wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

PMAN-2025/2026

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement does NOT belong to the definition of a project?

a)

A project has a clearly defined goal

b)

A project consists of unique and connected activities

c)

A project must be completed within a specific time and budget

d)

A project runs continuously without an end date

2.

What best describes a program?

a)

A single project with multiple stakeholders

b)

A group of related projects managed together to achieve a joint goal

c)

A collection of unrelated tasks grouped for convenience

d)

A financial tool used to estimate project costs

3.

Why are projects typically initiated?

a)

To deliver business value and create a positive change for the organization

b)

To maintain routine operational activities

c)

To test experimental ideas without any expected outcomes

d)

To increase the number of internal processes without benefits

4.

What is the main purpose of creating a business case?

a)

To document routine operational tasks

b)

To justify why a project should start and prove its business value

c)

To replace the project plan

d)

To define the team structure for daily operations

5.

Which of the following is required to create a proper business case?

a)

A complete list of all employees in the company

b)

A detailed marketing plan

c)

The background, connection to business goals, risks, and required investments

d)

A final software architecture design

6.

In the early phases of a project life cycle, which of the following is TRUE?

a)

Resource needs are highest

b)

Risk and uncertainty are lowest

c)

Stakeholders have the greatest opportunity to influence the project

d)

The sponsor approves completion of the project

7.

Which statement best reflects a key difference between a purely functional structure and a matrix structure?

a)

A matrix structure can involve dual reporting lines, unlike a functional structure

b)

In both structures, employees report to only one manager

c)

Functional structures prioritize cross-functional collaboration over specialization

d)

Matrix structures are common in organizations with little change in offerings

8.

Which of the following actions is most closely associated with the Initiating process group in project management?

a)

Breaking down the devil’s square into detailed components

b)

Formally authorizing the project and assigning a project manager

c)

Developing a Gantt chart with milestones and task relationships

d)

Conducting a lessons learned session and archiving project data

9.

Which statement correctly distinguishes a project charter from a project plan?

a)

Both documents are created at the same time and serve the same purpose

b)

A project plan authorizes the project, while the charter details execution steps

c)

A project plan is used only for stakeholder communication, not for planning

d)

A project charter provides a high-level overview and is created before initiation

10.

What is the primary purpose of project integration management?

a)

To ensure software components are integrated correctly

b)

To coordinate all knowledge areas and manage trade-offs across the project

c)

To focus exclusively on scope and cost management

d)

To create detailed technical documentation for each phase

11.

Which of the following best describes the role of strategic planning in project selection?

a)

It focuses only on short-term operational tasks

b)

It is used exclusively for financial analysis and ROI calculations

c)

It determines long-term objectives and identifies potential projects

d)

It replaces the need for a project charter

12.

Cobb’s Paradox highlights a persistent contradiction in project management. Which of the following best captures this paradox?

a)

Projects fail because managers lack technical skills

b)

Projects fail only due to insufficient financial resources

c)

Failures happen because organizations avoid taking any risks

d)

Despite knowing why projects fail and how to prevent it, failures still occur

13.

What is the main purpose of the risk log?

a)

To record only positive opportunities

b)

To continuously track identified risks, their impact, and countermeasures

c)

To replace the need for a change management process

d)

To calculate project costs based on milestones

14.

Why was the purpose of the Spaghetti Tower Challenge?

a)

To show how planning improves outcomes compared to no planning

b)

To demonstrate the importance of risk analysis

c)

To teach how to calculate ROI

d)

To illustrate stakeholder communication methods

15.

Which of the following is considered a critical success factor in a project?

a)

Achieving scope, time, quality and cost goals while satisfying the customer

b)

Only meeting the budget

c)

Avoiding all risks

d)

Completing the project without any changes

16.

What is the main purpose of a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) in scope management?

a)

To list all stakeholders and their roles

b)

To calculate project ROI

c)

To subdivide deliverables into smaller, manageable components

d)

To replace the need for a scope statement

17.

What is a requirements traceability matrix (RTM) used for?

a)

To define the scope baseline

b)

To document stakeholder communication plans

c)

To track project costs against milestones

d)

To ensure all requirements are addressed and linked to deliverables

18.

Which approach to creating a WBS starts with the largest items and breaks them down into smaller components?

a)

Bottom-up approach

b)

Analogy approach

c)

Top-down approach

d)

Mind-mapping approach

19.

Which statement best describes a risk in project management?

a)

An uncertain event that can have a positive or negative effect on project objectives

b)

A confirmed issue that has already occurred

c)

A guaranteed negative event that will delay the project

d)

A minor concern that does not require documentation

20.

Which risk response strategy involves shifting responsibility to another party, often through insurance?

a)

Mitigate

b)

Transfer

c)

Avoid

d)

Accept

21.

What is the purpose of a probability/impact matrix in risk management?

a)

To calculate the NPV

b)

To prioritize risks based on likelihood and consequences (impact)

c)

To document stakeholder roles

d)

To define contingency reserves

22.

What is the difference between a contingency plan and a fallback plan?

a)

Both are the same and used interchangeably

b)

A contingency plan is only for positive risks

c)

A fallback plan is created before risk identification

d)

A contingency plan is Plan B for identified risks, while a fallback plan is used if the contingency plan fails (Plan C)

23.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between issues and risks?

a)

Issues are potential events, while risks are confirmed problems

b)

Both terms mean the same and can be used interchangeably

c)

Risks are uncertain events; issues are concerns or changes that have already occurred

d)

Risks only occur in large projects, while issues occur in small projects

24.

What happens if issues remain unresolved in a project?

a)

They automatically convert into risks

b)

They can be ignored until project closure

c)

They are handled by the customer after delivery

d)

They may lead to conflicts, delays, or failures in producing deliverables

25.

What does ISO 9000 define as quality?

a)

The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements

b)

The ability of a product to perform under extreme conditions

c)

The number of defects per million opportunities

d)

The cost of conformance plus nonconformance

26.

Which tool is commonly used to identify the root cause of a quality problem?

a)

Pareto chart

b)

Cause-and-effect diagram (Ishikawa)

c)

Scatter diagram

d)

Flowchart

27.

What does the Seven Run Rule indicate in a control chart?

a)

A process is stable and needs no adjustment

b)

The process meets Six Sigma standards

c)

Seven consecutive data points above or below the mean suggest a non-random problem

d)

The sample size is too small for analysis

28.

What does the Pareto principle (80-20 rule) suggest in quality management?

a)

80% of defects are caused by random variation

b)

80% of problems often stem from 20% of the causes

c)

20% of processes account for 80% of project cost

d)

80% of quality issues occur during testing

29.

What does the critical path in a project represent?

a)

The longest path through the network diagram that determines the earliest project completion date

b)

The path with the most critical activities

c)

The path with the highest cost

d)

The sequence of tasks with the most resources

30.

Which dependency type means one activity must finish before the next can start?

a)

Start-to-Start (SS)

b)

Finish-to-Start (FS)

c)

Finish-to-Finish (FF)

d)

Start-to-Finish (SF)

31.

What is the formula for calculating a PERT weighted average?

a)

(Optimistic + 4 × Most Likely + Pessimistic) ÷ 6

b)

(Optimistic + Pessimistic) ÷ 2

c)

(Most Likely × 3 + Optimistic) ÷ 4

d)

(Optimistic + Most Likely + Pessimistic) ÷ 3

32.

In Critical Chain Scheduling, where are buffers placed and who should know about them?

a)

Buffers are removed from tasks and placed at project level, hidden from the team

b)

Buffers are added to every task and visible to all team members

c)

Buffers are placed only on critical tasks and shared with stakeholders

d)

Buffers are distributed evenly across sprints for transparency

33.

What is the main purpose of life cycle costing in project cost management?

a)

To calculate only the initial purchase price

b)

To exclude maintenance and disposal costs

c)

To estimate costs for a single project phase

d)

To consider total cost of ownership, including development, support, and end-of-life costs

34.

Which type of reserve is not included in the cost baseline and covers unpredictable (unknwn unknowns) situations?

a)

Contingency reserve

b)

Management reserve

c)

Buffer reserve

d)

Operational reserve

35.

What does the Cost Performance Index (CPI) indicate when its value is less than 1?

a)

The project is under budget

b)

The project is over budget

c)

The project is ahead of schedule

d)

The project has no cost variance

36.

A stakeholder has high influence but low interest in the project. According to the stakeholder classification model, how should the project manager treat this person?

a)

Manage closely

b)

Keep satisfied

c)

Keep informed

d)

Monitor only

37.

Which action best supports effective stakeholder engagement throughout the project?

a)

Communicating only when major issues occur

b)

Identifying stakeholders once at the beginning and not updating the list afterward

c)

Regularly assessing stakeholder influence, interest, and expectations throughout the project lifecycle

d)

Allowing stakeholders to manage their own communication preferences without coordination

38.

A software development project uses Critical Chain Scheduling with hidden buffers. Midway through the project, several tasks exceed their optimistic estimates. What should the project manager do FIRST?

a)

Use feeding buffers and adjust resource allocation

b)

Reveal the buffer to the team to reduce pressure

c)

Add management reserves to the cost baseline

d)

Perform a backward pass to recalculate late finish dates

39.

During scope validation, a key stakeholder rejects two completed deliverables because they “do not match expectations,” even though they fully meet the documented acceptance criteria. What should the project manager do FIRST?

a)

Update the quality management plan to reflect stakeholder expectations

b)

Begin reworking the deliverables immediately

c)

Create a change request to extend scope and quality levels

d)

Review and clarify the documented requirements and acceptance criteria with the stakeholder in a formal session

40.

A critical stakeholder requests a new feature late in the project. The project is currently on schedule but slightly over budget (CPI = 0.92). The feature provides significant business value but affects multiple WBS elements. What is the MOST appropriate first step?

a)

Submit the change to Change Advisory Board (CAB) and analyze impact on scope, cost, schedule, and risk before approval

b)

Approve the change only if the team can implement it without additional cost

c)

Add the change directly and compress the schedule to compensate

d)

Reject the change immediately because the project is already over budget