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Worksheets

Triple IGCSE Whole Course

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which unit is used for measuring force in the SI system?

a)

second (s)

b)

metre per second (m/s)

c)

newton (N)

d)

kilogram (kg)

2.

Average speed is calculated by which expression?

a)

distance moved ÷ time taken

b)

time taken ÷ distance moved

c)

change in velocity ÷ time taken

d)

final speed − initial speed

3.

On a distance–time graph, a straight line with constant positive gradient indicates what motion?

a)

constant speed forward

b)

increasing acceleration

c)

stationary object

d)

motion with decreasing speed

4.

Acceleration is defined as which of the following?

a)

rate of change of distance

b)

rate of change of velocity

c)

rate of change of time

d)

rate of change of speed

5.

Which formula correctly relates acceleration to change in velocity and time?

a)

a = v ÷ t

b)

a = (v − u) ÷ t

c)

a = t ÷ (v − u)

d)

a = u × v × t

6.

On a velocity–time graph, the area under the curve represents which quantity?

a)

resultant force

b)

change in momentum

c)

acceleration of motion

d)

distance travelled

7.

The gradient of a velocity–time graph gives which physical quantity?

a)

acceleration value

b)

force applied

c)

distance covered

d)

speed of travel

8.

Which equation links final speed, initial speed, acceleration, and distance moved?

a)

v = u + at

b)

s = ut + 1/2 at²

c)

v² = u² + 2as

d)

F = ma

9.

Which statement best describes a vector quantity?

a)

has magnitude only

b)

has direction only

c)

has magnitude and direction

d)

has units but no value

10.

Friction is known as a force that does what?

a)

changes mass

b)

increases speed

c)

creates momentum

d)

opposes motion

11.

What is the relationship between unbalanced force, mass, and acceleration?

a)

F = m + a

b)

F = a ÷ m

c)

F = m × a

d)

F = m ÷ a

12.

Weight is related to mass and gravitational field strength by which formula?

a)

W = m + g

b)

W = m ÷ g

c)

W = m × g

d)

W = g ÷ m

13.

Which combination makes up the stopping distance of a vehicle?

a)

engine plus tyre distance

b)

rolling plus sliding distance

c)

impact plus rebound distance

d)

thinking plus braking distance

14.

Which factor increases thinking distance for a driver?

a)

lower mass of vehicle

b)

shorter reaction time

c)

greater road friction

d)

higher vehicle speed

15.

For falling objects, reaching terminal velocity is explained by what balance?

a)

mass equals acceleration

b)

weight equals air resistance

c)

speed equals distance

d)

force equals momentum

16.

In the initial linear region of a force–extension graph for a spring, which law applies?

a)

Ohm’s law

b)

Kepler’s first law

c)

Hooke’s law

d)

Newton’s third law

17.

Momentum is defined by which relationship?

a)

p = m × v

b)

p = m + v

c)

p = v ÷ m

d)

p = m ÷ v

18.

Which principle allows calculation of unknown masses or velocities during collisions?

a)

conservation of mass

b)

conservation of charge

c)

conservation of momentum

d)

conservation of energy

19.

Which expression links force to change in momentum over time?

a)

F = (mu − mv) × t

b)

F = (mv − mu) ÷ t

c)

F = (mv + mu) ÷ t

d)

F = t ÷ (mv − mu)

20.

Newton’s third law states which of the following?

a)

forces cause acceleration

b)

every action has equal opposite reaction

c)

energy is conserved in systems

d)

weight acts through centre of gravity

21.

The moment of a force about a pivot equals which product?

a)

mass × acceleration

b)

force × perpendicular distance

c)

force × time

d)

weight × height

22.

Where does the weight of a body act?

a)

through its base contact

b)

through its highest point

c)

through its centre of gravity

d)

through its geometric centre

23.

For a light beam supported at both ends, placing a heavy object near the left end causes what change?

a)

equal upward forces remain

b)

no change in reactions

c)

greater upward force at left

d)

greater upward force at right

24.

Which unit measures electric current in a circuit?

a)

watt (W)

b)

coulomb (C)

c)

ampere (A)

d)

volt (V)

25.

Which quantity is measured in joules?

a)

electric current

b)

electric charge

c)

electrical energy

d)

electrical resistance

26.

A safe appliance casing is connected to earth. What is the main purpose of earthing?

a)

reduces appliance power

b)

prevents overheating coils

c)

increases mains voltage

d)

provides path for fault current

27.

Which device interrupts a circuit automatically when current is too high?

a)

transformer unit

b)

double insulator

c)

resistor pack

d)

circuit breaker

28.

In a resistor, current causes an energy transfer mainly into what form?

a)

thermal energy

b)

sound waves

c)

light emission

d)

chemical energy

29.

Which equation links electrical power, current, and voltage?

a)

P = I + V

b)

P = V ÷ I

c)

P = I × R

d)

P = I × V

30.

Energy transferred in an electrical device is given by which expression?

a)

E = Q × R × t

b)

E = V × R × t

c)

E = I × V × t

d)

E = I × R × t

31.

Mains electricity is typically which type of current?

a)

alternating current

b)

steady direct current

c)

constant voltage current

d)

pulsed direct current

32.

Which circuit type is preferable for domestic lighting so one lamp failing does not stop others?

a)

balanced bridge

b)

single-loop circuit

c)

parallel circuit

d)

series circuit

33.

In a series circuit, the current is mainly affected by which factors?

a)

supply voltage and component resistances

b)

lamp brightness and fuse rating

c)

wire color and switch type

d)

battery size and casing material

34.

What happens to current when the resistance of a circuit increases, assuming constant voltage?

a)

current oscillates randomly

b)

current stays identical

c)

current decreases

d)

current increases

35.

Which statement about an LDR and a thermistor is correct?

a)

thermistor resistance never changes

b)

thermistor resistance increases when warmed

c)

LDR resistance decreases with light

d)

LDR resistance increases with light

36.

Which relation links voltage, current, and resistance?

a)

V = P × t

b)

R = V ÷ I²

c)

I = V × R

d)

V = I × R

37.

What is electric current in a metal conductor at the particle level?

a)

flow of electrons

b)

flow of positive ions

c)

flow of neutral atoms

d)

flow of photons

38.

At a junction in a circuit, what must be conserved?

a)

resistance value

b)

current flow

c)

power rating

d)

voltage drop

39.

Two resistors are connected in parallel. What is true about the voltage across them?

a)

varies with wire length

b)

the same across both

c)

lower on the smaller resistor

d)

higher on the larger resistor

40.

Which statement about voltage and energy per charge is correct?

a)

volt is ampere per ohm

b)

volt is joule per coulomb

c)

volt equals joule per second

d)

volt equals watt per second

41.

Which equation relates charge, current, and time?

a)

Q = P × t

b)

Q = I × t

c)

Q = R × t

d)

Q = V × t

42.

Electrostatic charging by friction most directly involves which process?

a)

fusion of atoms

b)

absorption of photons

c)

creation of new protons

d)

movement of electrons

43.

Which hazard can arise from electrostatic charges when refuelling aircraft?

a)

engine overcooling

b)

spontaneous magnetization

c)

spark ignition of fuel

d)

battery reverse charging

44.

Which unit is used to measure frequency of a wave?

a)

second (s)

b)

degree (°)

c)

hertz (Hz)

d)

metre per second (m/s)

45.

In a transverse wave, which direction do particle vibrations occur relative to energy transfer?

a)

opposite to propagation

b)

parallel to propagation

c)

perpendicular to propagation

d)

along curved paths

46.

Which statement best describes longitudinal waves?

a)

no vibrations while traveling

b)

vibrations random in direction

c)

vibrations perpendicular to travel

d)

vibrations parallel to travel

47.

Which quantity is the number of wave cycles per second?

a)

period

b)

wavelength

c)

amplitude

d)

frequency

48.

Which relationship correctly links wave speed, frequency, and wavelength?

a)

v = f ÷ λ

b)

v = λ × T

c)

v = λ ÷ f

d)

v = f × λ

49.

A wave has period T. What is its frequency?

a)

f = v × T

b)

f = 1/T

c)

f = λ/T

d)

f = T/λ

50.

All electromagnetic waves in free space share which property?

a)

same speed

b)

same amplitude

c)

same wavelength

d)

same frequency

51.

Which ordering shows decreasing wavelength across the electromagnetic spectrum?

a)

gamma → radio

b)

infrared → microwave

c)

radio → gamma

d)

visible → ultraviolet

52.

Which electromagnetic wave is commonly used for broadcasting communications?

a)

x-rays

b)

microwaves

c)

radio waves

d)

ultraviolet

53.

Excessive exposure to ultraviolet light primarily risks which effect?

a)

bone density increase

b)

internal tissue heating

c)

damage to surface cells and blindness

d)

sterilising food contamination

54.

Which law describes reflection of light at a mirror?

a)

angle of reflection equals critical angle

b)

angle of refraction equals angle of incidence

c)

angle of incidence equals angle of reflection

d)

angle of incidence equals refractive index

55.

What does the refractive index n equal for a ray entering a material?

a)

n = sin i / sin r

b)

n = sin r / sin i

c)

n = 1 / sin c

d)

n = v / f

56.

What is the critical angle c within a material?

a)

angle giving zero reflection

b)

angle between wavefronts

c)

angle for total internal reflection

d)

angle giving maximum refraction

57.

Which relation connects critical angle and refractive index?

a)

sin c = 1/n

b)

sin c = 1/λ

c)

sin c = n

d)

sin c = n²

58.

Sound waves are classified as which type of wave?

a)

longitudinal waves

b)

transverse waves

c)

electromagnetic waves

d)

standing waves

59.

What is the typical frequency range of human hearing?

a)

200–200 000 Hz

b)

20–20 000 Hz

c)

2–20 Hz

d)

2–2000 Hz

60.

Increasing the frequency of a sound source changes pitch in which way?

a)

pitch stays constant

b)

pitch becomes higher

c)

pitch becomes lower

d)

pitch becomes random

61.

Increasing the amplitude of vibration of a sound source affects loudness how?

a)

loudness becomes irregular

b)

loudness unchanged

c)

loudness decreases

d)

loudness increases

62.

What change in observed frequency occurs when a source moves toward an observer?

a)

frequency stays identical

b)

frequency decreases

c)

frequency increases

d)

frequency becomes zero

63.

When a light ray enters a denser medium at an angle, which effect occurs?

a)

no refraction occurs

b)

refraction away from the normal

c)

refraction toward the normal

d)

reflection only

64.

Which unit measures the rate of energy transfer in physics?

a)

metre (m) per second

b)

joule (J) per second

c)

newton (N) per metre

d)

kilogram (kg) per hour

65.

Which quantity is measured in newtons?

a)

Time taken for a process

b)

Distance moved by an object

c)

Energy stored in a battery

d)

Force exerted by a push

66.

Which statement best describes an energy store?

a)

A way energy is kept in a system

b)

A path energy takes between objects

c)

A unit used to measure energy

d)

A device that produces electricity

67.

Which pair lists two energy stores correctly?

a)

Sankey and magnetic

b)

Radiation and sound

c)

Mechanical and heating

d)

Chemical and elastic

68.

Which transfer method moves thermal energy through direct particle collisions?

a)

Convection of fluids

b)

Conduction of heat

c)

Electrical resistance

d)

Radiation by waves

69.

What does the principle of conservation of energy state?

a)

Energy is only stored chemically

b)

Energy increases in all processes

c)

Energy depends only on temperature

d)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed

70.

A device has 200 J input and 50 J useful output. What is its efficiency?

a)

25% efficiency

b)

40% efficiency

c)

50% efficiency

d)

75% efficiency

71.

Which diagram is commonly used to represent energy flows and efficiency?

a)

Ray diagrams

b)

Free-body diagrams

c)

Vector diagrams

d)

Sankey diagrams

72.

Which surface property increases absorption and emission of thermal radiation?

a)

Shiny metallic surfaces

b)

Smooth and white surfaces

c)

Dull and black surfaces

d)

Transparent glass surfaces

73.

Which method primarily reduces unwanted energy transfer from a house?

a)

Installing insulation

b)

Painting walls

c)

Adding heavier furniture

d)

Opening more windows

74.

Which equation links work done, force, and distance moved in the force direction?

a)

W = F × d

b)

GPE = m g h

c)

P = W ÷ t

d)

KE = ½ m v²

75.

What is work done equal to in energy terms?

a)

Power consumed

b)

Energy transferred

c)

Force multiplied

d)

Speed squared

76.

Which formula gives gravitational potential energy near Earth’s surface?

a)

F = m a

b)

KE = ½ m v²

c)

P = W ÷ t

d)

GPE = m g h

77.

A 3 kg object moves at 4 m/s. Its kinetic energy is

a)

12 joules

b)

48 joules

c)

36 joules

d)

24 joules

78.

Power is defined as

a)

Total energy stored

b)

Amount of force applied

c)

Rate of energy transfer

d)

Distance moved per time

79.

A motor transfers 600 J in 20 s. What is its power?

a)

30 watts

b)

60 watts

c)

120 watts

d)

300 watts

80.

Which resource is non-renewable for electricity generation?

a)

Geothermal

b)

Fossil fuels

c)

Wind power

d)

Solar cells

81.

Which advantage is common to wind and solar electricity?

a)

Low fuel cost and low emissions

b)

Stable output regardless of weather

c)

Short construction and decommission

d)

High energy density of fuel

82.

Which SI unit is used to measure pressure in physics?

a)

Newton per square metre

b)

Joule per kilogram degree

c)

Kilogram per cubic metre

d)

Metre per second squared

83.

Which unit correctly measures density of a material?

a)

Kilogram per cubic metre

b)

Newton per metre squared

c)

Joule per kilogram kelvin

d)

Metre per second

84.

Which temperature scale has an absolute zero at 0 K?

a)

Kelvin temperature scale

b)

Celsius temperature scale

c)

Fahrenheit temperature scale

d)

Rankine temperature scale

85.

For mass m and volume V, which expression gives density ρ?

a)

ρ equals m divided by V

b)

ρ equals V divided by m

c)

ρ equals m times V

d)

ρ equals V minus m

86.

Pressure p is defined by which relationship for force F on area A?

a)

p equals F minus A

b)

p equals F times A

c)

p equals A divided by F

d)

p equals F divided by A

87.

At rest, how does pressure at a point act in a liquid or gas?

a)

Equally in all directions

b)

Only horizontally outward

c)

More along flow direction

d)

Only vertically downward

88.

Which unit is used for specific heat capacity in this course?

a)

Watts per kilogram kelvin

b)

Joules per kilogram degree Celsius

c)

Joules per mole kelvin

d)

Calories per gram kelvin

89.

Which statement best describes particle motion in gases?

a)

Ordered paths in layers

b)

Fixed positions vibrating only

c)

Random motion colliding with walls

d)

Circular orbits around nuclei

90.

Which relation gives pressure difference in a fluid column of height h and density ρ?

a)

Δp equals g divided by h ρ

b)

Δp equals h plus ρ plus g

c)

Δp equals ρ divided by h g

d)

Δp equals h times ρ times g

91.

Which statement about Kelvin temperature and kinetic energy is correct?

a)

Directly proportional relationship

b)

Inversely proportional relationship

c)

Unrelated at constant volume

d)

Proportional only for liquids

92.

A block has mass 2.0 kg and volume 0.001 m³. What is its density?

a)

500 kilograms per cubic metre

b)

2 kilograms per cubic metre

c)

2000 kilograms per cubic metre

d)

0.5 kilograms per cubic metre

93.

A force of 80 N acts uniformly on an area of 0.02 m². What is the pressure?

a)

8000 pascals

b)

1600 pascals

c)

40 pascals

d)

4000 pascals

94.

Heating a system increases which energy change when temperature rises by ΔT?

a)

m c ΔT for thermal energy

b)

m g h for potential energy

c)

½ m v² for kinetic energy

d)

P t for electrical energy

95.

During melting, the temperature of a pure substance at its melting point tends to

a)

Oscillate with random fluctuations

b)

Increase steadily as heat is added

c)

Remain constant while energy changes state

d)

Decrease due to latent cooling

96.

Which set of base units corresponds to pressure?

a)

kg m s⁻²

b)

kg m⁻¹ s⁻²

c)

kg m⁻³ s

d)

kg m² s⁻²

97.

Gas at constant temperature follows which qualitative trend between pressure and volume?

a)

Pressure decreases as volume increases

b)

Pressure increases as volume increases

c)

Pressure fluctuates without pattern

d)

Pressure independent of volume change

98.

For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, which equation holds?

a)

ΔQ equals m c ΔT

b)

V equals m over ρ

c)

p₁ over T₁ equals p₂ over T₂

d)

p₁V₁ equals p₂V₂

99.

For a fixed mass of gas at constant volume, which equation relates pressure and Kelvin temperature?

a)

p₁ over T₁ equals p₂ over T₂

b)

p₁V₁ equals p₂V₂

c)

p equals F over A

d)

ρ equals m over V

100.

A liquid column 0.5 m deep has density 1200 kg/m³. Take g = 10 N/kg. What is the pressure difference between top and bottom?

a)

6000 pascals

b)

1200 pascals

c)

24000 pascals

d)

500 pascals

101.

A 0.80 kg copper block with c = 385 J/kg°C cools by 5°C. What thermal energy change occurs?

a)

1540 joules released

b)

308 joules absorbed

c)

3850 joules released

d)

1925 joules absorbed

102.

Which unit measures electric current in circuit problems?

a)

ampere (A)

b)

ohm (Ω)

c)

volt (V)

d)

watt (W)

103.

What best describes the interaction between two like magnetic poles?

a)

they cancel magnetism

b)

they attract strongly

c)

they rotate together

d)

they repel each other

104.

Which material property suits making a permanent magnet?

a)

thermally conductive

b)

magnetically hard

c)

magnetically soft

d)

electrically resistive

105.

What is a magnetic field line?

a)

edge of a magnet

b)

line showing field direction

c)

line of electric current

d)

path of moving charges

106.

Placing iron in a magnetic field can cause what effect?

a)

thermal expansion

b)

electric breakdown

c)

induced magnetism

d)

optical reflection

107.

Two bar magnets are arranged to produce a uniform field between them. Which orientation works best?

a)

opposite poles facing

b)

like poles facing

c)

side-by-side lengthwise

d)

stacked end-to-end

108.

An electric current in a straight conductor produces what around it?

a)

a thermal gradient

b)

an electric spark

c)

a pressure wave

d)

a magnetic field

109.

Which diagram shows the magnetic field around a long straight wire carrying current?

a)

radial spokes outward

b)

zigzag segments

c)

parallel straight lines

d)

concentric circles

110.

In a loudspeaker, why is there a force on the voice coil?

a)

current in magnetic field

b)

sound pushing the cone

c)

heat expanding the coil

d)

gravity pulling downward

111.

Which hand rule predicts the force direction on a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field?

a)

Lenz’s law

b)

left-hand rule

c)

right-hand grip

d)

Fleming’s thumb rule

112.

How does force on a current-carrying conductor change when field strength doubles and current is unchanged?

a)

force reverses

b)

force unchanged

c)

force halves

d)

force doubles

113.

When a conductor cuts magnetic field lines, what is produced across it?

a)

an induced voltage

b)

a heating effect

c)

a light emission

d)

a mechanical stress

114.

Increasing the speed of coil rotation in a generator affects the induced voltage in what way?

a)

voltage becomes DC

b)

voltage unchanged

c)

voltage decreases

d)

voltage increases

115.

A transformer changes voltage by which design feature?

a)

thicker iron casing

b)

different turns numbers

c)

parallel input coils

d)

higher input current

116.

Which statement describes a step-up transformer used in transmission?

a)

more primary turns

b)

more secondary turns

c)

no iron core needed

d)

equal turns both sides

117.

For an ideal transformer, which relationship holds when efficiency is 100%?

a)

power equals voltage

b)

Ip = Is always

c)

Vp = Vs always

d)

Vp Ip = Vs Is

118.

Which unit measures the activity of a radioactive source?

a)

centimetre (cm)

b)

hour (h)

c)

becquerel (Bq)

d)

minute (min)

119.

Which particles reside in the nucleus of an atom?

a)

protons and neutrons

b)

electrons only

c)

protons and electrons

d)

neutrons and electrons

120.

What does the atomic (proton) number represent?

a)

number of protons

b)

number of neutrons

c)

number of nucleons

d)

number of electrons

121.

Which statement best describes an isotope?

a)

same protons, different neutrons

b)

same neutrons, different protons

c)

different electrons, same nucleons

d)

same mass, different charge

122.

Which radiation has the greatest ionising ability?

a)

visible light

b)

gamma rays

c)

beta particles

d)

alpha particles

123.

Which radiation is most penetrating through lead?

a)

gamma rays

b)

infrared waves

c)

alpha particles

d)

beta particles

124.

Which detector can reveal ionising radiation exposure?

a)

barometer sensor

b)

ohmmeter device

c)

thermometer probe

d)

Geiger–Müller tube

125.

Which source contributes to background ionising radiation?

a)

cosmic rays

b)

sound waves

c)

visible light

d)

thermal conduction

126.

As time passes, the activity of a radioactive source generally

a)

oscillates randomly

b)

stays exactly constant

c)

increases in becquerels

d)

decreases in becquerels

127.

Half-life is defined as the time taken for

a)

charge to vanish

b)

temperature to rise

c)

mass to double

d)

activity to halve

128.

A sample has activity 800 Bq and a half-life of 2 hours. What is its activity after 4 hours?

a)

200 Bq

b)

100 Bq

c)

400 Bq

d)

800 Bq

129.

Which statement distinguishes contamination from irradiation?

a)

contamination adds radioactive material

b)

irradiation creates new atoms

c)

contamination is harmless exposure

d)

irradiation means physical transfer

130.

Which is a danger of ionising radiation to living tissue?

a)

strengthening membranes

b)

causing mutations

c)

improving cell repair

d)

reducing chemical reactivity

131.

In nuclear fission of U-235, what initiates the split?

a)

gamma absorption

b)

neutron collision

c)

electron bombardment

d)

proton capture

132.

Fission of U-235 typically produces

a)

no neutrons released

b)

pure electromagnetic waves

c)

one larger nucleus

d)

two daughter nuclei

133.

A chain reaction occurs when

a)

fission neutrons cause more fissions

b)

control rods absorb all neutrons

c)

moderator speeds up neutrons

d)

gamma rays split nuclei directly

134.

What is the role of control rods in a reactor?

a)

detect emitted gamma

b)

compress the coolant

c)

moderate fuel temperature

d)

absorb excess neutrons

135.

Nuclear fusion is best described as

a)

joining small nuclei

b)

splitting heavy nuclei

c)

emitting alpha particles

d)

ionising outer electrons

136.

Why does fusion require high temperature and pressure?

a)

increase electron speed

b)

overcome proton repulsion

c)

reduce neutron capture

d)

cool the plasma faster

137.

What is the primary energy source for stars?

a)

gravitational collapse

b)

chemical combustion

c)

radioactive decay

d)

nuclear fusion

138.

Which unit measures gravitational field strength in astrophysics?

a)

kilogram per second, kg/s

b)

metre per second squared, m/s²

c)

newton per metre, N/m

d)

newton per kilogram, N/kg

139.

Which list correctly shows base and derived SI units used in astrophysics?

a)

kg, m, s, N, m/s, m/s²

b)

kg, cm, hr, J, km/s

c)

g, m, s, Pa, m/min

d)

kg, m, s, °C, mph

140.

What best describes a galaxy?

a)

a cloud of interstellar gas only

b)

a large collection of billions of stars

c)

a small cluster of a few planets

d)

a single star with many moons

141.

Our solar system belongs to which galaxy?

a)

the Milky Way galaxy

b)

the Andromeda galaxy

c)

the Triangulum galaxy

d)

the Sombrero galaxy

142.

Why is gravitational field strength g different on the Moon than on Earth?

a)

the Moon rotates faster than Earth

b)

the Moon receives less sunlight

c)

the Moon has thicker atmosphere

d)

the Moon has lower mass and radius

143.

Which effect is caused by gravitational force in planetary systems?

a)

moons orbit planets

b)

planets spin on axes

c)

comets emit visible light

d)

asteroids create seasons

144.

Which statement about artificial satellites is correct?

a)

They are stationary above poles

b)

They repel Earth’s gravity

c)

They hover using solar wind

d)

They orbit Earth due to gravity

145.

Comets usually have which kind of orbit compared to planets?

a)

highly elliptical, long-period

b)

nearly circular, short-period

c)

random, non-gravitational

d)

perfectly parabolic, zero-period

146.

Which equation gives orbital speed v for a circular orbit?

a)

v = 2πr / T

b)

v = T / 2πr

c)

v = rT / 2π

d)

v = 2π / rT

147.

A satellite orbits at radius 7.0×10^6 m with period 6.3×10^3 s. What is its orbital speed?

a)

about 7.0 km/s

b)

about 14 km/s

c)

about 1.1 km/s

d)

about 3.5 km/s

148.

How are stars commonly classified in basic astrophysics?

a)

by the shape of nebulae

b)

by the age of galaxies

c)

by the number of planets

d)

by their colour categories

149.

A bluer star compared to a redder star typically has what property?

a)

temperature unrelated to colour

b)

identical surface temperature

c)

lower surface temperature

d)

higher surface temperature

150.

Which sequence shows the life cycle of a Sun-like star?

a)

nebula → main sequence → red giant → white dwarf

b)

white dwarf → red giant → main sequence → nebula

c)

main sequence → nebula → white dwarf → red giant

d)

nebula → red giant → main sequence → white dwarf