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UNITED STATES AND CANADA LANDFORMS

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Canadian Shield is mostly composed of which type of rock?

a)

Igneous rock

b)

Sedimentary rock

c)

Metamorphic rock

d)

Limestone

2.

The Canadian Shield stretches north from the Great Lakes to which ocean while covering over half of Canada?

a)

Atlantic Ocean

b)

Arctic Ocean

c)

Pacific Ocean

d)

Indian Ocean

3.

Into which part of the United States does the Canadian Shield extend?

a)

Northern reaches in the Adirondack Mountains

b)

Southern Florida peninsula

c)

Pacific Northwest coastal plain

d)

Deserts of the Southwest

4.

Which statement best describes population and industry on the Canadian Shield?

a)

Sparse population with minimal industrial development, but mining is very prevalent

b)

Densely populated and highly urbanized with little mining

c)

Uninhabited wilderness with no economic activity

d)

Primarily agricultural with extensive farming settlements

5.

What overall shape is used to describe the Canadian Shield?

a)

U-shaped and almost semi-circular, like a warrior’s shield

b)

Long, linear chain like a straight ridge

c)

Circular basin with steep walls

d)

Flat plain with no relief

6.

Where are the Appalachian Mountains located?

a)

Eastern North America

b)

Western South America

c)

Central Europe

d)

Northern Africa

7.

About how long ago were the Appalachian Mountains formed?

a)

Approximately 480 million years ago

b)

About 65 million years ago

c)

Roughly 10 million years ago

d)

Around 2 million years ago

8.

Why did the Appalachian Mountains historically act as a barrier to east–west travel?

a)

Alternating ridgelines and valleys are oriented in opposition to roads running east–west

b)

Heavy tropical rainfall washes out roads seasonally

c)

Sand dunes shift across the passes

d)

Permafrost prevents construction year-round

9.

What is the highest peak in the Appalachian Mountains?

a)

Mount Mitchell in North Carolina

b)

Mount Washington in New Hampshire

c)

Mount Marcy in New York

d)

Mount Robson in British Columbia

10.

The Hawaiian Islands are best described as what type of geographic feature?

a)

An archipelago of islands, atolls, islets, and undersea seamounts

b)

A continental peninsula connected by an isthmus

c)

A single volcanic island on a mid-ocean ridge

d)

A chain of coral reefs attached to a continent

11.

What geologic process formed the Hawaiian-Emperor seamount chain that includes the Hawaiian Islands?

a)

Volcanic activity over a hotspot in the Earth’s mantle

b)

Subduction along a convergent plate boundary

c)

Sea-floor spreading at a mid-ocean ridge

d)

Sediment accumulation on a passive margin

12.

Approximately how far are the Hawaiian Islands from the nearest continent?

a)

About 1,860 miles

b)

About 860 miles

c)

About 3,600 miles

d)

About 120 miles

13.

Which statement summarizes how freshwater lakes and rivers have supported the U.S. and Canada?

a)

They satisfy urban and rural water needs and help move resources across the continent

b)

They are used mainly for recreation and have little economic impact

c)

They primarily irrigate tropical crops in coastal regions

d)

They exist mostly in deserts and support few industries

14.

What does the Continental Divide (Great Divide) determine in the United States?

a)

The direction in which rivers flow

b)

The locations of major deserts

c)

The boundaries of federal forests

d)

The average elevation of the Plains

15.

On which mountain range is the Continental Divide described here located?

a)

The Rocky Mountains

b)

The Appalachian Mountains

c)

The Sierra Nevada

d)

The Cascades

16.

Where do waters east of the Continental Divide flow?

a)

Toward the Arctic Ocean, Hudson Bay, Atlantic Ocean, and Gulf of Mexico

b)

Into the Pacific Ocean only

c)

South into the Caribbean Sea exclusively

d)

Into inland salt lakes with no outlet

17.

Which two major U.S. rivers have their headwaters near the Continental Divide?

a)

The Colorado River and the Rio Grande

b)

The Mississippi River and the Missouri River

c)

The Columbia River and the Snake River

d)

The Ohio River and the Tennessee River

18.

Approximately how long is the Mississippi River from its source to its mouth?

a)

About 2,350 miles

b)

About 750 miles

c)

About 1,200 miles

d)

About 6,684 miles

19.

What notable change occurs to the Mississippi River as it flows south toward the Gulf of Mexico?

a)

It reaches a width of about 1.5 miles near its mouth

b)

It becomes a narrow canyon river with rapids

c)

It turns into a series of waterfalls

d)

It dries into an inland delta with no outlet

20.

The Mississippi River’s drainage basin includes all or part of how many U.S. states and Canadian provinces?

a)

31 U.S. states and 2 Canadian provinces

b)

10 U.S. states and 10 Canadian provinces

c)

50 U.S. states and 1 Canadian province

d)

20 U.S. states and 5 Canadian provinces

21.

How long is the St. Lawrence River and what bodies of water does it connect?

a)

About 750 miles, from Lake Ontario to the Gulf of St. Lawrence in the Atlantic Ocean

b)

About 2,350 miles, from the Rockies to the Pacific Ocean

c)

About 1,200 miles, from Hudson Bay to the Arctic Ocean

d)

About 600 miles, from Lake Erie to the Mississippi River

22.

Which statement about the St. Lawrence River is accurate?

a)

It forms part of the border between Canada and the United States

b)

It lies entirely within the United States

c)

It separates Alaska from Russia

d)

It flows south into the Gulf of Mexico

23.

Which major Canadian cities along the St. Lawrence River depend on it for trade?

a)

Quebec, Montreal, and Ottawa

b)

Toronto, Calgary, and Vancouver

c)

Edmonton, Winnipeg, and Halifax

d)

Regina, Saskatoon, and St. John’s

24.

On what river are Niagara Falls located, and what international boundary do they help form?

a)

The Niagara River; a part of the border between the U.S. and Canada

b)

The St. Lawrence River; the border between Canada and Greenland

c)

The Mississippi River; the border between the U.S. and Mexico

d)

The Columbia River; the border between the U.S. and Canada

25.

Which pair correctly matches the two separate drops at Niagara Falls with their national sides?

a)

Horseshoe Falls on the Canadian side and American Falls on the U.S. side

b)

American Falls on the Canadian side and Horseshoe Falls on the U.S. side

c)

Horseshoe Falls on both sides of the border

d)

American Falls on both sides of the border

26.

Approximately how much water flows over Niagara Falls and how many tourists visit each year?

a)

About 600,000 U.S. gallons per second; around 12 million tourists per year

b)

About 60,000 U.S. gallons per second; around 1 million tourists per year

c)

About 6 million U.S. gallons per second; around 2 million tourists per year

d)

About 100,000 U.S. gallons per second; around 20 million tourists per year

27.

Which statement best describes the role of Niagara Falls in energy production?

a)

It is a major source of hydropower for both the United States and Canada

b)

It produces geothermal energy used primarily in Canada

c)

It is a minor source of wind power on the U.S. side only

d)

It supplies tidal energy to cities on the Atlantic coast

28.

Which lake is identified as the largest and deepest among the Great Lakes: Lake Erie, Lake Huron, Lake Michigan, Lake Ontario, or Lake Superior?

a)

Lake Erie

b)

Lake Huron

c)

Lake Michigan

d)

Lake Ontario

e)

Lake Superior

29.

What major waterway links the Great Lakes to the Atlantic Ocean so cities along the lakes can ship goods to the Atlantic and other parts of the world?

a)

Panama Canal

b)

Erie Canal

c)

St. Lawrence Seaway System

d)

Mississippi River System

30.

Large deposits of coal, iron, and other minerals near the Great Lakes favored what kind of growth in the area?

a)

Rural depopulation

b)

Urbanization

c)

Suburban sprawl only

d)

Agricultural collectivization

31.

The Great Lakes provide a link between which types of waterways that is crucial to North America’s economic development?

a)

Mountain streams and desert canals

b)

Inland and coastal waterways

c)

Arctic routes and Pacific currents

d)

Irrigation ditches and reservoirs

32.

Abundant natural resources made the U.S. and Canada wealthy, but what do these resources and the areas in which they are found need?

a)

Privatization

b)

Protection

c)

Export subsidies

d)

Complete automation

33.

Access to natural wealth in the U.S. and Canada helped speed which process in both countries?

a)

Decolonization

b)

Industrialization

c)

Desertification

d)

Feudalization

34.

Fossil fuels are nonrenewable primarily because they cannot be replenished within what time frame?

a)

A short period of time

b)

One human generation

c)

One fiscal year

d)

One election cycle

35.

Texas and Alaska rank first and second in U.S. oil reserves that are known to still be in the ground. Which state also has the greatest reserves of natural gas?

a)

Alaska

b)

California

c)

Texas

d)

North Dakota

36.

Minerals are nonrenewable, and after mining as much as possible the land is used for which activities listed in the notes?

a)

Wildlife parks

b)

Orchards

c)

Public hunting and fishing

d)

Grazing livestock

e)

Open-pit expansion

37.

Mining uses heavy equipment, large quantities of water, and moves a great deal of rock and other materials. What kinds of damage can mining cause according to the notes?

a)

Land damage

b)

Water system damage

c)

Air system damage

d)

Ozone layer healing

38.

Which region produces important metallic resources such as gold, silver, and copper according to the notes?

a)

Appalachian Mountains

b)

Rocky Mountains

c)

Great Plains

d)

Atlantic Coastal Plain

39.

Iron ore is present in northern Minnesota and Michigan, while Canada produces 28% of the world’s supply of which mineral used in fertilizers?

a)

Gypsum

b)

Phosphate rock

c)

Potash

d)

Limestone

40.

Commercial lumber operations face the challenge of harvesting timber responsibly because trees are renewable resources only under what condition?

a)

If forests are left untouched

b)

If people protect and preserve forests

c)

If wood prices rise

d)

If logging is fully mechanized

41.

Housing, paper, and furniture are identified as the main uses of which resource in the U.S. and Canada?

a)

Natural gas

b)

Timber

c)

Iron ore

d)

Coal

42.

Over-fishing led the Canadian government to ban cod fishing to protect the species. What practice increased as a result, according to the notes?

a)

Subsistence whaling

b)

Deep-sea trawling

c)

Aquaculture (fish farming)

d)

Offshore oil drilling

43.

What were the “Grand Banks” off Canada’s southeast coast once known for?

a)

One of the world’s largest coral reefs

b)

One of the world’s richest fishing grounds

c)

A global shipping choke point

d)

A major oil spill site

44.

Aquaculture can be used instead of fishing in the natural environment because it helps protect wildlife and produces what for people to eat?

a)

Fertilizer salts

b)

Usable fish

c)

Timber products

d)

Bottled water

45.

How many people live in the United States?

a)

About 215 million

b)

About 315 million

c)

About 415 million

d)

About 515 million

46.

Why did immigrants come to the United States? Select all that apply.

a)

To seek political and religious freedom

b)

To find better economic opportunities

c)

To flee wars or natural disasters

d)

To avoid all forms of cultural change

47.

What is the population density of the United States?

a)

20 people per square mile

b)

50 people per square mile

c)

80 people per square mile

d)

120 people per square mile

48.

What is the Sunbelt?

a)

A region of farms in the Midwest with long, cold winters

b)

A densely forested zone along the Pacific Northwest coast

c)

A U.S. region across the South and Southwest known for warm climate and rapid population growth

d)

An urban corridor in the Northeast with heavy snowfall

49.

Urbanization is described as the movement of people from rural areas to cities mostly in search of work in heavy industry.

a)

Movement from rural areas to cities to find industrial jobs

b)

Movement from cities to farms to grow food

c)

Migration from one country to another for political asylum

d)

Relocation from suburbs to small towns for lower costs

50.

Most people today live in what kind of areas referred to in the notes as Metropolitan Areas?

a)

Metropolitan Areas

b)

Frontier settlements

c)

Rural hamlets

d)

Unincorporated territories

51.

A metropolitan area is a city with a population of at least 50,000 people along with outlying communities called suburbs.

a)

City of at least 50,000 people with surrounding suburbs

b)

Any town with fewer than 10,000 residents

c)

Only the central city without nearby communities

d)

A rural county with scattered farms

52.

As metropolitan areas become crowded, they lead to the further spreading of people and suburban development, a process referred to as urban sprawl.

a)

Urban sprawl

b)

Urban renewal

c)

Gentrification

d)

Deindustrialization

53.

According to the notes, which set lists the biggest U.S. metropolitan areas?

a)

New York City, Los Angeles, Chicago

b)

Houston, Phoenix, San Diego

c)

Boston, Seattle, Miami

d)

Dallas, Philadelphia, Atlanta

54.

U.S. history has been influenced by Native Americans, European colonization, a war for Independence, the creation of a new government, westward expansion, and industrial growth.

a)

Native Americans

b)

European colonization

c)

War for Independence

d)

Antarctic exploration

e)

Industrial growth

55.

The Treaty of Tordesillas (1494) essentially divided the newly discovered lands between which two countries?

a)

Spain and Portugal

b)

England and France

c)

Netherlands and Spain

d)

France and Portugal

56.

Other European nations ignored the Treaty of Tordesillas and set out to build their own empires in the Americas, resulting in a struggle for North America.

a)

They ignored the treaty and built their own empires, leading to struggle

b)

They strictly obeyed the treaty, preventing conflicts

c)

They left the Americas untouched for a century

d)

They formed a single joint colony with Spain

57.

Jamestown colonists eventually gained luck and Jamestown became England’s first permanent settlement in North America.

a)

Jamestown became England’s first permanent settlement in North America

b)

Roanoke became England’s first permanent settlement in North America

c)

Plymouth became England’s first permanent settlement in North America

d)

Quebec became England’s first permanent settlement in North America

58.

In Jamestown, great wealth was found when farmers learned to plant and grow tobacco, turning it into a profitable cash crop.

a)

Tobacco

b)

Cotton

c)

Rice

d)

Wheat

59.

The area was named Jamestown in honor of which English monarch?

a)

King James

b)

Queen Elizabeth I

c)

King Charles I

d)

King George III

60.

In 1620, a group known as the Pilgrims founded England’s second colony in North America after leaving England in search of religious freedom.

a)

Pilgrims

b)

Puritans

c)

Quakers

d)

Huguenots

61.

In 1630, people seeking religious freedom known as Puritans settled near Plymouth and wanted to build a model community that would set an example for other Christians to follow.

a)

Puritans

b)

Pilgrims

c)

Separatists

d)

Shakers

62.

Unlike Jamestown, the Massachusetts Bay colony’s population grew fast, with numerous families in the colony instead of only men.

a)

Numerous families lived there instead of only men

b)

It was populated only by single men

c)

It banned families from migrating

d)

It relied solely on military settlers

63.

Early Native Americans (nomads) crossed a land bridge from Asia into Alaska.

a)

Asia into Alaska

b)

Europe into Greenland

c)

Africa into South America

d)

Australia into Asia

64.

Before independence, who controlled the colonies along the Atlantic coast?

a)

The British

b)

The Spanish

c)

The French

d)

The Dutch

65.

Under the Articles of Confederation, the government deliberately created was weak and established only one branch of government.

a)

Only Congress as the single branch

b)

A strong executive branch only

c)

Three coequal branches

d)

Only a federal court system

66.

Under the Articles of Confederation, each state had one vote in Congress.

a)

One vote per state

b)

Votes proportional to population

c)

Two votes per state

d)

Votes based on land area

67.

Under the Articles of Confederation, Congress had the right to declare war, enter into treaties, and coin money but did not have the power to collect taxes or regulate trade.

a)

Could declare war and coin money but could not collect taxes or regulate trade

b)

Could collect taxes and regulate trade but could not declare war

c)

Had unlimited powers over taxation and trade

d)

Had only the power to regulate trade

68.

To pass a law under the Articles of Confederation, how many of the 13 states had to agree?

a)

9 of 13

b)

7 of 13

c)

11 of 13

d)

5 of 13

69.

Why did immigrants go to Canada?

a)

In search of political and religious freedom

b)

Economic and educational opportunities

c)

Refuge from wars

d)

To escape warmer weather across Canada

e)

To avoid paying any taxes

70.

What is a Province?

a)

A political unit similar to a state in the U.S.

b)

A military district controlled by the army

c)

A type of Canadian currency

d)

A local village council

71.

Where do most of the people in Canada live?

a)

Along the U.S.–Canadian border

b)

In the Arctic region

c)

Evenly distributed across the country

d)

Primarily on the Pacific coast

72.

Canada’s Government Today?

a)

Constitutional Monarchy

b)

Absolute Monarchy

c)

Federal Dictatorship

d)

Direct Democracy

73.

What type of economies do the U.S. and Canada have?

a)

Market economies

b)

Command economies

c)

Traditional economies

d)

Centrally planned economies

74.

Which laws protect people in the U.S. and Canadian market economies?

a)

Laws protecting private property rights, employment opportunities, and the health and safety of workers

b)

Laws setting prices and profits for all private companies

c)

Laws banning private ownership of businesses

d)

Laws requiring citizens to meet government production quotas

75.

What are some of the key agricultural products in the U.S. and Canada?

a)

Cattle, wheat, and corn

b)

Rice, tea, and rubber

c)

Coffee, cocoa, and bananas

d)

Olives, grapes, and citrus

76.

Why is the development of reliable transportation necessary in the U.S. and Canada today?

a)

Because of large land area, dispersed population, and the need to move goods and services

b)

Because both countries are small and densely populated

c)

To reduce imports of foreign vehicles

d)

Primarily to increase international tourism

77.

Which type of communication has made the region successful by making telephone communication more mobile?

a)

Cellular and digital services

b)

Satellite television networks

c)

Expanded postal mail service

d)

Shortwave radio broadcasts

78.

What are the people in the U.S. and Canada most concerned about?

a)

Rising trade tariffs

b)

The possible effects of global warming

c)

Population decline

d)

A shortage of fresh water

79.

Which observed effects of global warming have people in Alaska and Canada reported? Select all that apply.

a)

Thinning ice

b)

Animals migrating farther north

c)

Permafrost beginning to thaw

d)

Increased volcanic activity

80.

What are the countries doing to try to reduce global warming?

a)

Increasing reliance on coal power

b)

Depending less on fossil fuels by adopting alternate energy sources

c)

Banning public transportation

d)

Encouraging deforestation to create farmland