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Worksheet Questions: Information Technology Resources and Uses

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does a wireless wide area network use to link computers and electronic devices over long distances?

a)

Application programs

b)

Hotspots

c)

Access points

d)

Client-server networks

e)

Airborne electronic signals

2.

Electronic conferencing is popular because it reduces travel expenses and saves money.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

One pitfall with VSAT satellite communications is that they tend to lack privacy.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

In a client-server network, the client is typically a customer or supplier.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

System software tells the computer's hardware how to interact with the software, what resources to use, and how to use them.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

IBM's Visualization Data Explorer is an example of groupware.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a basic communications protocol used to receive e-mail.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Hardware consists of programs that tell a computer how to function.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Identify the IT resources businesses have at their disposal and how these resources are used. Select all that apply.

a)

The Internet and World Wide Web provide information and enable communication flows across global networks.

b)

Intranets support internal communications and are accessible only to employees.

c)

Extranets provide limited access to outsiders for coordination with suppliers and customers.

d)

VSAT satellite networks provide private long-distance communications for voice, video, and data transmissions.

e)

HTTP is used to receive e-mail messages and serves as a basic communications protocol for that purpose.

10.

Why is electronic conferencing a desirable alternative for business?

a)

It reduces travel costs and enables groups in different locations to communicate as if they were in the same room.

b)

It requires employees to meet in person more frequently to maintain collaboration.

c)

It increases travel expenses compared to traditional meetings.

d)

It limits participation to people who are physically in the same room.

11.

Which statement correctly differentiates data conferencing from videoconferencing?

a)

Data conferencing enables remote participants to work simultaneously on the same document, while videoconferencing lets participants see one another on video during the meeting.

b)

Data conferencing is audio-only, while videoconferencing is text-only.

c)

Data conferencing requires all participants to be in one location, while videoconferencing works only across different cities.

d)

Data conferencing uses satellite links exclusively, while videoconferencing uses fiber-optic cables exclusively.

12.

How do companies use intranets to improve productivity and performance?

a)

By providing a private internal network that streamlines access to company information, shortens production lead times, and improves delivery times through easier information sharing.

b)

By opening internal systems to the public to increase external feedback and reduce employee access controls.

c)

By replacing all external customer websites with internal portals to eliminate customer wait times.

d)

By restricting information flow within departments to prevent cross-functional collaboration.

13.

What is an advantage of developing a super Wi‑Fi network?

a)

It offers longer-range coverage across metropolitan and rural areas with stronger signals that pass through obstacles like concrete, steel, forests, and hills.

b)

It restricts coverage to small indoor areas to reduce interference from walls and buildings.

c)

It eliminates Internet access while improving only voice call quality.

d)

It requires monthly cell phone or Internet bills for all users to maintain connectivity.

14.

Which comparison of wide area networks (WANs) and local area networks (LANs) is accurate and explains why a firm might use one over the other?

a)

WANs link computers over long distances using long-distance telephone wires, microwave signals, or satellites—useful for statewide or nationwide operations—while LANs connect computers within a smaller area such as an office or building using telephone, fiber‑optic, or coaxial cables.

b)

WANs are limited to a single office building, whereas LANs span multiple states using satellite links.

c)

LANs require leasing lines from communications vendors, while WANs can only be privately owned and operated.

d)

A firm would use a LAN to connect nationwide offices and a WAN to connect devices within one floor of a building.

15.

Who is the person in charge of operating the systems used for gathering, organizing, and distributing information?

a)

Production Manager

b)

Operations Manager

c)

Information Systems Manager

d)

Research and Development Manager

e)

Communications Manager

16.

What is the term used for searching, sifting, and reorganizing pools of data to uncover useful information?

a)

Data warehousing

b)

Data access

c)

Data tapping

d)

Data cleaning

e)

Data mining

17.

Who most often needs information in order to conduct technical projects?

a)

Middle managers

b)

Members of the board of directors

c)

Top-level managers

d)

Knowledge workers

e)

Network administrators

18.

Which software can help to design products ranging from cell phones to auto parts at lower costs compared to manual modeling methods?

a)

Decision support systems

b)

Operations software

c)

Computer-aided manufacturing software

d)

Computer-aided design software

e)

Data warehousing software

19.

Which of the following supports an organization's managers by providing daily reports, schedules, plans, and budgets?

a)

Management application systems

b)

Management operations systems

c)

Management information systems

d)

Management expert systems

e)

Management enterprise systems

20.

What is a management information system?

a)

A system that supports managers by providing daily reports, schedules, plans, and budgets that can be used for making decisions

b)

An easy-access application of an information system designed for instant access by upper-level managers

c)

An information processing application for use in business activities involving well-defined processing steps

d)

An interactive system that locates and presents information needed to support the decision-making process

e)

A repository of information resources related to the collection of data

21.

Which of the following BEST describes a decision support system?

a)

A system that supports an organization's managers by providing daily reports, schedules, plans, and budgets that can be used for making decisions

b)

A quick-reference, easy-access application of information systems specifically designed for instant access by upper-level managers

c)

A system of hardware and software that imitates human behavior

d)

An interactive system that creates virtual business models for a particular kind of decision and tests them with different data to see how they respond

e)

A processor that plans production and delivery schedules

22.

Why might businesses want to use a decision support system to analyze data that reveal what consumers do in the marketplace?

a)

To be able to send them tailor-made advertisements

b)

To be able to close the customer service department

c)

To be able to reduce production costs

d)

To be able to stabilize employee turnover

e)

To be able to manage long-term costs

23.

What is the electronic collection, storage, and retrieval of data referred to as?

a)

Management information systems

b)

Data warehousing

c)

Data mining

d)

Information linkage

e)

Knowledge information systems

24.

What do manufacturers use to design and control equipment used in the creation of products?

a)

Computer-aided design

b)

Information linkages

c)

Computer-aided manufacturing

d)

Decision support systems

e)

Knowledge software

25.

What type of system aids in the decision-making process by creating virtual business models and then test them with data?

a)

Computer-aided design

b)

Information linkages

c)

Computer-aided manufacturing

d)

Decision support systems

e)

Knowledge software

26.

The application of electronic technologies for searching, sifting, and reorganizing pools of data to uncover useful information is called data warehousing.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Through data mining, a manager can access demographic information on customers, for example, in order to decide which advertising media may be best to use.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

An information system may be a set of several information systems that share information.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Computer-aided design (CAD) can increase the productivity of knowledge workers.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

A computer-aided design (CAD) system could help a sales manager learn what sales levels will likely result from various levels of advertising expenditures.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

What is the purpose of a knowledge information system?

a)

It supports knowledge workers by providing resources to create, store, use, and transmit knowledge, such as databases that organize and retrieve information for analysis.

b)

It processes routine transactions such as sales and payroll without creating or sharing knowledge.

c)

It controls factory machinery and robots in real time to automate production lines.

d)

It only summarizes long-term trends for top executives without supporting day-to-day work.

32.

What is the difference between data and information?

a)

Data are raw facts and figures; information is the useful interpretation of those facts for decisions.

b)

Data and information are synonyms that can be used interchangeably.

c)

Data are managerial decisions, while information is the computer hardware that stores them.

d)

Data are summarized reports, while information is unprocessed details.

33.

What is a decision support system?

a)

An interactive computer-based system that creates and tests virtual business models with different data to support repeated managerial decisions and provide recommendations.

b)

A program used to design mechanical parts and drawings for engineering projects.

c)

A system that stores historical data only, without providing tools for analysis or modeling.

d)

A messaging platform for internal communication across departments.

34.

Describe the role of information systems, the different types of information systems, and how businesses use such systems.

a)

They enable users to collect, process, and transmit information for decision making; include specialized systems such as knowledge and management information systems; and are used for tasks like experimentation, data mining to identify trends, scheduling, and planning deliveries.

b)

They primarily handle data entry and printing; most types are identical and used only for archiving records with no role in decision making.

c)

Their role is limited to cybersecurity; the main types focus on blocking viruses and encrypting emails to reduce IT costs.

d)

They are designed solely to automate manufacturing equipment; the main types control robots and assembly lines to increase output.

35.

Which cybercriminal activity refers to the act of luring Internet users to bogus Web sites?

a)

Computer virus distribution

b)

Spamming

c)

Phishing

d)

Trojan horse distribution

e)

Piracy

36.

Which term refers to the unauthorized stealing of personal information from a computer system?

a)

Espionage

b)

Leverage

c)

Denial of service

d)

Identity theft

e)

Network flooding

37.

What is spam?

a)

A form of firewall

b)

Intellectual property

c)

Junk e-mail

d)

A form of hacking

e)

Wireless mooching

38.

Phishing or pharming involve which of the following?

a)

Intellectual property theft

b)

Firewalls that prevent hacking

c)

Viruses sent from one station to another in a LAN

d)

Deceptive e-mails that imitate popular Web sites

e)

Trading of company secrets

39.

In order for a virus to spread from computer to computer, what must it always attach itself to first?

a)

All available computer memory

b)

A worm

c)

A router

d)

A piece of hardware

e)

A program

40.

Which type of IT threat can spread without a computer user needing to open any software?

a)

Worms

b)

Trojan horses

c)

Spam

d)

Spyware

e)

Computer viruses

41.

What type of users would download spyware?

a)

Users seeking to prevent viruses from attacking

b)

Users who are unaware that their computer activities will be monitored

c)

Users who wish to prevent spam from entering their computer

d)

Users who want easy access to their coworkers' files

e)

Users who are keen to share documents

42.

Which of the following is a cybercriminal who gains unauthorized access to a computer or network?

a)

Worm

b)

Hacker

c)

Spy

d)

Spammer

e)

Trojan horse

43.

What type of hack floods a network with bogus requests for information and resources, overloading and shutting down the network?

a)

Wireless mooching

b)

File-swapping

c)

Identity theft

d)

Denial of service (DoS)

e)

Pharming

44.

What is the term for a file that attaches itself to a program, then moves from computer to computer within a networked system, with the intention of contaminating files?

a)

Spam

b)

Trojan horse

c)

Hack

d)

Worm

e)

Spyware

45.

What is the term for something that is produced by the mind, such as a new invention, that has commercial value?

a)

Identity-based property

b)

Decision support systems

c)

Knowledge information systems

d)

Management information systems

e)

Intellectual property

46.

Why do firms want to prevent hackers from stealing intellectual property?

a)

Crooks may create unauthorized duplications.

b)

Rights are no longer protected.

c)

Ownership becomes unclear.

d)

Commercial value is lost.

e)

The intellectual property can no longer be trademarked.

47.

How do spies attract users to spyware?

a)

By offering free software

b)

By offering free downloads of music

c)

By allowing downloaders to access other user accounts

d)

By accessing intellectual property of others

e)

By using file swapping systems

48.

What is another name for a falsified Web page?

a)

Phishing

b)

Spoofing

c)

Mooching

d)

Pharming

e)

Worming

49.

Spyware authors can use stolen information to create their own intellectual property.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Trojan horses are malicious programs that replicate themselves like viruses.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Intellectual property is something produced by a computer that has personal value.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Identify the threats and risks information technology poses on businesses.

a)

Unauthorized access leading to theft of personal and company information, including identity theft

b)

Ease of information sharing guarantees protection of intellectual property and reduces risk

c)

System shutdown and destruction of software, hardware, or data by viruses, worms, and Trojan horses

d)

Spam causing lost time and reduced productivity

e)

Malware automatically increases productivity across the organization

53.

What is the name of software and hardware that prevent hackers from accessing a company's internal network?

a)

Partition

b)

Firewall

c)

Extranet

d)

Index

e)

Security

54.

Which of the following BEST describes a firewall?

a)

A software and hardware system that prevents outsiders from accessing a company's internal network

b)

A tool that searches Web pages containing the user's search terms and then displays pages that match

c)

A private network of internal Web sites and other sources of information available to a company's employees

d)

An Internet connection allowing outsiders limited access to a firm's internal information system

e)

An extranet site that gives customers access to different product lines

55.

Where are firewalls typically located?

a)

Where two networks meet

b)

In the formal security policy guidelines

c)

On the internal router

d)

In the anti-virus software

e)

In the encryption system

56.

Which of the following determines how data that has previously been tested for security will travel to its destination?

a)

Firewall

b)

Router

c)

Access tests

d)

Encryption system

e)

Spy sweeper

57.

Which type of software searches incoming e-mail and data for indications of a known virus?

a)

Malware

b)

Firewalls

c)

Anti-virus software

d)

Routers

e)

Spyware

58.

How does encryption software work?

a)

By intercepting and reviewing e-mail before delivering it to the proper address

b)

By looking for signatures of known viruses and virus-like characters

c)

By acting as a traffic switch and determining which route the message should take

d)

By scrambling messages for anyone who does not have the key to decoding

e)

By blocking suspicious messages where the internal network and the Internet meet

59.

What do firms use to avoid privacy invasion and improve productivity?

a)

Spyware

b)

Routers

c)

Encryption software

d)

Spam-filtering software

e)

File swapping software

60.

What is the process of sending an e-mail that appears to have come from a trusted source, but is really spam?

a)

Pharming

b)

Hacking

c)

Sweeping

d)

Spoofing

e)

Phishing

61.

Which of the following strengthens identity-theft protection by specifying how documents with personal information must be disposed of?

a)

Spamhaus Project

b)

CAN-SPAM Act of 2003

c)

Federal Trade Commission

d)

Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act

e)

Webroot Spy Sweeper Project

62.

Which of the following is an ethical issue when it comes to Internet privacy?

a)

Not allowing employees to use work computers for personal reasons

b)

Using data mining on work equipment, including cell phones

c)

Using cyber-insurance to recoup some of the losses incurred by hackers

d)

Using encryption software to scramble messages

e)

Asking a job seeker for their Facebook username and password

63.

A router scrambles e-mail messages to get around security systems.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

A company's security policy can prevent certain data from passing through its firewall.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

In addition to wasting users' time, spam consumes a network's bandwidth, thereby reducing the amount of data that can be transmitted in a fixed amount of time for useful purposes.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Worms, Trojan horses, and other infection software are collectively known as malware.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

The SPAM Act of 2003 is designed to strengthen identity-theft protection.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

How is a Trojan horse different from a worm?

a)

A Trojan horse disguises itself as legitimate software and does not self‑replicate, whereas a worm self‑replicates and spreads across networks

b)

Both a Trojan horse and a worm self‑replicate, but a Trojan horse spreads faster than a worm

c)

A Trojan horse always encrypts files, while a worm only changes desktop icons

d)

A worm requires a user to run it, while a Trojan horse spreads automatically across computers

69.

Describe the ways in which businesses protect themselves from the threats and risks information technology poses.

a)

Require protected passwords and use firewalls so only messages meeting security policy conditions move in or out of the network

b)

Permit all incoming e‑mail attachments to pass through unfiltered to avoid delays

c)

Use anti‑virus software to scan for signatures, discard or quarantine contaminated files, and install anti‑spyware and spam filtering

d)

Seek assistance from identity‑theft advisory sources and implement FACTA provisions for managing and destroying personal information

e)

Disable all communication with outside networks permanently

70.

Which of the following terms refers to the comprehensive system for collecting, analyzing, and communicating financial information?

a)

Bookkeeping

b)

Accounting

c)

Controlling

d)

Auditing

e)

Budgeting

71.

Which of the following refers to the rules and procedures governing the content and form of financial reports?

a)

National bookkeeping standards

b)

Core competencies for accounting

c)

Accounting and financial rules

d)

National guidelines of accounting principles

e)

Generally accepted accounting principles

72.

Which of the following terms refers to the recording of financial transactions?

a)

Bookkeeping

b)

Finance

c)

Controlling

d)

Budgeting

e)

Auditing

73.

Which of the following terms refers to the examination of a company's accounting system to determine whether its financial reports fairly represent its operations?

a)

Financial analysis

b)

Forensic accounting

c)

Portfolio analysis

d)

Audit

e)

Preliminary investigation

74.

Which are the two major fields of accounting?

a)

Managerial and forensic

b)

Financial and managerial

c)

Bookkeeping and advisory

d)

Corporate and individual

e)

Public and private

75.

Which of the following bodies formulates the generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP)?

a)

Accounting Disclosure Board

b)

Financial Accounting Standards Board

c)

Association of Certified Fraud Examiners

d)

Securities and Exchange Commission

e)

CPA Vision Project

76.

Which of the following bodies requires firms to file disclosures so potential investors have valid information?

a)

Accounting Disclosure Board

b)

Financial Accounting Standards Board

c)

Association of Certified Fraud Examiners

d)

Securities and Exchange Commission

e)

American Institute of Certified Public Accountants

77.

Which of the following BEST describes a certified fraud examiner?

a)

A specialized managerial accountant concerned with issues of fraud

b)

A specialized certified public accountant concerned with issues of fraud

c)

A specialized forensic accountant concerned with issues of fraud

d)

An accounting agent for the Securities and Exchange Commission concerned with issues of fraud

e)

An accounting agent provided by the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 concerned with issues of fraud

78.

Which of the following areas of the Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE) exam includes why people commit fraud and a professional code of ethics?

a)

Fraud prevention and deterrence

b)

Financial transactions

c)

Fraud investigation

d)

Fraud litigation

e)

Legal elements of fraud

79.

What do businesses use to identify, record, and retain financial information and includes the people, reports, procedures and other resources needed to compile transactions?

a)

Accounting information systems

b)

Financial accounting

c)

Bookkeeping

d)

Accounting

e)

Managerial accounting

80.

How do certified public accountants ensure a company's financial reports really represent its operations?

a)

By reviewing GAAP standards

b)

By conducting an audit

c)

Through the filing of tax information

d)

By acting as consultants to noncertified accountants

e)

By acting as advisory to senior management

81.

What is the goal of the CPA Vision Project?

a)

To eradicate fraud in public companies

b)

To increase the role of CPAs in providing consulting services to corporate managers

c)

To better identify core competencies needed for noncertified public accountants in the public sector

d)

To better define the role of accountants in the world economy

e)

To lobby for laws that better support the accounting field and eliminate fraud

82.

Which type of accountant uses audits to assist in the investigation of companies and as litigation support in crimes against companies?

a)

Management accountants

b)

Private accountants

c)

Forensic accountants

d)

Financial accountants

e)

Controllers

83.

Which of the following requires auditor rotation by prohibiting the same person from being the lead auditor for more than five consecutive years?

a)

The Association of Certified Fraud Examiners

b)

The Securities and Exchange Commission

c)

The American Institute of Certified Public Accountants

d)

The Financial Accounting Standards Board

e)

Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002

84.

Which of the following is a designation for those who have passed the IMA's experience and examination requirements?

a)

Certified management accountant (CMA)

b)

Certified public accountant (CPA)

c)

Controller

d)

Private accountant

e)

Forensic accountant

85.

Who is responsible for ensuring the accounting information system provides the reports and statements needed for management planning and decision making?

a)

Auditor

b)

Controller

c)

Fraud examiner

d)

Managerial accountant

e)

Bookkeeper

86.

Those accountants who are hired by firms as salaried employees and who specialize in areas such as financial planning, internal auditing, and taxation are called

a)

Forensic accountants

b)

Certified management accountants

c)

Private accountants

d)

Certified public accountants

e)

Fraud examiners

87.

In addition to help preparing tax returns, what benefit can a tax service offer a business?

a)

Tax planning

b)

Litigation advice

c)

State certification

d)

Personal financial planning

e)

Advice on corporate mergers

88.

An audit examines whether a firm's financial statement conforms to generally accepted accounting principles.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Bookkeeping is a comprehensive system for collecting, analyzing, and communicating financial information.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

Due to current concerns over accounting fraud, certified public accountants are now licensed by the Securities and Exchange Commission.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

In order to increase the quality of current accountants, the CPA Vision Project has re-asserted the ability to use and calculate large amounts of numerical data as a primary competency for accountants.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

It is currently very common that a CPA who is hired to audit a firm's finances will also be hired to help design a more efficient financial information system.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

A key component of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 was increased government oversight over the certification examinations given by the accounting professional organizations such as the Institute of Management Accountants.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

In the private accounting field, certified management accountants use accounting to investigate and support litigation in crimes against companies.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

A firm's controller is often the firm's chief accounting officer.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

A tax service can provide management advisory services ranging from personal financial planning to planning corporate mergers.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Give three examples of management advisory services.

a)

Production scheduling; computer feasibility studies; accounting information system design

b)

Tax return preparation; payroll processing; external auditing

c)

SEC licensing; investor relations; stock underwriting

d)

Inventory counting; bank reconciliation; accounts payable data entry

98.

For what types of organizations do forensic accountants work?

a)

Law enforcement agencies, insurance companies, law firms, and business firms, providing investigative accounting and litigation support

b)

Only public accounting firms performing audits for publicly traded corporations

c)

Nonprofit charities exclusively, focusing on donor reporting

d)

Government tax authorities only, handling routine tax returns

99.

Identify the potential users of accounting information.

a)

Business managers, employees, unions, investors, creditors, tax authorities, and government regulatory agencies

b)

Only investors and creditors

c)

Only managers and employees

d)

Customers and the general public exclusively

100.

Discuss the role of a private accountant within large and small firms.

a)

Private accountants work within a firm performing day-to-day accounting; in large firms they are specialized, in small firms one person may handle all tasks; many are management accountants and may hold the CMA designation

b)

Private accountants are independent auditors hired by many clients and licensed by the SEC

c)

Private accountants focus exclusively on tax preparation for individuals

d)

Private accountants primarily investigate fraud for law enforcement

101.

Which of the following terms refers to any economic resource that is expected to benefit a firm or individual who owns it?

a)

Asset

b)

Liability

c)

Equity

d)

Account

e)

Deposit

102.

Which of the following terms refers to the amount of money that owners would receive if they sold all of a company's assets and paid all of its liabilities?

a)

Asset

b)

Owners' equity

c)

Inventory

d)

Profit

e)

Credit

103.

Which of the following describes a liability?

a)

The potential profit from selling a firm's assets and settling all of its debts

b)

A debt owed by a firm to an outside organization or individual

c)

Any economic resource expected to benefit a firm or an individual who owns it

d)

Any economic deficit expected to cost a firm or an individual who owns it

e)

The amount of money originally invested in a business by its owners