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Intro to Geography final

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The 40 ministates, defined by less than one million population, are not allowed voting rights within the United Nations General Assembly.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Which of the following is not considered to be a centripetal force in preserving state cohesiveness?

a)

United Nations membership

b)

Nationalism

c)

Systems of transportation and communication

d)

Effective organization and administration of government

3.

The study of the organization and spatial distribution of political phenomena is known as

a)

geographicacy

b)

pedology

c)

political geography.

d)

international relations.

4.

Which of these countries does not currently have a political movement seeking a degree of self-rule?

a)

Spain

b)

France

c)

Belgium

d)

Germany

5.

Countries in which the capital is also the primary city include

a)

the United States and Canada.

b)

Great Britain and France.

c)

Pakistan and Turkey.

d)

Australia and Brazil.

6.

Switzerland is an example of a

a)

stateless nation.

b)

nation-state.

c)

part-nation state.

d)

multinational state.

7.

Redistricting is an attempt to

a)

draw boundaries so that each voting district has an equal number of voters.

b)

adjust boundaries of racially segregated school systems.

c)

end the overrepresentation of metropolitan districts in state legislatures.

d)

establish electoral districts that have roughly equal areas.

8.

The fact that Illinois has over 6,000 local government units ranging from counties to special purpose sewer districts is an example of

a)

political fragmentation.

b)

metro-government.

c)

gerrymandering.

d)

proportional representation.

9.

Canada houses a powerful secessionist movement in the country's largest province of

a)

Ontario

b)

Quebec

c)

British Columbia.

d)

Manitoba

10.

Chile is an example of a(an) _______________ state.

a)

prorupt

b)

elongated

c)

compact

d)

perforated

11.

Which is the best example of a subsequent superimposed boundary?

a)

the border between Ireland and Northern Ireland

b)

the western portion of the United States-Canada border

c)

the borders of former British colonies in Africa

d)

the border between India and Pakistan

12.

A consequent or ethnographic boundary

a)

coincides with some cultural divide, such as religion or language.

b)

is based on a recognizable physiographic feature.

c)

typically follows a line of latitude or longitude.

d)

is drawn across an area before it is settled.

13.

The location of electoral district boundaries can influence the outcome of elections.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Hungary's claims to Transylvania in Romania is based on what type of border conflict?

a)

Watershed divides

b)

Resource dispute

c)

Minority group identification

d)

Landlock dispute

15.

The most threatening centrifugal force in Canadian politics has been the large size of the country.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

India's claims to Jammu and Kashmir based on the presence of Hindus, and Pakistan's claim to the same territory based on the presence of Muslims, are both examples of

a)

a functional conflict.

b)

autonomous nationalism.

c)

irredentism

d)

a resource dispute.

17.

All of the following statements about the development of the nation-state are true EXCEPT that

a)

it is based on the concept that people owe allegiance to the state's leader.

b)

the idea of the modern state was developed in the 18th century.

c)

the state has become the typical system of government for nearly the entire world.

d)

the state claims sovereignty within its borders.

18.

The practice of drawing the boundaries of legislative districts so as to unfairly favor one political party over another is

a)

arbitration

b)

polymaximizing

c)

gerrymandering

d)

exclusionary zoning.

19.

Because Antarctica has a recognized territorial extent, it must be considered a state.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Totally or partially autonomous political units that are small in area and have less than 1 million people are known as

a)

microunits

b)

ministates

c)

nanonations

d)

millilands

21.

Countries such as Poland and Uruguay, which are almost round in shape, are described as

a)

attenuated

b)

enclaved

c)

buffered

d)

compact

22.

Which of the following is NOT a region in Western Europe seeking autonomy?

a)

Scotland

b)

Basque Country

c)

Corsica

d)

England

23.

International economic alliances

a)

tend to be formed among widely separated countries with different but complementary resources.

b)

almost invariably result from previously arranged military or defense alliances.

c)

formed in one world region frequently stimulate the creation of countering alliances.

d)

represent a significant surrender of national autonomy to "superstates" remote from local control.

24.

Nazi Germany and Stalinist Russia are examples of what type of 20th century terrorism?

a)

State terrorism

b)

Subnational terrorism

c)

Domestic terrorism

d)

International terrorism

25.

All of the following statements about the European Union are true EXCEPT that it

a)

has not grown in size since its original creation.

b)

had several forerunners

c)

has established a free-trade zone over much of Western Europe.

d)

contains countries whose economies complement one another.

26.

The Ganges in India and Chang Jiang (Yangtze) in China are river valleys important for the production of

a)

rice

b)

manioc

c)

corn

d)

wheat

27.

__________ is the breeding of fish in freshwater ponds, lakes, and canals or in fenced-off coastal bays and estuaries or enclosures.

a)

Xericulture

b)

Swidden agriculture

c)

Tropiculture

d)

Aquaculture

28.

The production of low-value minerals is closely controlled by

a)

beneficiation

b)

the quantity available.

c)

labor costs.

d)

transportation cost from deposit to market.

29.

The type of economy where goods and services are created for the use of the producers and their kinship groups is

a)

commercial

b)

subsistence

c)

planned

d)

capitalist

30.

Most of the commercial marine fishing is concentrated

a)

in the northern waters where warm and cool currents join and mix.

b)

in the tropical water where their concentration is the greatest.

c)

in the offshore areas of North and South America.

d)

along the east coast of Africa and in the Southern Ocean.

31.

Sustainable agriculture adherents emphasize an increase in

a)

Farm diversification

b)

Food supply

c)

The use of pesticides and herbicides

d)

The use of fertilizers

32.

The defining characteristic of subsistence agriculture is

a)

production for international markets.

b)

production for domestic markets.

c)

production for immediate household needs.

d)

crop production for livestock feeding.

33.

In 2008, half of the world’s acreage of genetically modified (GM) crops was in which country?

a)

United States

b)

Brazil

c)

China

d)

Russia

34.

Which of the following is characterized by low capitalization per land unit, low population densities, and low labor requirements?

a)

Plantation farming

b)

Truck farming

c)

Extensive commercial farming

d)

Collective farms

35.

Types of shifting cultivation include swidden, slash-and-burn, milpa, and ladang.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Because agricultural soil depletion and drought have rendered farming uncertain, nomadic herding has become an increasingly important type of livelihood system.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

All of the following statements about intensive subsistence agriculture are true EXCEPT that it

a)

involves total concentration upon a single, intensively produced crop.

b)

requires large inputs of labor, small plots, and high reliance on fertilizers.

c)

involves product diversification with grain, vegetables, and animals - all part of the farm economy.

d)

has spread to marginal lands as population pressure has increased.

38.

Which of the following is not a type of shifting cultivation?

a)

Milpa

b)

Chitemene

c)

Ladang

d)

Maquiladoras

39.

The breeding of fish in freshwater ponds, lakes, and canals or in fenced-off coastal bays and estuaries or enclosures is

a)

marine capture.

b)

aquaculture

c)

fish-stocking.

d)

inland catch.

40.

Which of the following are examples of tertiary activities?

a)

Finance and insurance

b)

Fishing and mining

c)

Manufacturing and processing

d)

Agriculture and business services

41.

The vast majority of increase in all grain production worldwide is due to the

a)

increase in yield.

b)

expansion of farmland.

c)

decrease in animal production.

d)

increase in world subsistence farming.

42.

Mediterranean agriculture is

a)

dependent upon large quantities of summer rainfall.

b)

known for grapes, olives, oranges and figs.

c)

one of the least productive of the agricultural regions.

d)

only found in Southern Europe and Northern Africa.

43.

All of the following statements about agriculture in market economic systems are true EXCEPT

a)

that it is characterized by specialization, profit, and interdependence.

b)

in response to low crop prices and overproduction, it is being replaced by intensive subsistence farming.

c)

the crop or livestock mix selected by commercial farmers reflects assessment of production and marketing costs and market demands and prices.

d)

 

it involves intensive land use near markets and extensive land use at more distant locations.

44.

The category of agriculture that involves "burned clearings" and rotation of fields, instead of crops, is called

a)

intensive subsistence.

b)

swidden

c)

nomadism

d)

communal farming.

45.

The growing merging of older, farm-centered crop economy and newer patterns of more integrated production and marketing systems is termed

a)

agribusiness

b)

interdependence

c)

off-farm sale.

d)

genetically modified crops.

46.

Which one of the following types of farming is classified as extensive commercial?

a)

market gardening

b)

livestock ranching

c)

dairying

d)

pastoral nomadism

47.

Intensive subsistence agriculture is concentrated in

a)

areas with a Mediterranean climate

b)

the Lapland areas of Scandinavia.

c)

major river valleys and deltas such as the Ganges.

d)

the plains of the Midwest United States

48.

Mining and quarrying are extractive industries.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Which of the following statements regarding the role of women in agriculture is not correct?

a)

The advances from the Green Revolution were unkind to women in that it reduced the female role in agricultural development programs

b)

Women farmers are responsible for at least fifty percent of the world's food

c)

Women farmers share equally with men farmers in the rewards from agriculture

d)

Women farmers work longer hours for lower wages than men farmers

50.

Secondary industries are concerned with

a)

extraction of natural resources.

b)

information processing.

c)

adding value to materials by changing their form or combining them into more useful commodities.

d)

retailing and wholesaling activities.

51.

New advances in information technology and data transmission have

a)

by-passed less developed countries, damaging further their already poor economic prospects.

b)

reduced the international tradability of services as home country quaternary activities expand.

c)

discouraged foreign direct investment and favored domestic high-tech concentrations.

d)

enhanced the comparative advantage of developing countries in labor-intensive services.

52.

Once least-cost industrial sites are developed, they maintain their comparative advantage indefinitely due to agglomeration economies.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

The least-cost theory of industrial location was proposed by

a)

Alfred Weber.

b)

Alfred Wegener.

c)

Ted Fujita.

d)

Walter Christaller.

54.

A good example of market-oriented industry is

a)

Aluminum manufacturing

b)

Baked goods manufacturing

c)

Fish processing

d)

High-end automobile manufacturing

55.

Transnational corporations are well positioned to exploit the principle of comparative advantage.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Industries that are considered "footloose"

a)

are fly-by-night operations.

b)

are found in predominantly agricultural areas.

c)

are not affected by transportation costs.

d)

require multiple sources of raw materials.

57.

Agglomeration economies reflect cost savings resulting from the clustering of economic activities.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

The supply curve indicates that as the price of a good increases,

a)

more of it will be offered for sale.

b)

there will be fewer producers.

c)

greater specialization will occur.

d)

the demand for it will increase.

59.

A vegetable canning operation is likely to be located near the consumer market because of perishability concerns.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Flexible production

a)

is self-sufficiency applied to an industrial setting.

b)

requires acquisition of components from outside suppliers.

c)

requires a large inventory of supplies.

d)

works well in a Fordist industrial setting.

61.

Tertiary activities do NOT

a)

Enter world trade

b)

Constitute a factor in China's recent growth

c)

Include world-wide competitive manufacturing

d)

Include consumer services

62.

A maquiladora is a Mexican

a)

industrial crop.

b)

border industry.

c)

coastal industry.

d)

ubiquitous industry.

63.

No matter what the type of economic system, no advanced economy can flourish without which of the following variables?

a)

Well connected transport network

b)

Dominant agricultural sector

c)

Entrenched government control

d)

Manufacturing orientation

64.

In Weber's least-cost theory of industrial location, the major factor in the location of industry is

a)

transportation costs.

b)

import and export tariffs.

c)

government subsidies.

d)

labor costs.

65.

Of the following, the state with the highest concentration of high-technology industry is

a)

California

b)

Ohio

c)

Pennsylvania

d)

Florida

66.

Many foreign-owned factories have relocated to China, Taiwan and similar areas because of

a)

their proximity to major populations.

b)

more highly skilled workers.

c)

lower labor costs.

d)

political instability in Europe.

67.

Just-in-time manufacturing is aimed at

a)

Getting goods to the manufacturer as soon as possible

b)

Using storage space extensively

c)

Reducing inventories through the production process

d)

Reducing pollution during high production periods

68.

In planned economies, the location of manufacturing

a)

is relatively immobile compared to market economies.

b)

may be determined by other than competitive market forces.

c)

is determined by availability of labor and by regional comparative advantage.

d)

need pay no attention to cost of inputs.

69.

Locational tendencies of high tech industries do NOT include

a)

Important break-of-bulk centers

b)

Proximity to major research universities

c)

Locally available venture capital

d)

Locational agglomeration

70.

How has the "new international division of labor (NIDL)" come about?

a)

Exporting goods from industrial countries and sending raw materials from less developing regions

b)

Increasing the subdivision of manufacturing processes into larger steps

c)

Offshoring manufacturing activities to developing regions

d)

Developing manufacturing regions in formerly agricultural areas

71.

"Sister" plants to American companies that are established in Mexico within 12 miles of the US border for duty free-assembly of products destined for re-export are

a)

fabricas

b)

ciudads

c)

maquiladoras

d)

plantas

72.

The majority of all workers in the United States are involved in which sector of the economy?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Global

73.

The economic decisions of a country are affected by all of the following factors except

a)

cultural considerations.

b)

dependency ratios.

c)

political policies.

d)

technological development.

74.

Abandoned factories and mills, found throughout US cities, are examples of changes to the US economy and are known as

a)

secondary sites.

b)

brownfields

c)

grayouts

d)

postindustries

75.

Outsourcing is

a)

choosing alternate sources of raw materials.

b)

physically delimiting a company's market for others.

c)

producing parts or products abroad for domestic sale.

d)

selling goods at a cheaper price to close down competitors.

76.

Which one of the following types of employees is most representative of a basic worker?

a)

city government official

b)

grocery store clerk

c)

steel worker

d)

subway conductor

77.

The movement of middle-class people to deteriorated portions of the inner city and restoration of deteriorated housing is called

a)

displacement

b)

exurbanization

c)

gentrification

d)

homelessness

78.

In the social area analysis of cities, social status is based on all the following factors EXCEPT

a)

education

b)

occupation

c)

race/ethnicity.

d)

income

79.

How does the U.S. Census Bureau define urban places?

a)

Municipalities in which the largest population center has 10,000 or more inhabitants

b)

Places having 2,500 or more inhabitants

c)

Administrative centers of localities with streets, electric lights and 1000 inhabitants

d)

Any place with over 25,000 inhabitants

80.

In the competitive bidding for urban land,

a)

the most accessible parcels command the highest price.

b)

land rents are uniform throughout the urban area.

c)

all potential bidders have equal rent paying ability.

d)

schools, parks, and civic buildings must also participate in the bidding process.

81.

The geographer who developed the Central Place Theory to explain the size and location of settlements was

a)

Walter Christaller.

b)

Ernest Burgess.

c)

Homer Hoyt.

d)

Chauncy Harris.

82.

The urbanized area is defined by structural and population densities, not by legal boundaries.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Situation refers to the relative location of a settlement.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Population density in U.S. central cities is

a)

greatest at the center and gradually decreases toward the suburbs.

b)

gradually increases from the center to the suburbs.

c)

low at the center, highest in the zone just outside the center, and decreases gradually toward the suburbs.

d)

relatively uniform and related to economic base.

85.

The urban influence zone is inversely proportional to a city's size.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Land use types, in order of increasing land values per unit of land, are

a)

esidential, commercial, and agricultural.

b)

commercial, industrial, and residential.

c)

agricultural, residential, and commercial.

d)

residential, agricultural, and commercial.

87.

The three largest cities in the world in 2007, listed in order, were

a)

New York, London, and Tokyo

b)

Tokyo, Delhi, and Mumbai.

c)

Mexico City, New York, and Los Angeles.

d)

Tokyo, Mexico City, and New York.

88.

A common locational feature associated with the growth of large cities is

a)

a location in the deep interior of continents, in accordance with the heartland theory.

b)

a location north of the 60th parallel.

c)

a break-in-bulk location.

d)

great distances from hubs of transportation routes.

89.

Zoning and subdivision regulations in the United States have been used to exclude undesirable uses such as apartments and low-income housing from upper-income areas.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

The sector of an urban area's economic structure made up of export activities is the

a)

primary sector.

b)

secondary sector.

c)

non-basic sector.

d)

basic sector.

91.

Gentrification is associated with all of the following EXCEPT

a)

restoration of deteriorated housing and rising property values in the inner-city.

b)

displacement of poor residents of the inner-city.

c)

accessibility to high-tech and executive jobs.

d)

rearing children.

92.

Compared to U.S. settlements, Canadian urban areas of equal population size tend to

a)

be less compact.

b)

have fewer apartments in the CBD.

c)

have less public transportation.

d)

have a higher population density.

93.

Approximately what percentage of the United States and other western nations is urban?

a)

26 percent

b)

56 percent

c)

76 percent

d)

96 percent

94.

A city has a total of 200,000 workers, with 100,000 engaged in nonbasic activities. What is the basic/nonbasic ratio?

a)

1: 1

b)

1: 2

c)

2: 1

d)

1: 1.5

95.

Which of the following statements is an example of the site of the city?

a)

Chicago is approximately 850 miles from New York City

b)

Pittsburgh is located at the confluence of the Ohio, Allegheny and Monongahela Rivers

c)

Dubuque, Iowa, is in the heart of the midwestern Corn Belt

d)

Seattle is located in the Pacific northwest

96.

In comparison to cities in the United States, which of the following characteristics of Canadian cities is not correct?

a)

Canadian cities are more compact

b)

Canadian cities have higher density

c)

Canadian cities have taller buildings

d)

Canadian cities have less suburbanization

97.

Which of the following is not one of the three main functions of any urban settlement?

a)

Central place functions

b)

Ecological functions

c)

Transport functions

d)

Special functions

98.

Which of the following statements regarding basic and nonbasic activities is true?

a)

The percentage of jobs in the basic sector tends to decrease as the size of the city increases.

b)

Basic activities must occur in the central business district.

c)

Nonbasic activities are heavily dependent upon rail and barge transportation.

d)

Non-basic activities bring in money from outside the town.

99.

In the competitive bidding for land, which type of use usually obtains the most accessible sites?

a)

commercial

b)

industrial

c)

single-family residential

d)

multiple-family residential

100.

Young adult males constitute the majority of poor people.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

Destruction of the tropical rain forests is a matter of concern for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

a)

deforestation by burning contributes to air pollution and climate change.

b)

it causes the yearly extinction of thousands of plant and animal species that exist nowhere else.

c)

the forests are oxygen "sinks" and carbon-replenishers.

d)

forest clearance accelerates soil erosion.

102.

All of the following statements about copper are true EXCEPT

a)

price increases have spurred the adoption of substitutes

b)

as supplies have decreased we are now mining lower grade ores.

c)

recycled copper now accounts for about one-third of copper used in the United States.

d)

copper ore is evenly spread around the earth's crust.

103.

What percentage of Africa's non-desert region is in danger of human-induced desertification?

a)

20 percent

b)

33 percent

c)

40 percent

d)

50 percent

104.

Volcanoes, geysers, and hot springs are all manifestations of which type of energy?

a)

Wind

b)

Geothermal

c)

Solar

d)

Nuclear

105.

Because of its high ecological integrity, logging is not allowed in Alaska's Tongass National Forest.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a)

Energy consumption and industrialization are highly correlated.

b)

Some countries have a rich resource base but a population that is poor.

c)

Per capita energy production is correlated with national energy consumption.

d)

Industrialized countries can compensate for a lack of resources by importing raw materials.

107.

The evaporation of irrigation water from farm fields can damage soil fertility through

a)

soil erosion.

b)

deforestation

c)

desertification

d)

salinization

108.

The value of a given coal deposit depends on all of the following EXCEPT

a)

its accessibility.

b)

its potential for liquefaction.

c)

its sulfur content.

d)

the thickness of the coal seam.

109.

Proved or usable reserves are deposits that have been identified and are economically recoverable with current technology.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

Which concept refers to satisfying current needs without jeopardizing the ability of future generations to meet their own needs?

a)

Sustainable development

b)

Resource recovery

c)

Maximum sustainable yield

d)

Underconsumption

111.

Vast quantities of oil, enough to supply domestic needs for another century, are contained in U.S. deposits of

a)

biomass

b)

crude oil.

c)

oil shale.

d)

uranium

112.

The renewable energy source that is LEAST affected by local site considerations is

a)

geothermal power.

b)

biomass

c)

large-scale hydropower.

d)

tidal power.

113.

What parts of the world receive the largest shipments of crude oil from the Middle East?

a)

United States and Latin America

b)

Europe and Japan

c)

India and China

d)

Australia and New Zealand

114.

The shift from renewable resources to those derived from fossil fuels initiated the

a)

Agricultural Revolution.

b)

Green Revolution.

c)

Urban Revolution.

d)

Industrial Revolution.

115.

In recent years, what source of energy has been the fastest-growing source of electrical generation in both the United States and the world as a whole?

a)

Wind

b)

Solar

c)

Coal

d)

Nuclear

116.

Which of the following statements is not true about coal?

a)

Coal fueled the Industrial Revolution

b)

At the present rate of use, coal reserves will last for centuries

c)

The value of coal is determined by its rank, grade and accessibility

d)

Coal is widely used because it is inexpensive to mine and transport

117.

Modern technology has reduced to 10% or less the proportion of the world's people largely dependent on wood for cooking and heating.

a)

True

b)

False

118.

Developing countries are heavily dependent on what types of wood for fuel and charcoal?

a)

Bamboo

b)

Tropical lowland hardwood

c)

Temperate hardwood

d)

Mixed coniferous-deciduous

119.

The part of the world most at risk from desertification is

a)

China

b)

Africa

c)

India

d)

Central America.

120.

The two major drawbacks to the use of oil shale and oil sands as fuels are

a)

cost of extraction and environmental damage.

b)

distance to markets and alternate sources.

c)

lack of demand and air pollution.

d)

transportation and storage.

121.

The largest deposits of oil sand are located in which country?

a)

The United States

b)

Russia

c)

Saudi Arabia

d)

Canada

122.

With respect to the relationship between gross national product (GNP) and energy consumption

a)

as GNP decreases energy consumption increases.

b)

as GNP increases energy consumption decreases.

c)

they both increase directly with each other.

d)

there is no relationship between the two.

123.

Coal differs from oil or natural gas as an energy source, in that coal

a)

cannot be liquefied or moved by pipeline.

b)

is generally clean, efficient, and nonpolluting.

c)

exists in quantities that will last for centuries.

d)

is uniform in thermal value wherever found commercially.

124.

Which of the following is a potentially renewable resource?

a)

groundwater

b)

crude oil

c)

coal

d)

wind energy

125.

All of the following statements about hydropower are true EXCEPT

a)

it is generated when water falls from one level to another.

b)

it is generally used in the region where it is produced.

c)

it is a major supplier of electricity in many developed and developing countries.

d)

the cost of transmitting hydroelectricity is negligible.

126.

All of the following statements about soil erosion are true EXCEPT that it is

a)

exacerbated by population growth.

b)

caused by both wind and running water.

c)

accelerated when land is cleared of its natural vegetative cover.

d)

on a worldwide basis balanced by the continuous soil-forming processes.

127.

Acid rain has been linked to all of the following EXCEPT

a)

a decline in fish populations in thousands of lakes and streams.

b)

global warming.

c)

reduced rates of forest growth.

d)

the corrosion and discoloration of buildings and statues.

128.

The most significant piece of biodiversity legislation in the United States, which has saved the bald eagle from extinction, is

a)

Toxic Substances Control Act (1986).

b)

The Endangered Species Act (1973).

c)

Pollution Prevention Act (1990).

d)

Clean Air Act (1963).

129.

The specific place of an organism in an ecosystem is called its

a)

biome

b)

environment

c)

niche

d)

trophic level.

130.

In the process of biological magnification, the most threatened trophic level is the

a)

decomposer

b)

ultimate consumer.

c)

herbivore

d)

initial consumer.

131.

Air pollution

a)

is caused primarily by burning fossil fuels.

b)

is not a significant problem in developing countries.

c)

first occurred as a result of the Industrial Revolution and the use of fossil fuels by factories.

d)

may have serious consequences for human health but rarely affects plant life.

132.

Transportation is the leading source of primary air pollutants in the United States.

a)

True

b)

False

133.

Formerly the fourth-largest inland sea in the world, as a result of water diversion this sea now has less than half its original surface area.

a)

Caspian Sea

b)

Aral Sea

c)

Black Sea

d)

Red Sea

134.

An exotic species is a plant or animal that

a)

is very rare.

b)

is released into a foreign ecosystem.

c)

is very expensive to purchase.

d)

lives in a tropical climate.

135.

Mountaintop removal mining (MTR) began in which region in the 1970s?

a)

New England

b)

Pacific Northwest

c)

Ozark Plateau

d)

Appalachian Mountains

136.

The largest underground water supply in the U.S. is located in the

a)

Florida everglades.

b)

Great Lakes basin.

c)

high plains from South Dakota to west Texas.

d)

Tennessee valley.

137.

The Aral Sea has lost much of its water to

a)

evaporation

b)

global warming.

c)

thermal pollution.

d)

irrigation

138.

All of the following statements about eutrophication are true EXCEPT

a)

symptoms of a eutrophic lake include prolific weed growth and fish kills.

b)

it occurs naturally when nutrients in the surrounding area are washed into the water.

c)

acid rain is a chief contributor of excess nutrients to water bodies.

d)

accelerated eutrophication often results from agricultural runoff.

139.

All of the following statements about decomposers are true EXCEPT that they

a)

feed on the remains of other organisms.

b)

break down radioactive wastes.

c)

release nutrients for reuse in the food chain.

d)

play an essential part in the cycle of life.

140.

In the United States, which state is home to the highest number of endangered species?

a)

Alaska

b)

Hawaii

c)

California

d)

Florida

141.

Depletion of the earth's ozone layer is expected to lead to all of the following consequences except

a)

increases in the incidence of skin cancer.

b)

increases in human vulnerability to a variety of infectious diseases.

c)

more frequent and violent hurricanes.

d)

threatening the existence of plankton at the base of the marine food chain.

142.

The Ogallala Aquifer is

a)

a vast system of canals in the Everglades.

b)

a source of groundwater in Florida that is being depleted faster than it is naturally renewed.

c)

a source of groundwater in the Great Plains that is being depleted faster than it is naturally renewed.

d)

a geologic formation that is ideal for storage of high-level hazardous waste.

143.

Which of the following has been proposed as the potential site for America’s first permanent repository for radioactive waste generated by nuclear power plants?

a)

Pikes Peak

b)

Mammoth Cave

c)

Yucca Mountain

d)

Grand Canyon

144.

What is the primary source of air pollution in the United States?

a)

Industry

b)

Transportation

c)

Solid waste incineration

d)

Fuel combustion from stationary sources

145.

The settling or sinking of a portion of land due to the extraction of material from beneath the ground is known as

a)

excavation

b)

subsidence

c)

erosion

d)

subduction

146.

The Montreal Protocol of 1987 called for global efforts to

a)

reduce acid rain.

b)

control ocean pollution.

c)

halt global warming.

d)

stop the destruction of the stratospheric ozone layer.

147.

The agreement that calls for global efforts to reduce emissions of carbon dioxide and other heat-trapping gases is known as the

a)

1979 Convention on Transboundary Air Pollution.

b)

Montreal Protocol of 1987.

c)

Clean Air Act of 1990.

d)

Kyoto Protocol of 1997.

148.

The primary source of primary air pollutants in the United States is industry.

a)

True

b)

False

149.

Which of the following statements about solid waste is NOT true?

a)

Recycling has little effect on the volume of solid waste that must be land filled or incinerated.

b)

Because of high collection costs, recycling is rarely practiced in developing countries.

c)

Society has always been faced with problems of discarding materials that are no longer needed.

d)

Every method of disposing of solid waste has an impact on the environment.

150.

What gas in the stratosphere prevents dangerous intensities of ultraviolet radiation from reaching the earth's surface?

a)

ozone

b)

hydrogen

c)

argon

d)

nitrogen

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