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Consumer Behavior Worksheet Questions (Grade 13)

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Family members and friends can have a strong impact on consumer choices when acting as

a)

psychological influences.

b)

personal influences.

c)

social influences.

d)

loyalty influences.

e)

cultural influences.

2.

Which of the following best defines the way of living that distinguishes one large group from another?

a)

Consumer

b)

Subculture

c)

Social class

d)

Culture

e)

Demographic

3.

How do consumers develop opinions and beliefs about a set of products they will consider buying?

a)

Through evaluation of alternatives

b)

Through emotional motives

c)

Through need recognition

d)

Through post-purchase evaluation

e)

Through information seeking

4.

Which of the following is greatly influenced by nonobjective factors such as sociability, imitation and aesthetics?

a)

Emotional motives

b)

Post-purchase evaluation

c)

Rational motives

d)

Evaluation of alternatives

e)

Need recognition

5.

When making a purchase decision, decisions that include logical evaluation, cost, and quality are what type of decisions?

a)

Evoked

b)

Rational

c)

Comparison

d)

Consideration set

e)

Emotional

6.

If a buyer is unhappy with their purchase decision, what are they more likely to do than those who are happy with their purchase decision?

a)

Use a different decision-making process

b)

Continue to purchase the same product until a replacement is found

c)

Tell others

d)

Rely more on rational motives

e)

Develop a more limited evoked set of purchase options

7.

Rational motives involve nonobjective factors and include sociability, imitation of others, and aesthetics.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Focus groups allow researchers to observe a group of participants gathered in one place while they explore issues associated with a product.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Personal influences on consumer behavior include lifestyle, personality, and economic status.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Consumers with less brand loyalty are usually satisfied with a product's performance over time.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Which set lists the four major categories of influences that marketers use to explain and predict consumer choices?

a)

Psychological, personal, social, cultural

b)

Economic, technological, legal, environmental

c)

Demographic, geographic, psychometric, behavioral

d)

Product, price, place, promotion

12.

Explain each step in the consumer buying process by selecting the correct sequence of stages from need recognition to post-purchase evaluation.

a)

Need recognition → information search → evaluation of alternatives → purchase decision → post-purchase evaluation

b)

Information search → need recognition → evaluation of alternatives → post-purchase evaluation → purchase decision

c)

Need recognition → evaluation of alternatives → information search → purchase decision → post-purchase evaluation

d)

Evaluation of alternatives → need recognition → information search → purchase decision → post-purchase evaluation

13.

Which of the following is the BEST example of a B2B market transaction?

a)

A college student buys dorm furniture from an on-campus store.

b)

A group of teenage girls buy new clothes for the upcoming school year.

c)

A high-school coach borrows sports equipment from a neighboring school.

d)

A dentist provides free toothbrushes to patients.

e)

A chain of ice cream parlors regularly purchases napkins from the same supplier.

14.

What are B2B buyer-seller situations often based on?

a)

Frequent and enduring buyer-seller relationships

b)

Incidental buyer-seller interactions

c)

Buyers and sellers with limited training

d)

Short-term buyer-seller relationships

e)

Commercial buyer-seller networks

15.

Who are the firms who provide goods and services that are used by the purchasing public?

a)

Services markets

b)

Industrial markets

c)

Reseller markets

d)

Government markets

e)

Institutional markets

16.

Before products reach consumers, what market, consisting of wholesalers and retailers, do products pass through?

a)

Services markets

b)

Industrial markets

c)

Reseller markets

d)

Government markets

e)

Institutional markets

17.

What do organizations use to build relationships among users?

a)

Institutional marketing

b)

Web-driven revenue

c)

Negotiations

d)

Social networking media

e)

Reseller relationships

18.

How do marketers best use viral marketing?

a)

To increase use of social media networks

b)

To identify needs in the international market

c)

To promote public relations

d)

To improve branding

e)

To foster excitement for stimulating sales

19.

Which of the following is an advantage of using viral marketing and social networking?

a)

Marketers can reach a wider audience at a lower cost.

b)

Consumers can post opinions and feedback about products.

c)

New markets are easier to identify.

d)

Companies have more control over what the public experiences.

e)

Companies can respond to and eliminate negative reviews.

20.

When attempting to market a domestic product in an international market, what typically has to happen?

a)

The product must be priced higher because of currency exchange rates.

b)

The product must have major redesign work done.

c)

The home country distribution system must be retrained for the international market.

d)

The product must have an existing close competitor in the intended market.

e)

The advertising campaign must be consistent with those used in the home country.

21.

How can marketers best develop product promotion in a new, international market?

a)

Centered on product usage

b)

Centered on price and innovation

c)

Centered on cultural values and local customs

d)

Centered on using a "hard-sell" campaign

e)

Centered on home country values and customs

22.

How can companies reduce the cost and delays involved in entering new international markets?

a)

By selling items at a loss when determining international pricing

b)

By redeveloping the product from scratch to better meet consumer needs in the new market

c)

By avoiding the traditional U.S.-based marketing mix

d)

By utilizing existing international distribution systems

e)

By establishing new and unique promotions for the new market

23.

Which of the following do firms use to enhance public relations and branding while stimulating chatter about a product within a target market?

a)

Consumer-seller relationships

b)

Segmentation

c)

Company specialist

d)

Corporate blogs

e)

Enduring buyer-seller relationships

24.

The institutional market is made up of businesses that buy goods to be converted into other products or that are used up during production.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

The B2B market includes industrial, reseller, and government/institutional markets.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

The reseller market includes farmers, manufacturers, and some retailers.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

B2B sellers rarely have long-term relationships with buyers.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Companies with an existing distribution network are at a disadvantage in the global context.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Discuss the issues of international promotion.

a)

U.S. promotional tactics usually succeed abroad without modification.

b)

Cultural differences can cause negative reactions to improperly advertised products; promotions must be matched to local customers and cultural values.

c)

International marketers should use identical campaigns worldwide to maintain brand consistency.

d)

Product promotions are irrelevant in global markets and have little impact on outcomes.

30.

Discuss the three categories of B2B markets.

a)

Industrial, reseller, and government/institutional

b)

Consumer, reseller, and government

c)

Industrial, consumer, and nonprofit

d)

Agricultural, manufacturing, and services

31.

How does a realistic market potential estimate affect small business success? A) It allows small business owners to know how to modify a product for consumers. B) It allows small business owners to have a clear picture of their target segments. C) It allows for better use of social media based marketing efforts. D) It increases the ability to be flexible in pricing strategy. E) It provides a more accurate understanding of fixed and variable costs.

a)

A) It allows small business owners to know how to modify a product for consumers.

b)

B) It allows small business owners to have a clear picture of their target segments.

c)

C) It allows for better use of social media based marketing efforts.

d)

D) It increases the ability to be flexible in pricing strategy.

e)

E) It provides a more accurate understanding of fixed and variable costs.

32.

In what area can a small business create an advantage over larger competitors? A) Value B) Price C) Response time D) Marketing E) Shipping costs

a)

A) Value

b)

B) Price

c)

C) Response time

d)

D) Marketing

e)

E) Shipping costs

33.

When a small business identifies themselves and their products with local groups and events, what aspect of marketing are they pursuing? A) Price B) Promotion C) Product D) Public relations E) Place

a)

A) Price

b)

B) Promotion

c)

C) Product

d)

D) Public relations

e)

E) Place

34.

What do most small businesses fail to estimate correctly, often resulting in the business failing? A) Price B) Promotion C) Product D) Public relations E) Place

a)

A) Price

b)

B) Promotion

c)

C) Product

d)

D) Public relations

e)

E) Place

35.

What advantages do smaller companies have over larger competitors when it comes to the distribution aspect of the marketing mix?

a)

They can address customers’ needs more quickly and efficiently with a personal touch.

b)

They typically have lower production costs due to economies of scale.

c)

They can standardize global distribution with minimal local adaptation.

d)

They can rely on mass advertising to compensate for limited distribution.

36.

Identify the ways small businesses can benefit from an understanding of the marketing mix.

a)

Gaining a thorough understanding of what customers want

b)

Setting prices by carefully assessing costs, leading to satisfactory profits

c)

Using distribution choices, including location, to attract and retain customers

d)

Employing less expensive promotional methods, such as local publicity and aligning with groups and events

e)

Ignoring operating expenses to keep prices low

37.

What happens when companies extend their horizons and identify opportunities outside existing product lines?

a)

Disconnected product lines

b)

Multiple product lines

c)

Uniform product lines

d)

Universal product lines

e)

Tailored product lines

38.

Which defining word or phrase below BEST captures the meaning of capital items?

a)

Bulk loads

b)

Directly used in the production process

c)

To the consumer within a year

d)

Longer lasting

e)

Governmental purchase

39.

When developing the marketing mix, what is the basis for any successful marketing strategy?

a)

Customer needs and wants

b)

Value packaging

c)

Product mix offerings

d)

Features and benefits

e)

Offering the best product for the least amount of money

40.

What are the benefits and features associated with a product called?

a)

Product mix

b)

Specialty package

c)

Service mix

d)

Convenience

e)

Value package

41.

Which of the following BEST describes product features?

a)

All attributes and benefits of the product taken together

b)

Tangible and intangible qualities built into the product

c)

Intangible benefits that increase customer satisfaction

d)

Speed and convenience of a buyer interaction

e)

Benefits that are used directly in the conversion of a process

42.

What are products that are consumed rapidly and regularly classified as?

a)

Industrial goods

b)

Shopping goods

c)

Specialty goods

d)

Convenience goods

e)

Production goods

43.

What type of consumer good is more expensive and therefore receives more evaluation of alternatives before the purchase is made?

a)

Convenience goods

b)

Production items

c)

Shopping goods

d)

Expense items

e)

Capital items

44.

In addition to cost, how are industrial products divided into product categories?

a)

What area of the organization will use them

b)

Competitive nature of acquiring the item

c)

Availability

d)

How they will be used

e)

How easily the item can be turned into a consumable good

45.

What is the grouping of products available for sale by a company called?

a)

Product line

b)

Capital mix

c)

Goods and services

d)

Specialty goods

e)

Product mix

46.

Which of the following represents the group of products that are closely related or are sold to the same customer group?

a)

Product line

b)

Specialty product

c)

Product mix

d)

Convenience mix

e)

Production mix

47.

What can a company do to offset the consequences of slow sales in a product line?

a)

Limit the use of capital items.

b)

Diversify the product line.

c)

Add convenience goods.

d)

Increase the use of shopping goods available to consumers.

e)

Reclassify specialty products as convenience products.

48.

A company that buys products to use in the production or creation of other goods or services is a(n)

a)

convenience buyer.

b)

consumer.

c)

industrial buyer.

d)

capital buyer.

e)

rebrander.

49.

Which of the following best describes production items?

a)

Goods consumed within a year by an organization

b)

Goods that are specific in nature and where no substitute will be accepted

c)

Goods that are consumed rapidly and regularly

d)

Goods used to make other products

e)

Goods consumed within a year by the buyer

50.

When a consumer knows what they want to buy and is not willing to accept a substitute, what type of consumer product is being sought?

a)

Production goods

b)

Shopping goods

c)

Convenience goods

d)

Expense goods

e)

Specialty goods

51.

What is the difference between a specialty good and a specialty service?

a)

A specialty service is an intangible item and a specialty good is a tangible item.

b)

A specialty good costs more than a specialty service.

c)

A specialty service is often compared to other services before purchase.

d)

A specialty good can be compared to other items using the Internet.

e)

A specialty service is purchased regularly.

52.

Consumers often spend a great deal of time and money doing research to purchase a specific service. These consumer services are referred to as

a)

production services

b)

specialty services

c)

convenience services

d)

industrial services

e)

shopping services

53.

A product's features may be intangible.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

A value package consists of an in-store advertisement that makes the product attractive and identifies features and benefits.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Shopping goods are purchased more often than convenience goods.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

A doctor's office buys a multifunction printer. This purchase is an example of a capital item.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

The marketing process to the consumer is significantly different than the marketing process for the industrial buyer.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Consumers will often spend a great deal of time and money to find a specialty good and will generally not accept a substitute.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

How does a product mix differ from a product line?

a)

A product mix is the full set of products a firm offers for sale, while a product line is a group of similar products intended for a similar group of buyers; a firm may have multiple product lines within one product mix.

b)

A product mix is a single category of similar items, while a product line is all products a firm offers for sale across categories.

c)

A product mix and a product line are the same; firms use the terms interchangeably.

d)

A product mix refers only to services, while a product line refers only to tangible goods.

60.

How do expense items differ from capital items?

a)

Expense items are goods or services consumed within a year by firms producing other goods or supplying services, whereas capital items are permanent goods and services with expected lives of more than a year.

b)

Expense items are permanent goods used in production, whereas capital items are consumed within a year.

c)

Expense items and capital items are identical; classification does not depend on how they are used.

d)

Expense items refer only to services, whereas capital items refer only to tangible goods.

61.

Discuss the difference between production items, expense items, and capital items.

a)

Production items are used directly in the conversion process; expense items are goods and services consumed within a year by organizations producing other goods or supplying services; capital items are longer-lasting goods and services with expected lives of more than a year.

b)

Production items are purchased by consumers; expense items are permanent assets; capital items are consumables used up within a year.

c)

Production items are marketing materials; expense items are inventory held for resale; capital items are services purchased monthly.

d)

Production items and capital items are the same, while expense items are only administrative supplies.

62.

Assuming a company has been gathering ideas for new products, what is the next step in the development process?

a)

Test marketing

b)

Prototype development

c)

Business analysis

d)

Concept testing

e)

Screening

63.

Which of the following activities describes the development stage of commercialization?

a)

Building a prototype

b)

Testing the product to see if it meets performance requirements

c)

Selling the product on a trial basis in limited areas

d)

Beginning full-scale production and marketing

e)

Testing consumer reaction to the product in limited areas

64.

In which of the following ways is product development different for services than for physical goods?

a)

Instead of gathering product ideas, the company goes immediately to the testing phase.

b)

Instead of screening ideas, the company tests all of them, since no prototype is needed.

c)

Instead of creating a prototype, the company develops a service process design.

d)

The business analysis step is not needed, since there are no production costs with services.

e)

The commercialization step is gradual for services, but rapid for physical goods.

65.

What is frequently the most time-consuming stage of product development?

a)

Testing

b)

Market analysis

c)

Design

d)

Speed to market

e)

Product idea

66.

On average, how many new product ideas are needed to generate one that reaches the consumer market?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

75

d)

100

e)

500

67.

After a new product is developed, about 9 out of 10 fail for what reason?

a)

Cost

b)

Minimal marketing efforts

c)

Lack of significant difference

d)

The product is too regional

e)

Failure in FDA testing

68.

How can a company establish market leadership for a product?

a)

Introduce the product with a lower price than competitors.

b)

Do not introduce the product until success is certain.

c)

Be sure the product supports the overall goals and strategies of the organization.

d)

Introduce the product before competitors.

e)

Introduce a product that supports the rest of the product line.

69.

Why is speed to market critical to market demand?

a)

It reduces overall cost of product development.

b)

It allows more time for product recalls.

c)

It allows the company to conduct more concept testing.

d)

It produces stronger outcomes on the business analysis process.

e)

It allows the company to become entrenched in the marketplace.

70.

During what step of the product development stage does the firm consider how well a product or idea supports the firm's objectives?

a)

Screening

b)

Concept testing

c)

Prototype development

d)

Benefits analysis

e)

Product idea

71.

During which step of the product development stage does a company conduct market research on benefits and prices?

a)

Screening

b)

Concept testing

c)

Prototype development

d)

Benefits analysis

e)

Product idea

72.

Why do firms conduct product testing?

a)

To determine potential profitability of the product

b)

To allow for gradual commercialization over time

c)

To ensure the prototype meets performance requirements

d)

To determine how well the product fits in with the goals of the organization

e)

To determine the potential mesh with the firm's objectives

73.

What is the next step in the product development process when test marketing is positive for a product?

a)

Prototype development

b)

Business analysis

c)

Concept testing

d)

Commercialization

e)

Product diversification

74.

Which of the following includes the tangible and intangible features that characterize a service?

a)

Process selection

b)

Service process design

c)

Product life cycle

d)

Benefits

e)

Service value package

75.

Most ideas for new products eventually reach the market.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Speed to market increases the chance that a new product will survive.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

The process of product development begins with concept testing.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

For many companies, speed to market with a product is as important as care in developing it.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

In the screening stage of product development, companies use market research to get consumers' input about benefits and prices.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Why is new product development expensive?

a)

Mortality rates for new ideas are high, and firms must move fast as well as carefully to reach the market.

b)

Most new products are guaranteed to succeed, so little R&D is required and costs are low.

c)

The main expense is advertising because development is simple and slow.

d)

Products take long vacations before launch, which increases payroll but reduces R&D.

81.

Where do organizations get new product ideas?

a)

Consumers

b)

The sales force

c)

R&D departments

d)

Suppliers

e)

Engineering personnel

82.

What is involved in service process design?

a)

Process selection identifying steps, sequence, and timing in the service

b)

Worker requirements including behaviors, skills, capabilities, and customer interactions during service encounters

c)

Facility requirements designating equipment needed to support the delivery of services

d)

Prototype development to build and test a tangible good before service launch

83.

Why is speed to market so important?

a)

A product three months late can lose about 12% of lifetime profit potential; six months late can lose about 33%.

b)

Speed to market increases manufacturing defects and reduces profits.

c)

Being first always guarantees monopoly profits regardless of timing.

d)

Time compression means delaying launch to study consumers for a year.

84.

What is selling the rights to place a brand name on products such as t‑shirts referred to as?

a)

International branding

b)

National branding

c)

Private branding

d)

Regional branding

e)

Licensed branding

85.

When a wholesaler or retailer develops a brand name and has the manufacturer place that name on the product, what is that product name called?

a)

National brand

b)

Private brand

c)

Luxury brand

d)

Licensed brand

e)

Manufacturer brand

86.

During the product life cycle, when do sales begin to climb and the product begin to show profit?

a)

Ascending

b)

Mature

c)

Initial

d)

Growth

e)

Accelerated

87.

During the product life cycle, when do sales begin to slow down even though profit levels are high?

a)

Decline

b)

Maturity

c)

Introduction

d)

Growth

e)

Promotion

88.

Which of the following is least likely to increase the life of a product without involving product changes?

a)

Product extension

b)

Product adaption

c)

Rebranding

d)

New product placement

e)

Reintroduction

89.

Using symbols and names to communicate the qualities of a product is a function of what?

a)

Awareness

b)

Reintroduction

c)

Product adaptation

d)

Product extension

e)

Branding

90.

What is one of the key benefits to successful branding?

a)

Brand extension

b)

Brand loyalty

c)

Preferred product placement

d)

Ease of licensing

e)

Ease in adaptation

91.

In additional to social networking and viral marketing, how do firms successfully increase brand awareness?

a)

Reintroduction

b)

Globalization

c)

Rebranding

d)

Product placement

e)

Product extensions

92.

Which of the following best describes product placement?

a)

Placing products on the shelf where they receive the most attention

b)

Identifying specific products for viral marketing campaigns

c)

Placing products in movies and television shows

d)

Placing a national brand next to a store brand for better comparison

e)

Determining if a product should be sold only online or only in brick and mortar shops

93.

Which of the following indicates a firm sold the rights to put their name on a product not produced by them?

a)

Asset brands

b)

National brands

c)

Licensed brands

d)

Private brands

e)

Private labels

94.

Which of the following best describes a private label brand?

a)

A retailer uses packaging as a form of advertising.

b)

A retailer develops a brand name and has a manufacturer put it on a product.

c)

A manufacturer puts its name on an unrelated product for a fee.

d)

A brand name is used throughout a series of products made by the same manufacturer.

e)

A brand is reintroduced in a new, often global, market.

95.

How do customers most benefit from packaging design?

a)

Increased utility

b)

In-store advertisements

c)

Less spoilage

d)

Reduced risk of damage

e)

Less theft of the product

96.

A private brand is a brand name developed by a wholesaler or retailer for their product.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Sears' Craftsman Tools is an example of a private brand.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Packaging can serve as an in-store advertisement that makes the product attractive, displays the brand name, and identifies features and benefits.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

Product placement includes showing actors on television shows using a name-brand product.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

The product life cycle describes the commercial life of services as well as goods.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

After a product has been in the maturity stage for a few years, marketers must accept that the product will begin to decline.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

With product adaptation, the product is modified for greater appeal in different countries.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

Product X is just beginning to generate a profit for the first time as the manufacturer lowers prices slightly and sees a significant increase in sales. At what stage in the product life cycle is Product X, and how is this stage identified?

a)

Introduction stage, when sales are minimal and costs are high

b)

Growth stage, when sales climb and profits begin

c)

Maturity stage, when sales peak and competition intensifies

d)

Decline stage, when sales fall and product withdrawal is considered