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METEOROLOGICAL AND BRIEFING+MISCELLANEOUS

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who prepares National SIGWX Charts

a)

WAFC

b)

MWOs

c)

AMOs

2.

Flight Level of freezing Level is included in SIGWX Charts

a)

Medium level charts

b)

High level charts

c)

Low level charts

3.

Fog, precipitation and weather that reduce visibility below 5000 m are considered Significant weather for

a)

Low level flights

b)

High level flights

c)

All level flights

4.

Briefing and consultation are generally provided to the aircrew hours prior to the scheduled departure

a)

3 hr

b)

5 hr

c)

6 hr

5.

SIGMET information is provided to

a)

Low level flights

b)

All level flights

c)

High level flights

6.

For Low Level flights, and those under Visual Flight Rules, briefing is given up to

a)

FL120 or over the plains

b)

FL110 above the sea

c)

FL150 or above in mountains

7.

The height indications in the flight documentation for all en‑route meteorological conditions (for example upper winds, turbulence, cloud base/top) are

a)

Flight Levels

b)

As requested by the pilot

c)

Above aerodrome elevation

8.

The height indications in the flight documentation for all aerodrome meteorological conditions (for example base and top of clouds) are

a)

Above aerodrome elevation

b)

Flight Levels

c)

As requested by the pilot

9.

For national flights the documents provided are

a)

Both WAFC upper wind and temperature charts and National SIGWX charts

b)

WAFC upper wind and temperature charts only

c)

National SIGWX charts only

10.

For national flights the winds and temperatures are provided for low-level flights for altitudes

a)

3000 ft, 5000 ft, 10,000 ft

b)

600, 1500 and 300 m

c)

600, 1000 and 500 m

11.

Translucent rime ice forms due to

a)

Deposition by supercooled droplets

b)

Sublimation of large hail

c)

Freezing of small supercooled water drops

d)

Freezing of large supercooled water drops

12.

Advection fog occurs due to air moving over surface

a)

Warm and moist air, cold, both land and sea

b)

Cold and dry air, sea only

c)

Moist and cold, warm, land only

d)

Dry, wet, land only

13.

ELR 6.5°C and SALR 7°C on lifting a saturated parcel of air the atmosphere would be

a)

Stable

b)

Absolutely stable

c)

Indifferent

d)

Absolutely unstable

14.

Gradient wind is weaker than geostrophic wind around a low because

a)

Coriolis force is added to the pressure gradient force

b)

Centripetal force is added to the pressure gradient force

c)

Coriolis force is opposite to centripetal

d)

Centripetal force is provided by pressure gradient force

15.

The altimeter of an aircraft is set to QFE before landing; on landing it will indicate

a)

Height of aircraft wheels above runway

b)

Flight Level

c)

Aircraft altitude AMSL

d)

Height of aircraft above ARP in ISA

16.

TAF generally has a validity of how many hours, and TREND how many hours

a)

24 hr; 9 hr

b)

24 hr; 3 hr

c)

9 hr; 2 hr

d)

12 hr; 2 hr

17.

CAT is most pronounced on which side of a subtropical jet stream

a)

About 3 km above the core

b)

At core

c)

Cold side of core

d)

South side of core

18.

Hail forms by collision with super-cooled water drops by

a)

Transpiration

b)

Deposition

c)

Condensation

d)

Evaporation

19.

Thermal wind blows parallel to keeping to the left

a)

Isotherms, low temperature

b)

Isobars, low temperature

c)

Isallobars, high temperature

d)

Isobars, low pressure

20.

Roaring Forties are winds that blow throughout the year and are of very stormy nature in

a)

Easterlies, Southern Hemisphere

b)

Westerlies, Northern Hemisphere

c)

Easterlies, Southern Hemisphere

d)

Westerlies, Southern Hemisphere

21.

Temperature in the troposphere decreases from equator to poles. The thermal wind throughout the troposphere is therefore what, and as height increases does what

a)

Westerly, increases

b)

Easterly, increases

c)

Westerly, decreases

d)

Westerly, remains same

22.

A cold front passes a station; the pressure

a)

First increases and then decreases

b)

Changes are very small

c)

Rises continually

d)

First decreases and then increases

23.

Flying conditions associated with cumulonimbus during pre-monsoon are

a)

Continuous rain, poor visibility, light turbulence

b)

Rain, poor visibility, turbulence

c)

Hail, gusts, showers, severe turbulence

d)

Good visibility, drizzle, turbulence

24.

Which is true of a cold front

a)

Heavy convective weather and squall line

b)

Similar slope as warm front

c)

Associated with continuous rain and stratiform clouds

d)

Less steeper than a warm front

25.

The observed temperature is −40°C at FL300 (10 km). It is termed as

a)

10°C colder than ISA

b)

At ISA standard temperature

c)

20°C colder than ISA

d)

10°C warmer than ISA

26.

Aquaplaning may occur in

a)

-TS

b)

+RA

c)

- GR

d)

Thick Fog

27.

CAT is most likely to be encountered in

a)

A high close to a Dust Storm

b)

After the passage of a severe Sandstorm

c)

A sharp trough aloft with winds of jet stream speed

d)

A ridge aloft

28.

Example of non frontal stability is

a)

Occlusion

b)

Frontogenesis

c)

Inversion

d)

Squall line

29.

If temperature initially is constant and then increases with height, the atmosphere is

a)

Stable

b)

Unstable

c)

Indifferent

d)

Adiabatic

30.

Under what conditions severe icing is encountered

a)

visible vapour and temperature -5 deg C

b)

rain and temperature below -10 deg C

c)

temperature 0 deg C

d)

rain at temperature -20 deg C

31.

The level most potent for dangerous icing is

a)

Freezing level to about 25,000 ft

b)

10 to 30 deg C temperature range

c)

From ground to freezing level

d)

-20 to -40 deg C temperature range

32.

Ice accretion

a)

alters aerodynamies, reduces weight, and decrease lift

b)

alters aerodynamics, increases weight and lift

c)

increases drag but reduces stalling speed

d)

increases drag and weight and stalling speed

33.

The wind 260102 KT is reported in a METAR/SPECI as

a)

260P99 KT and complete wind in remark column

b)

Only in remark column

c)

260P99 KT only

d)

26010 KT + 26002 KT

34.

Will SPECI be issued if

a)

RVR changes from 1400 m to 1600 m

b)

Wind changes from 27010 KT to 29018 KT

c)

Visibility changes from 6000 m to 4000 m

d)

Temperature changes from 15 to 16 deg C

35.

CAVOK in a METAR replaces

a)

Visibility, cloud and Wx groups

b)

Wind, visibility & cloud groups

c)

Visibility, temp & cloud groups

d)

Wind, temp & pressure groups

36.

The calm and clear night is cooler than cloudy night because

a)

Terrestrial radiation skip through clouds

b)

Due to CO2 and H2O present in the air

c)

Clouds radiate heat towards sky

d)

Clouds prevent terrestrial radiation from escaping

37.

Diurnal variation of temperature is least

a)

When sky is clear

b)

When winds are weak over the land surface

c)

During land breeze over the coastal areas

d)

When sky is overcast

38.

Density altitude is

a)

Higher if atmosphere is warmer than ISA

b)

Lower if atmosphere is warmer than ISA

c)

Higher if atmosphere is colder than ISA

d)

Higher if atmosphere is isothermal

39.

The temperature to which air should be cooled to saturate it is

a)

b)

Wet bulb

c)

Dew point

d)

Dry bulb

40.

No cyclonic storm or high pressure systems form within 5° of the equator because

a)

Coriolis force is negligible

b)

Geotropic force is maximum

c)

Pressure gradient force is negligible

d)

Frictional force is minimal

41.

Gradient wind

a)

Is due to the balance between Pressure gradient force and Friction

b)

Is due to the balance between Pressure gradient, Coriolis and Centripetal forces

c)

Blows parallel to straight isobars

d)

Is super geostrophic in a low and subgeostrophic in a high

42.

Effect of Wind Shear

a)

Weakening head wind raises aircraft above the flight path

b)

Decreasing tail wind increases lift and a/c rises above the glide path

c)

Increasing tail wind increases lift

d)

Decreasing head wind increases lift

43.

Due to friction the wind

a)

Strengthens and backs during take off

b)

Strengthens and backs during landing

c)

Decreases and backs during landing

d)

Decreases and veers during landing

44.

The term 'monsoon' means

a)

Seasonal reversal of winds and rainfall

b)

Rains all over India

c)

One of the four seasons with maximum rain in the N

d)

Monsoon circulation

45.

The two main seasons in India are

a)

Pre monsoon and SW monsoon

b)

Winter and SW monsoon

c)

Hot season and Rainy season

d)

Winters and Hot season

46.

The main cause of seasons in India is

a)

Along central peninsula

b)

Along 22 deg East to West of India

c)

Oscillation of sun 23½ N to 23 ½ S

d)

Thermal equator at equator whole year

47.

The axis of monsoon trough runs

a)

Earth rotating around its own axis

b)

Advection of air from Arabian sea

c)

Along the Gangetic plains

d)

In the Bay of Bengal

48.

During monsoon season the low level winds are

a)

SEly along E coast

b)

SEly over Bay of Bengal

c)

NEly over Tamil Nadu

d)

SEly North of Monsoon Trough

49.

During SW monsoon the winds above 500 hPa are

a)

Wly over S and weak Wly over N India

b)

Strong Ely over S and weak over N India

c)

Wly over S and strong over N India

d)

Ely over S and weak Wly over N India

50.

Which is not true of post monsoon

a)

Worst period for flying expect S India

b)

Pressure gradient is weakest of all seasons

c)

Frequency of tropical cyclones is max.

d)

Monsoon withdraws from the country

51.

The months during which Tamil Nadu gets most of its rainfall are

a)

Dec - Mar

b)

Jul - Sep

c)

Apr - Jun

d)

Oct - Nov

52.

ITCZ affects weather over India during

a)

Winters only

b)

Monsoons only

c)

All the four seasons

d)

Pre - monsoon only

53.

ESNO is the name given to

a)

El - Nino and Southern oscillations

b)

El - Nino and La - Nino combined

c)

Southern oscillations and La- Nino

d)

El - Nino only

54.

Friction causes winds to get deflected

4 lines
55.

Station level pressure at an aerodrome reference point is reduced to mean sea level as per

a)

ISA is QNH

b)

Isothermal is QNH

c)

ISA iS OFFI

d)

ISA is QFF

56.

An aircraft moving from west to east and drifting northwards will have its altimeter

a)

Reading will remain unchanged

b)

Under read

c)

Over read

57.

Wind shear in a thunderstorm is maximum

a)

In southwest sector

b)

Below the anvil

c)

Beneath the cloud

d)

All sides of a cumulonimbus

58.

A key difference between airmass thunderstorms and steady state thunderstorms is

a)

SS TS duration is more

b)

AM TS duration is more

c)

SS TS duration is less

d)

AM TS occur in fronts

59.

In a line of thunderstorms there is a hole in the radar echo. What would you infer?

a)

A gap between two cumulonimbus

b)

Strong convective activity

c)

No precipitation

d)

Area free of clouds

60.

What are Norwesters

a)

(a) Warm dry winds coming from NW

b)

(b) Severe Duststorm from NW

c)

(d)TS of E and NE India in premonsoon