel the case

34.

A resident posts a photo of an unusual airway case (no identifiers). Which BEST describes this action?

a)

Acceptable because no face is shown

b)

Acceptable if posted in a closed GC

c)

Potential breach because clinical images require explicit consent

d)

Acceptable if surgeon approved

35.

Two emergency cases arrive simultaneously: a ruptured ectopic pregnancy and a closed tibial fracture with compartment syndrome. Only one OR is available. What is the MOST ethical principle guiding prioritization?

a)

Equality

b)

First come, first served

c)

Utility: prioritize the patient with highest urgency and survivability

d)

Physician preference

36.

Two consultants disagree on the anesthetic plan, creating confusion among residents. As the team leader, the BEST strategy is:

a)

Choose the consultant with higher seniority

b)

Allow both plans and let residents decide

c)

Call a short huddle and facilitate consensus using protocol standards

37.

You followed standard ASA monitoring but the patient unexpectedly arrests. Family alleges negligence. Which defense BEST applies?

a)

No consent signed

b)

You followed accepted standard of care and institutional protocols

c)

Surgery was high risk

d)

Patient had comorbidities

38.

A surgeon shouts at staff and throws instruments during a bleeding emergency. What is the MOST appropriate anesthesia leadership response?

a)

Shout back to regain control

b)

Stop the case

c)

Continue patient management and activate hospital disruptive physician protocol

d)

Ignore behavior until after surgery

39.

You discover that a nurse administered the wrong concentration of norepinephrine. The patient remains stable. What is the BEST next step?

a)

Hide the mistake since no harm occurred

b)

Report and disclose the error using a just-culture approach

c)

Blame the nurse

d)

Delete the entry from the chart

40.

A novice resident is assigned a complex pediatric case without your knowledge. What is the BEST course of action?

a)

Allow them to proceed independently

b)

Reassign appropriately and provide supervision

c)

Document only if an event occurs

d)

Ask surgeon to supervise

41.

A consultant reports unsafe sedation practices in minor ORs. According to ethical and legal standards, leadership MUST ensure:

a)

The complaint is ignored to maintain harmony

b)

The whistleblower is protected from retaliation

c)

The consultant is removed from schedule rotation

d)

Only the surgeon is informed

42.

Shock is BEST defined as:

a)

Low blood pressure

b)

Inadequate cellular oxygen utilization

c)

Low cardiac output

d)

Loss of consciousness

43.

Which is part of the Berlin criteria for ARDS?

a)

PaO2/FiO2 < 300

b)

pH < 7.20

c)

Lactate > 2

d)

CVP < 8

44.

According to current Surviving Sepsis guidelines, the FIRST-line vasopressor is:

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Dopamine

d)

Vasopressin

45.

Normal intracranial pressure (ICP) is:

a)

5–15 mmHg

b)

20–25 mmHg

c)

0–5 mmHg

d)

15–25 mmHg

46.

Ketamine is useful in hypotensive trauma because it:

a)

Causes bradycardia

b)

Preserves airway reflexes

c)

Maintains blood pressure via sympathetic stimulation

d)

Decreases myocardial oxygen demand

47.

The recommended initial imaging test for DVT is:

a)

CT angiography

b)

MRI venography

c)

Duplex ultrasound

d)

D-dimer

48.

A patient remains hypotensive despite 30 mL/kg fluids and norepinephrine at 0.3 µg/kg/min. Next BEST step?

a)

Give more crystalloid

b)

Start vasopressin

c)

Add hydralazine

d)

Start esmolol

49.

A patient with ARDS (P/F = 90, on low-tidal volume ventilation) becomes severely dyssynchronous. What is the MOST appropriate intervention?

a)

Increase tidal volume

b)

Start neuromuscular blockade infusion

c)

Switch to pressure support

d)

Remove PEEP

50.

In ICU, a septic patient becomes fluid overloaded (anasarca, rising CVP) with worsening oxygenation. Creatinine is rising. The BEST intervention is:

a)

Give more fluids

b)

High-dose diuretics

c)

Initiate early renal replacement therapy (RRT)

d)

Restrict protein intake

51.

A COPD patient becomes hypotensive after intubation and starting positive pressure ventilation. Cause MOST likely?

a)

Increased venous return

b)

Decreased intrathoracic pressure

c)

Decreased venous return due to increased thoracic pressure

d)

Sudden increase in contractility

52.

You are called for sudden desaturation and hypotension in a ventilated patient. Breath sounds absent on right, high airway pressures. MOST appropriate first action?

a)

Call for stat CXR

b)

Disconnect ventilator

c)

Needle decompression right chest

d)

Increase PEEP

53.

Massive Transfusion Coagulopathy After 8 units PRBC and 6 units FFP, the patient remains coagulopathic with oozing. Most appropriate?

a)

Continue PRBC

b)

Give cryoprecipitate for fibrinogen replacement

c)

Stop transfusion

d)

Give vitamin K

54.

A TBI patient has sudden unilateral blown pupil, bradycardia, and hypertension. BEST immediate measure?

a)

Hyperventilate to PaCO₂ 20–25

b)

Increase fluids

c)

Place in Trendelenburg

d)

Administer morphine

55.

A patient repeatedly fails spontaneous breathing trials despite good gas exchange. Which factor MUST be assessed first?

a)

Postoperative atelectasis

b)

Adequacy of sedation weaning

c)

Availability of ICU staff

d)

Bronchoscopy

56.

A patient has high lactate, warm extremities, bounding pulses, yet low SVR and poor cardiac contractility on bedside echo. MOST likely type of shock?

a)

Pure cardiogenic

b)

Pure distributive

c)

Mixed septic-cardiogenic shock

d)

Obstructive shock

57.

16. ECMO Candidate Selection A 32-year-old with refractory ARDS despite proning, paralysis, and inhaled nitric oxide continues with P/F = 55. Best next step?

a)

Increase FiO₂

b)

ECMO team activation

c)

Increase tidal volume

d)

Permissive hypoventilation

58.

A post-laparotomy patient has fever, hypotension, and rising lactate. Bedside ultrasound shows intra-abdominal fluid collection. MOST important intervention?

a)

Broad-spectrum antibiotics

b)

Source control: urgent drainage

c)

Fluid restriction

d)

Start steroids

59.

A patient with severe pulmonary hypertension develops acute RV failure. Which vasoactive agent is BEST?

a)

Phenylephrine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Nitroprusside

d)

Esmolol

60.

A ventilated patient with severe asthma shows high airway pressures and air-trapping with hypotension. BEST immediate action?

a)

Increase respiratory rate

b)

Prolong expiratory time (reduce RR)

c)

Increase PEEP

d)

Switch to pressure control

61.

A patient with ARDS on FiO2 1.0, PEEP 16 still has SpO2 78%. Tidal volume already low, paralyzed. NEXT BEST step?

a)

Reduce PEEP

b)

Prone positioning

c)

Increase tidal volume

d)

Administer diuretics

62.

Which age-related cardiovascular change is MOST consistent in elderly patients?

a)

Increased arterial compliance

b)

Increased β-adrenergic response

c)

Decreased diastolic dysfunction

d)

Increased arterial stiffness and afterload

63.

Elderly patients have an increased risk of hypothermia primarily due to:

a)

Increased metabolic rate

b)

Increased shivering threshold

c)

Impaired thermoregulatory vasoconstriction

d)

Increased muscle mass

64.

Which pharmacologic change MOST affects anesthetic dosing in the elderly?

a)

Increased renal clearance

b)

Decreased body fat

c)

Increased volume of distribution for lipophilic drugs

d)

Faster hepatic metabolism

65.

Elderly patients have a reduced response to which of the following?

a)

Vasopressors and β-agonists

b)

Volatile anesthetics

c)

Anticholinesterase reversal agents

d)

Opioids

66.

Aging lungs are characterized by:

a)

Decreased closing capacity

b)

Increased chest wall compliance

c)

Decreased elastic recoil

d)

Increased diffusing capacity

67.

Decreased MAC in the elderly is MOST associated with:

a)

Increased neurotransmitter release

b)

Increased brain mass

c)

Decreased cerebral metabolic rate

d)

Increased cardiac output

68.

A 78-year-old frail woman is scheduled for emergency laparotomy. Preoperative BP is 95/55 with HR 105. Which induction plan BEST reduces hemodynamic collapse?

a)

Standard propofol dose + fentanyl

b)

Ketamine + etomidate in reduced doses

c)

Full-dose thiopental

d)

High-dose remifentanil + propofol

69.

An 81-year-old man is given midazolam 1 mg for anxiolysis and becomes profoundly sedated with hypoventilation. What factor MOST explains this?

a)

Increased hepatic metabolic rate

b)

Increased blood–brain barrier permeability and pharmacodynamic sensitivity

c)

Decreased benzodiazepine receptor affinity

d)

Increased respiratory drive

70.

A 75-year-old with dementia becomes agitated preoperatively. Which approach BEST minimizes postoperative delirium risk?

a)

Give IV lorazepam

b)

Use family presence + reorientation + minimize sedatives

c)

Give high-dose haloperidol

d)

Restrain and proceed to OR

71.

An 88-year-old woman develops postoperative urinary retention after spinal anesthesia. MOST likely mechanism?

a)

Decreased bladder compliance

b)

Age-related sympathetic hyperactivity

c)

Spinal block inhibiting sacral parasympathetic outflow

d)

Excessive IV fluids

72.

An 83-year-old patient develops profound hypotension after propofol induction. Which age-related change explains the response?

a)

Increased baroreceptor reflex

b)

Decreased arterial stiffness

c)

Decreased autonomic compensatory responses + ↓ β-receptor sensitivity

d)

Increased preload reserve

73.

In an 80-year-old undergoing lap chole, decreased FRC + increased closing capacity MOST predispose to:

a)

Hyperventilation

b)

Atelectasis and hypoxemia

c)

Respiratory alkalosis

d)

Pneumothorax

74.

An 87-year-old develops apnea and bradycardia after a standard fentanyl dose. Why?

a)

↑ Hepatic perfusion

b)

↑ GFR

c)

↑ Body water

d)

↓ Clearance + ↑ pharmacodynamic sensitivity

75.

A 79-year-old develops a high spinal. MOST likely cause?

a)

Larger CSF volume

b)

Faster LA metabolism

c)

↓ CSF volume + ↓ compliance

d)

↑ peripheral nerve sensitivity

76.

Rocuronium dosing in a 76-year-old:

a)

Standard adult dose

b)

Increase bolus

c)

Reduce 10–20% due to prolonged duration

d)

Avoid rocuronium

77.

Analgesic choice in an 82-year-old with CKD:

a)

Morphine—fast clearance

b)

Morphine—predictable duration

c)

Remifentanil—organ-independent ester metabolism

d)

Remifentanil contraindicated

78.

78-year-old with postoperative delirium; mechanism related to intraoperative hypotension:

a)

Increased anesthetic depth

b)

Transient cerebral hypoperfusion → vulnerable aging brain

c)

Vasopressor neuroinflammation

d)

Increased CSF turnover

79.

Which intervention BEST reduces delirium in an 84-year-old with frailty and CKD?

a)

a. Benzodiazepines + ICU stay

b)

b. Sensory aids + multimodal analgesia + stable hemodynamics

c)

c. High-dose opioids

d)

d. Avoid RA + prolonged sedation

80.

A 90-year-old develops delirium after long surgery with anemia, hyponatremia, ↑ creatinine. Why?

a)

a. Metabolic derangements ↓ cerebral reserve

b)

b. ↓ MAC from creatinine

c)

c. Hyponatremia ↑ opioid potency

d)

d. ↑ CSF protein

81.

Pulse oximetry uses which wavelengths to measure oxygen saturation?

a)

Blue and green

b)

Red and infrared

c)

Ultraviolet and red

d)

Infrared and ultraviolet

82.

What is the PRIMARY purpose of an Anesthesia Information Management System (AIMS)?

a)

Storing radiologic images

b)

Capturing real-time intraoperative physiologic data

c)

Managing surgical schedules

d)

Ordering laboratory tests

83.

Which type of medical error is MOST reduced by barcode medication administration (BCMA)?

a)

Wrong-time errors

b)

Wrong-patient and wrong-drug errors

c)

Documentation errors

d)

Patient-transfer errors

84.

What does “interoperability” mean in hospital information systems?

a)

Same brand of computers

b)

Ability of systems to exchange and interpret data consistently

c)

Shared Wi-Fi network

d)

Using identical EMRs

85.

Capnography measures:

a)

Lung compliance

b)

Mixed venous O₂ saturation

c)

End-tidal CO₂ concentration

d)

Respiratory quotient

86.

The MOST secure method for accessing electronic patient records is:

a)

Shared passwords

b)

Single-factor login

c)

Writing passwords on notes

d)

Multi-factor authentication

87.

A patient’s intraoperative ETCO₂ waveform suddenly shows a sloping “shark-fin” pattern. What IT-based monitor interpretation MOST helps the anesthesiologist?

a)

Capnography indicates neuromuscular blockade

b)

Likely airway obstruction or bronchospasm

c)

Indicates hyperventilation

d)

Suggests metabolic alkalosis

88.

During a case, all monitors drop simultaneously except the pulse oximeter, which still displays a pleth waveform. What is the MOST likely cause?

a)

Cardiac arrest

b)

True loss of patient signal

c)

Loss of network or module connection to AIMS

d)

Severe hypovolemia

89.

An OR adopts closed-loop anesthetic delivery linked to BIS monitoring. What is the MOST important safety feature?

a)

Ability to override the system manually

b)

Automatic charting

c)

Smaller anesthetic doses

d)

Remote video monitoring

90.

You are reviewing trends on the patient’s EMR. The MAP has gradually decreased over 30 minutes but individual readings look normal. What IT tool MOST helps identify the clinical deterioration?

a)

Static vital sign sheet

b)

Trend graphs with time-sequenced visualization

c)

PACU handoff note

d)

Scheduler report

91.

A ventilator alarm shows “increased peak pressure.” The spirometry loop on the monitor displays a narrowed flow-volume curve. Which interpretation is MOST accurate?

a)

Decreased airway resistance

b)

Software malfunction

c)

Airway obstruction or secretions

d)

Hypovolemia

92.

A resident documents an intraoperative hypotensive episode 2 hours late. EMR audit trail flags the entry. What is the MOST appropriate response?

a)

Delete the documentation

b)

Edit without timestamp

c)

Add an addendum noting late entry

d)

Leave undocumented

93.

You receive an automated early-warning alert from the EMR that a patient is trending toward sepsis (tachycardia, rising RR, temperature 38.5). What should the anesthesiologist do first?

a)

Ignore if patient looks comfortable

b)

Disable alert system

c)

Clinically assess the patient and verify the alert

d)

Cancel all future alerts

94.

A postoperative patient on PCA suddenly shows apnea on capnography but pulse oximetry remains normal. What IT interpretation is MOST important?

a)

Pulse oximetry is more reliable

b)

Capnography detects hypoventilation earlier

c)

This is an EMR artifact

d)

Increase the PCA dose

95.

The OR adopts RFID tagging for equipment. What problem does this MOST effectively solve?

a)

Improved ventilation

b)

Tracking location of critical equipment (defibrillators, carts)

c)

Faster surgical turnover

d)

Eliminating manual cleaning

96.

A patient with MH susceptibility is scheduled. The EMR displays a pop-up alert. Which is the MOST important IT-driven action?

a)

Ignore because patient is asymptomatic

b)

Proceed with succinylcholine

c)

Use the alert to initiate MH-safe machine preparation

d)

Disable alert for workflow efficiency

97.

A poor-quality pleth waveform on pulse oximetry is seen. What is the MOST appropriate interpretation?

a)

True hypoxemia

b)

Requires ABG

c)

Signal interference or poor perfusion

d)

Cardiac arrest

98.

A hospital introduces tele-anesthesia for remote monitoring of ORs. Which scenario MOST benefits from this technology?

a)

Simple ASA I minor surgeries

b)

Supervision of multiple ORs with unstable patients at night

c)

Billing review

d)

Transporting stable patients

99.

The EMR shows a sudden drop in ETCO₂ from 35 to 15 mmHg. Pulse oximetry is normal. What is the MOST urgent diagnosis to rule out?

a)

Hyperventilation

b)

Low FiO₂

c)

Pulmonary embolism or sudden ↓ pulmonary blood flow

d)

Atelectasis

100.

A new AIMS update introduces automated medication dosing error alerts. Which scenario BEST illustrates its benefit?

a)

Alert triggers when a repeated dose exceeds safe limits

b)

Alert triggers for every medication

c)

Alert warns that patient is NPO

d)

Alert delays charting

101.

The MOST important goal of the WHO Surgical Safety Checklist is:

a)

Reduce OR waiting time

b)

Ensure billing accuracy

c)

Improve teamwork and reduce perioperative morbidity

d)

Speed up case turnover

102.

Which ASA standard requires continuous monitoring of oxygenation?

a)

Standard I

b)

Standard II

c)

Standard III

d)

Standard IV

103.

The MOST common cause of anesthesia-related claims in closed-claims analyses is:

a)

Equipment failure

b)

Human error

c)

Rare drug reactions

d)

Blood product issues

104.

A time-out before incision confirms:

a)

Patient fasting status

b)

Correct patient, procedure, site

c)

Allergies only

d)

OR nurse assignment

105.

Which step MOST reduces medication errors during anesthesia?

a)

Using unlabeled syringes

b)

Color-coding syringes

c)

Reading label aloud before administration

d)

Relying on memory

106.

Capnography during sedation is MOST important because it:

a)

Measures cardiac output

b)

Detects hypoventilation earlier than pulse oximetry

c)

Prevents bronchospasm

d)

Replaces ECG

107.

A patient under general anesthesia suddenly shows loss of ETCO₂, but SpO₂ is still 100%. First priority action?

a)

Assume the monitor is faulty

b)

Check for circuit disconnection

c)

Give epinephrine

d)

Increase FiO₂

108.

During induction, the BP drops to 60/40. You discover no IV fluids connected due to line misplacement. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

a)

Document error and continue

b)

Inform OR team and administer immediate resuscitation

c)

Restart induction

d)

Hide error since it was corrected

109.

A nurse reports rising temperature and tachycardia during surgery. The ETCO₂ is climbing rapidly. To prevent catastrophic harm, which action is MOST critical?

a)

Increase volatile agent

b)

. Stop triggering agents + prepare dantrolene

c)

Delay treatment until CK returns

d)

Transfer to PACU

110.

During a laparoscopic case, the insufflation pressure suddenly rises and the patient becomes hypoxic. What patient safety threat must be prioritized?

a)

Hypoventilation

b)

Esophageal intubation

c)

Tension pneumoperitoneum or pneumothorax

d)

Equipment contamination

111.

A resident attempts intubation repeatedly without success, causing desaturation. According to airway safety principles, the attending should:

a)

Allow unlimited attempts

b)

Take over after 2 failed attempts

c)

Cancel the surgery

d)

Increase propofol

112.

A patient becomes hypotensive after spinal anesthesia. The anesthesiologist is temporarily out of the OR. What safety issue is MOST violated?

a)

OR standards

b)

Continuous presence of qualified anesthesia personnel

c)

Time-out protocol

d)

Equipment maintenance

113.

In PACU, a patient receiving PCA morphine becomes somnolent with RR 6/min. What is the highest priority?

a)

Call surgeon

b)

Stop PCA + give naloxone titration

c)

Increase O₂ flow

d)

Document and observe

114.

You notice that a surgeon insists on starting a case even though the defibrillator is missing. What is the safest response?

a)

Proceed with case

b)

Request a defibrillator and delay induction

c)

Ask for a waiver

d)

Start anesthetic and hope no event occurs

115.

An elderly patient with sepsis is receiving norepinephrine through a peripheral IV. The extremity shows blanching and pain. What is the BEST action?

a)

Increase infusion rate

b)

Continue using same IV

c)

Suspect extravasation → stop infusion + phentolamine

d)

Apply ice only

116.

Intraoperatively, a medication syringe looks identical to another with a different drug. What is the MOST effective system-level solution?

a)

Train staff to memorize colors

b)

Standardized labeling with tall-man lettering and barcode scanning

c)

Keep syringes unlabeled but separated

d)

Allow nurses to verify drugs only

117.

A patient with known difficult airway is brought to ER for urgent surgery. The team failed to check the difficult-airway cart. What is the MOST critical risk introduced?

a)

Delayed recovery

b)

Inability to oxygenate or ventilate during crisis

c)

Increased PONV

d)

Medication errors

118.

During prone positioning, you discover pressure on the eyes from the headrest. What immediate action preserves patient safety?

a)

Continue because eyes are closed

b)

Reposition head + relieve pressure to prevent ischemic optic neuropathy

c)

Tighten straps

d)

Increase anesthetic depth

119.

A staff member spills IV antibiotics onto the anesthesia cart leading to contamination of airway instruments. What should be done?

a)

Wipe with cloth

b)

Replace contaminated items + disinfect cart per infection control protocol

c)

Blow-dry items

d)

Use same instruments if visually clean

120.

While securing an epidural, you note the wrong patient sticker on the chart. The nurse insists it's correct. What is your BEST action?

a)

Proceed based on nurse confirmation

b)

Stop and perform full patient identity verification

c)

Ask family informally

d)

Continue since risk is low