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Worksheets

AEMT

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

You arrive to a trauma patient with shallow breathing at 6/min and poor chest rise. What is the BEST first intervention?

a)

Nasal cannula 6 L/min

b)

NRB 15 L/min

c)

BVM with high-flow O2

d)

OPA with no ventilations

2.

While ventilating an unresponsive patient, you feel increasing resistance and the stomach begins to distend. Your BEST next action is to:

a)

Ventilate faster

b)

Apply more pressure

c)

Reposition airway and reduce rate

d)

Insert OPA

3.

A patient with wheezes, increased work of breathing, and prolonged expirations MOST likely needs:

a)

CPAP

b)

Suction

c)

Albuterol

d)

Epinephrine 1:1,000 IM

4.

You are ventilating a trauma patient who suddenly becomes hypotensive after you apply a BVM with PEEP. Why?

a)

Airway swelling

b)

Increased intrathoracic pressure reduces venous return

c)

Tension pneumothorax spontaneously resolved

d)

Increased preload

5.

A patient with facial trauma and blood in the airway is gurgling. What is the FIRST priority?

a)

NRB

b)

Suction

c)

Albuterol

d)

Rapid transport

6.

A patient with stridor after a burn injury to the face is MOST likely experiencing:

a)

Bronchitis

b)

Epiglottic swelling

c)

Hypovolemia

d)

Pneumonia

7.

A conscious hypoxic patient refuses CPAP. You should:

a)

Force application

b)

Apply nasal cannula

c)

Apply NRB

d)

Contact medical direction

8.

Which airway adjunct is acceptable for a semi-conscious patient with a gag reflex?

a)

OPA

b)

NPA

c)

BVM

d)

Supraglottic airway

9.

A trauma patient with jaw pain cannot open his mouth. You need to ventilate. Best option?

a)

OPA

b)

Jaw thrust

c)

NPA

d)

Two-person BVM

10.

A patient with COPD suddenly becomes cyanotic. Which oxygen delivery method is the BEST immediate option?

a)

CPAP

b)

NRB 15 L/min

c)

Nasal cannula

d)

Venturi mask

11.

When is CPAP contraindicated?

a)

Patient is awake

b)

Patient has wheezes

c)

Systolic BP 84

d)

RR 24

12.

A bag-mask ventilation complication MOST likely in pediatrics is:

a)

Gastric distension

b)

Hypertension

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Severe bradycardia

13.

During airway assessment, snoring indicates:

a)

Tongue obstruction

b)

Fluid obstruction

c)

Lung collapse

d)

Partial bronchospasm

14.

Which patient MOST requires immediate ventilation?

a)

RR 28 shallow, SpO2 92%

b)

RR 6 irregular, altered LOC

c)

RR 20 with wheezes

d)

RR 22 with nasal flaring

15.

A patient with severe facial trauma and profuse bleeding into the airway. Your BEST airway management is:

a)

OPA

b)

BVM with two providers

c)

Aggressive suction and BVM

d)

CPAP

16.

Which finding MOST suggests cardiogenic shock?

a)

Warm skin

b)

Bounding pulses

c)

Pulmonary edema

d)

High BP

17.

A patient with chest pain and diaphoresis is most concerning for:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

MI

c)

COPD

d)

Stroke

18.

A hypoglycemic patient who is unresponsive should receive:

a)

Oral glucose

b)

Dextrose IV

c)

Albuterol

d)

Naloxone

19.

A diabetic patient with fruity odor on breath most likely has:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

DKA

c)

Stroke

d)

Alcohol intoxication

20.

A patient collapses with no pulse. Defibrillator recommends shock. Rhythm?

a)

Asystole

b)

PEA

c)

V-fib

d)

Sinus tachycardia

21.

A patient in anaphylaxis with wheezing and hypotension MOST needs:

a)

Albuterol

b)

Epinephrine IM

c)

DPIs

d)

Steroids

22.

A 70-year-old in CHF has rales and respiratory distress. Best management?

a)

CPAP

b)

NRB

c)

Suction

d)

Albuterol

23.

Stroke symptoms for 25 minutes. The MOST important intervention?

a)

High-flow O2

b)

Maintain airway, rapid transport to stroke center

c)

CPR

d)

Narcan

24.

Hypovolemic shock typically presents with:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Warm skin

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Hypertension

25.

A dialysis patient is short of breath with JVD and crackles following missed session. Most likely?

a)

Volume overload

b)

Pneumonia

c)

DKA

d)

Anemia

26.

Which is MOST dangerous in a patient on clopidogrel?

a)

Nosebleed

b)

Head trauma

c)

Leg laceration

d)

Finger cut

27.

A confused, sweaty, pale patient with normal respirations most likely has:

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Anxiety

28.

A patient with sepsis is MOST likely to present with:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Bradypnea

c)

Tachycardia and warm skin early

d)

Cold skin early

29.

A patient with pinpoint pupils and slow respirations likely needs:

a)

Albuterol

b)

Narcan

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Dextrose

30.

A patient with nausea, vomiting, and LUQ pain after alcohol binge may have:

a)

Appendicitis

b)

Pancreatitis

c)

Cholecystitis

d)

AAA

31.

A patient with bright red hematemesis likely has bleeding from:

a)

Stomach

b)

Lower intestines

c)

Rectum

d)

Esophagus

32.

Hyperventilation in sepsis often causes:

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

CO poisoning

33.

A patient with a history of CHF and BP 90/60 should NOT receive:

a)

CPAP

b)

Oxygen

c)

IV fluids

d)

Positioning

34.

Narcan should be titrated to:

a)

Fully awaken patient

b)

Reverse respiratory depression

c)

Ensure withdrawal

d)

Increase pain

35.

A patient with paradoxical chest movement likely has:

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Flail chest

c)

COPD

d)

Hyperventilation

36.

A patient with JVD, hypotension, and muffled heart sounds has:

a)

Tension pneumothorax

b)

Cardiac tamponade

c)

Chest contusion

d)

Flail chest

37.

A gunshot wound to the abdomen with stable vitals. BEST care?

a)

Remove protruding objects

b)

Cover eviscerations with moist sterile dressing

c)

Apply direct pressure to belly

d)

Position supine and transport

38.

A patient with inadequate breathing after blunt chest trauma suddenly loses pulses during ventilation. Suspect:

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Tension pneumothorax

c)

Asthma

d)

CHF

39.

Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulselessness, and paralysis suggest:

a)

Strain

b)

Sprain

c)

Compartment syndrome

d)

Dislocation

40.

Pelvic fracture blood loss potential:

a)

250 mL

b)

500 mL

c)

1 L

d)

Up to 3 L

41.

A severe burn patient’s FIRST priority is preventing:

a)

Infection

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Scarring

d)

Pain

42.

An avulsed tooth should be transported:

a)

In ice water

b)

In milk or saline

c)

Wrapped dry

d)

In a plastic glove

43.

A patient with flank ecchymosis likely has:

a)

Intraperitoneal bleeding

b)

Retroperitoneal bleeding

c)

Rib fracture

d)

Liver injury

44.

Traumatic asphyxia occurs after:

a)

Airway obstruction

b)

Sudden chest compression

c)

Fall injury

d)

Hypoxia over time

45.

The MOST destructive organ when ruptured is the:

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Spleen

d)

Stomach

46.

Evisceration management includes:

a)

Pushing organs back

b)

Moist sterile dressing

c)

Dry dressing

d)

Direct pressure

47.

Knee dislocations are dangerous because of potential injury to:

a)

Tibial nerve

b)

Popliteal artery

c)

Femoral artery

d)

Ulnar nerve

48.

Shoulder dislocations are generally:

a)

High-risk for vascular damage

b)

Low-risk and more easily reduced

c)

Rare

d)

Usually open injuries

49.

A patient with RUQ pain after trauma likely injured the:

a)

Liver

b)

Spleen

c)

Pancreas

d)

Kidney

50.

A patient with LLQ pain after blunt trauma may have injury to:

a)

Liver

b)

Appendix

c)

Colon

d)

Spleen

51.

Fluid management in hemorrhage focuses on maintaining systolic BP:

a)

60

b)

70

c)

80–90

d)

100–120

52.

A patient with ear drainage after head trauma likely has:

a)

Ear infection

b)

Basilar skull fracture

c)

Ruptured TM only

d)

Sinusitis

53.

Burns to face, hands, and feet are:

a)

Minor

b)

Moderate

c)

Critical

d)

Non-traumatic

54.

A chest wound with bubbling during breathing indicates:

a)

Solid organ injury

b)

Sucking chest wound

c)

Flail chest

d)

Cardiac tamponade

55.

Eye impalement management:

a)

Remove object

b)

Stabilize, cover both eyes

c)

Cover only injured eye

d)

Use pressure

56.

Blood loss for tib-fib fracture:

a)

Minimal

b)

250 mL

c)

500 mL

d)

1,000 mL

57.

Traction splints are used for:

a)

Femoral neck fracture

b)

Midshaft femur fracture

c)

Pelvic fracture

d)

Ankle fracture

58.

Diaphragmatic breathing suggests:

a)

Rib fracture

b)

Chest wall paralysis

c)

Hyperventilation

d)

Drug overdose

59.

A patient with Cullen’s sign likely has:

a)

Liver injury

b)

Intraperitoneal bleeding

c)

Kidney injury

d)

Rib fracture

60.

Grey Turner’s sign indicates:

a)

Chest injury

b)

Pancreatitis or retroperitoneal bleed

c)

Spinal cord injury

d)

Lung contusion

61.

Severe burns increase risk of:

a)

Hyperthermia

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hypoglycemia

62.

Chemical burns should be managed by:

a)

Neutralizing agent

b)

Immediate flushing

c)

Dry cooling

d)

Dressing first

63.

Partial-thickness burns present with:

a)

No pain

b)

Blisters and pain

c)

Charring

d)

Eschar only

64.

Subcutaneous emphysema indicates:

a)

Airway obstruction

b)

Air leakage into soft tissues

c)

Chest wall swelling

d)

Cardiac tamponade

65.

The most immediate complication of rib fractures is:

a)

Infection

b)

Atelectasis

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Bleeding

66.

Murphy’s sign indicates:

a)

Appendix

b)

Gallbladder inflammation

c)

Liver laceration

d)

Kidney stone

67.

A tension pneumothorax MOST classically presents with:

a)

Equal breath sounds

b)

Deviation of trachea away from injured side

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hypertension

68.

A trauma patient with normal vitals may still have serious abdominal injuries because:

a)

Abdomen has no vessels

b)

Early signs can be subtle

c)

Pain always appears immediately

d)

Bleeding always causes visible bruising

69.

A newborn with HR <60 despite drying and stimulation should receive:

a)

Narcan

b)

BVM ventilation

c)

Chest compressions only

d)

Oxygen blow-by

70.

Children lose heat primarily through:

a)

Conduction

b)

Evaporation

c)

Radiation due to large surface area

d)

Convection

71.

A pediatric burn patient is at greatest risk for:

a)

High fever

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Bradycardia

72.

A child with stridor and drooling most likely has:

a)

Asthma

b)

Croup

c)

Epiglottitis

d)

Allergic reaction

73.

Pediatric airway differences include:

a)

Larger tongue proportion

b)

Wider airway

c)

Rigid trachea

d)

Small occiput

74.

A full-term newborn breathing 30/min with cyanosis and limp appearance needs FIRST:

a)

CPR

b)

Ventilations

c)

Warming and suction

d)

NRB

75.

A pregnant trauma patient should be positioned:

a)

Supine

b)

Prone

c)

Left lateral

d)

Right lateral

76.

A prolapsed cord requires:

a)

Push cord back

b)

Lift baby’s head off cord

c)

Apply pressure to abdomen

d)

Push baby back in

77.

A newborn is not breathing but has a HR of 120. Best action:

a)

CPR

b)

BVM

c)

Suction only

d)

Passive O₂

78.

A child with 10% partial-thickness burns needs:

a)

IV fluids

b)

Oral fluids

c)

No transport

d)

Immediate intubation

79.

A pediatric airway obstruction showing poor air movement should be treated with:

a)

Cough encouragement

b)

Back blows and chest thrusts

c)

Abdominal thrusts

d)

NRB

80.

A pregnant patient with abdominal trauma may lose large amounts of blood before showing symptoms because:

a)

Increased blood volume

b)

Smaller uterus

c)

No pain

d)

Placental protection

81.

APGAR is evaluated at:

a)

1 and 5 minutes

b)

10 and 20 minutes

c)

2 and 4 minutes

d)

Immediately after birth only

82.

A child with a suspected epiglottitis should NOT receive:

a)

Humidified O₂

b)

Calm environment

c)

Airway manipulation

d)

Transport

83.

A pediatric patient with 30% burns MOST needs:

a)

Ice

b)

Immediate fluid resuscitation

c)

Oral hydration

d)

Antibiotics

84.

The MOST important scene safety consideration is:

a)

Patient condition

b)

Number of bystanders

c)

Personal safety

d)

Weather

85.

During triage, a patient who is not breathing until you open their airway is tagged:

a)

Green

b)

Yellow

c)

Red

d)

Black

86.

Most proper lift is with:

a)

Back muscles

b)

One hand

c)

Legs

d)

Arms only

87.

You are exposed to blood. First action:

a)

Tell patient

b)

Wash immediately

c)

Finish call

d)

Report to supervisor after shift

88.

The best way to avoid EMT-provider injury in lifting is:

a)

Bend at waist

b)

Keep weight close

c)

Twist while lifting

d)

Lift fast

89.

A violent patient requires:

a)

Immediate restraint

b)

Police assistance

c)

Four-point EMT restraint

d)

No intervention

90.

You have two critical patients, limited help, and a fire nearby. First step?

a)

Triage

b)

Begin care

c)

Move patients

d)

Evacuate self

91.

A rigid C-collar is applied for:

a)

Isolated ankle fracture

b)

Neck pain after trauma

c)

Isolated rib fracture

d)

Flu symptoms

92.

A patient on scene says they refuse care repeatedly but appears confused. Best action:

a)

Allow AMA

b)

Obtain signature

c)

Determine capacity

d)

Leave scene

93.

HIPAA MOST applies to:

a)

Billing only

b)

Patient privacy

c)

Ambulance cleaning

d)

Radio communication

94.

Best method to document trauma timing is:

a)

Approximate

b)

Use bystander reports

c)

Exact times and objective findings

d)

General statements

95.

In a hazmat event, EMS should stage in:

a)

Hot zone

b)

Warm zone

c)

Cold zone

d)

Contamination corridor

96.

When radioing the hospital, you should:

a)

Give full patient history

b)

Only include relevant info

c)

Provide personal opinion

d)

Speak casually

97.

For a helicopter landing zone, minimum size is:

a)

10×10 ft

b)

50×50 ft

c)

100×100 ft

d)

200×200 ft

98.

The BEST predictor of successful resuscitation is:

a)

Provider skill

b)

Early CPR and defibrillation

c)

Patient age

d)

EMS arrival time only