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chapter 15-16

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A company has an assets-to-liabilities ratio of 3:2 and total assets worth $6 million. What is its owners' equity?

a)

$1 million

b)

$2 million

c)

$4 million

d)

$9 million

e)

$12 million

2.

How much profit does a company which has a total of 5millioninvestedbyitsownersand5 million invested by its owners and 4 million in liabilities need to make in order to have an assets-to-liabilities ratio of 2:1?

a)

$2 million

b)

$3 million

c)

$5 million

d)

$7 million

e)

$8 million

3.

Which of the following represents the accounting equation?

a)

Assets = Liabilities + Owners' Equity

b)

Owners' Equity = Assets + Liability

c)

Liability = Assets + Owners' Equity

d)

Assets = Liabilities - Owners' Equity

e)

Assets = Liabilities × Owners' Equity

4.

Why is a company's owners' equity important for investors and lenders?

a)

Owners' equity indicates potential profit.

b)

Owners' equity determines how quickly liabilities will increase.

c)

Owners' equity determines how much will be paid out as dividends.

d)

Owners' equity indicates how much the owner has invested in the company.

e)

Owners' equity indicates the level of security.

5.

A company with a very high amount of liabilities will always find it more difficult to secure loans than a company with a very low amount of liabilities.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

The percentage of liabilities in a company's assets plus the percentage of owners' equity in its assets is always equal to 100.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Owners' equity is net worth minus liabilities.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

If a company's assets exceed its liabilities, owners' equity is negative.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

What two sources of capital make up owners' equity?

a)

Original investments by owners and profits retained in the company

b)

Borrowed funds and dividends paid

c)

Sales revenue and the value of assets

d)

Owners' withdrawals and outstanding liabilities

e)

Interest paid and taxes owed

10.

What is the accounting equation?

a)

Assets = Liabilities + Owners' Equity

b)

Assets = Owners' Equity − Liabilities

c)

Assets = Liabilities − Owners' Equity

d)

Assets = Owners' Equity × Liabilities

e)

Assets = Revenues + Expenses

11.

What distinguishes the two most commonly used categories of owners' equity?

a)

The amount of equity within each type of asset—current versus fixed and intangible

b)

The financial form of the equity—cash investments versus stock and bond investments

c)

The source of the equity—paid-in capital versus retained earnings

d)

The use of the equity—invested versus saved

e)

The age of the equity—older investments and earnings versus newer investments and earnings

12.

What are the major categories within an income statement?

a)

Operating costs and profits, investing costs and profits, and financing costs and profits

b)

Current revenue, long-term revenue, and net revenue

c)

Revenue, sales, and income

d)

Assets, liabilities, and owners' equity

e)

Revenues, cost of revenues, operating expenses, and net income

13.

Which of the following is the difference between revenues and the cost of revenues?

a)

Net income

b)

Gross profit

c)

Accounts payable

d)

Interest expense

e)

Cash flow

14.

Which of the following BEST demonstrates cash flow from operations?

a)

Transactions involved in buying and selling goods and services

b)

Net cash used in or provided by investment

c)

Cash flow from borrowing or issuing stock

d)

Outflows for payments of dividends

e)

Inflows of cash that will be used to repay borrowed money

15.

Which of the following is considered to be the most important internal financial statement for planning, controlling, and decision making?

a)

Income statement

b)

Flow of cash statement

c)

Balance sheet

d)

Budget

e)

Statement of projected earnings

16.

Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between current and long-term liabilities?

a)

Current liabilities are debts that need to be paid immediately, whereas long-term liabilities do not.

b)

Current liabilities are those which will cost less in debt interest than long-term liabilities.

c)

Current liabilities are debts that are settled sooner than long-term debts.

d)

Current liabilities are debts on tangible assets, whereas long-term liabilities are debts on intangible assets.

e)

Current liabilities are debts on current assets, whereas long-term liabilities are debts on fixed and intangible assets.

17.

Which of the following refers to the financial statement detailing a firm's assets, liabilities, and owners' equity?

a)

Income statement

b)

Statement of cash flow

c)

Balance sheet

d)

Expense report

e)

Annual budget

18.

Which of the following describes assets such as land, building, and equipment?

a)

Liquid assets

b)

Fixed assets

c)

Intangible assets

d)

Current assets

e)

Limited assets

19.

Which of the following BEST describes depreciation?

a)

The process of increasing the value of fixed assets over time

b)

The process of deducting operating expenses from the value of fixed assets

c)

The process of reducing the value of fixed assets over time

d)

The process of distributing the cost of liabilities over time

e)

The process of distributing the cost of intangible assets over time

20.

Which of the following describes assets such as patents and trademarks?

a)

Liquid assets

b)

Fixed assets

c)

Intangible assets

d)

Current assets

e)

Limited assets

21.

Which of the following terms refers to the amount paid for an existing business beyond the value of its other assets?

a)

Goodwill

b)

Excess compensation

c)

Licensing

d)

Asset promotion

e)

Liability deduction

22.

Which of the following terms refers to the difference calculated by subtracting income taxes from the operating income of an organization?

a)

Gross revenue

b)

Net income

c)

Gross profit

d)

Cash flow

e)

Leverage

23.

What does a statement of cash flow describe?

a)

Gross profit compared to operating expenses

b)

Value of revenues compared to cost of revenues

c)

Yearly cash receipts and cash payments

d)

Cost of obtaining materials needed to produce products

e)

Funds that flow into the business from the sale of the goods or services provided

24.

Which of the following best describes the revenues of an organization?

a)

Gross profit compared to operating expenses

b)

Value of revenues compared to cost of revenues

c)

Yearly receipts and cash payments

d)

Cost of obtaining materials needed to produce products

e)

Funds that flow into the business from the sale of the goods or services provided

25.

Which of the following are the three categories on a company's statement of cash flows

a)

Operating activities, purchase activities, taxes

b)

Profit inflow, debt outflow, taxes

c)

Profitable activities, deficit activities, taxes

d)

Operating activities, investing activities, taxes

e)

Operating activities, investing activities, financing activities

26.

Assets are categorized by the capacity in which they benefit the company.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

The most liquid asset for a firm is marketable securities that can be sold very quickly.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Retained earnings are net profits minus dividend payments to stockholders.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Current assets are all assets that are able to be liquidated in a short amount of time.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Explain fixed assets and how accountants spread the cost of an asset over the years of its useful life.

a)

Fixed assets have long-term use or value and accountants use depreciation to allocate their cost over the useful life, reducing book value each year.

b)

Fixed assets are short-term items and accountants expense the entire cost immediately in the year of purchase.

c)

Fixed assets have indefinite life and are never reduced in value; accountants only record appreciation over time.

d)

Fixed assets include only intangible items and accountants amortize them over one year.

31.

What is the statement of cash flow required by the SEC and why is it required?

a)

It is a report for publicly traded firms that shows yearly cash receipts and payments and the effects on cash of operating, investing, and financing activities to inform investors and creditors.

b)

It is an internal budget report required of all companies to project future sales by product line for the next fiscal year.

c)

It is a tax filing that summarizes income and expenses for the IRS and replaces the income statement for large corporations.

d)

It is a quarterly memo that explains management’s earnings targets and discloses confidential financing plans.

32.

Which of the following terms refers to the formal recording and reporting of revenues in financial statements?

a)

Full disclosure

b)

Revenue recognition

c)

Compliance

d)

Ethical practice

e)

Materiality

33.

Financial statements that do not include interpretation and explanation by management are in violation of which GAAP principle?

a)

Principle of sincerity

b)

Principle of continuity

c)

Principle of full disclosure

d)

Principle of regularity

e)

Principle of prudence

34.

Which of the following requires managers to share information about events inside the company and explain certain transaction?

a)

Earning cycle reports

b)

Revenue recognition

c)

Statement of cash flow

d)

Solvency ratios

e)

Full disclosure

35.

Revenue from the earnings of a particular transaction is able to be reported as soon as the product or service is delivered.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

The primary goal for the standard practices and principles in accountant reporting is to ensure external users that the information is accurate and has meaning.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Explain what is covered by GAAP and why it is important to use these standards.

a)

GAAP provides uniform standards for preparing external financial reports, improving comparability and confidence in the information.

b)

GAAP is a voluntary set of internal guidelines focused mainly on budgeting and managerial decision making.

c)

GAAP limits disclosure to protect proprietary information and reduces the need for public reporting.

d)

GAAP applies only to revenue recognition and does not address disclosure or comparability across companies.

38.

Discuss the principle known as full disclosure.

a)

Full disclosure requires managers to provide additional explanations and interpretations so users can understand events, transactions, and the circumstances behind reported numbers.

b)

Full disclosure limits notes to the financial statements to historical cost figures and prohibits management commentary.

c)

Full disclosure applies only to firms with audited statements and exempts unaudited companies from providing explanatory information.

d)

Full disclosure focuses on tax reporting and does not affect external financial statements.

39.

Which of the following ratios measures a firm's ability to meet its current debt obligations?

a)

Short-term solvency ratio

b)

Long-term solvency ratio

c)

Profitability ratio

d)

Activity ratio

e)

Equity ratio

40.

Which of the following ratios measures a firm's potential earnings?

a)

Short-term solvency ratio

b)

Long-term solvency ratio

c)

Profitability ratio

d)

Activity ratio

e)

Equity ratio

41.

Which of the following ratios evaluates management's use of resources?

a)

Short-term solvency ratio

b)

Long-term solvency ratio

c)

Activity ratio

d)

Profitability ratio

e)

Equity ratio

42.

What type of ratio measures a firm's ability to generate cash to meet current obligations by selling inventory and collecting revenue?

a)

Earnings per share

b)

Debt

c)

Revenue recognition

d)

Current

e)

Activity

43.

Which of the following indicates a firm will be able to pay its bills in a satisfactory manner?

a)

A debt to equity ratio of 1:1 or higher

b)

An activity ratio of 5:1 or less

c)

A net income to common shares outstanding ratio of 1:1 or less

d)

A current ratio of 2:1 or higher

e)

A profitability ratio of 5:1 or higher

44.

Why is the long-term solvency ratio important for stakeholders?

a)

It may indicate excessive inventories that cannot be sold.

b)

It indicates the earnings per share a stakeholder can expect to receive.

c)

It indicates the efficiency with which a firm uses resources.

d)

It indicates the firm's ability to generate cash.

e)

It may indicate collapse or takeover opportunities.

45.

When might high debt levels be a benefit to an organization?

a)

When trying to make otherwise unaffordable investments

b)

When trying to prevent a leveraged buyout

c)

When determining earnings per share on common stock

d)

When calculating the current ratio to determine short-term solvency

e)

When the firm's short run credit risk is strong

46.

What is the term for the amount a firm will pay shareholders based on the size of their investment in the company?

a)

Leverage per share

b)

Earnings per share

c)

Solvency return

d)

Current ration return

e)

Profitability ratio

47.

Which of the following is an indication of how efficiently a firm is using its resources?

a)

Earnings per share

b)

Debt

c)

Activity ratio

d)

Leverage

e)

Profitability

48.

Activity ratios allow investors to compare the relative efficiencies of similar companies.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

The most commonly used liquidity ratio is found by calculating current assets to current liabilities.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

A long-term ratio of 2:3 indicates that the company has more equity than debt by a half.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Major projects, such as corporate mergers or buyouts, can adversely affect the long-term solvency ratio of a company.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

What is a leveraged buyout?

a)

An acquisition primarily financed with significant debt taken on by the buyer to purchase another company

b)

A merger funded entirely with equity issued to existing shareholders

c)

A purchase of assets using internal cash flow only, with no borrowing

d)

A stock repurchase program aimed at increasing earnings per share

53.

Discuss earnings per share and how they are used.

a)

Earnings per share is net income divided by common shares outstanding; investors use it as an indicator of wealth potential and dividend capacity, often affecting buy/sell decisions and stock value.

b)

Earnings per share is total revenue divided by preferred shares outstanding and is used mainly to assess inventory turnover.

c)

Earnings per share is operating cash flow divided by total assets and is used to measure short-term solvency.

d)

Earnings per share is market capitalization divided by debt and is used to evaluate leverage.

54.

Which organization provides guidelines for ethical conduct for public accountants?

a)

AICPA

b)

SEC

c)

GAAP

d)

FASB

e)

CMA

55.

Why is ethics in accounting practices important?

a)

So stakeholders can seek a higher return on their investment

b)

Accounting methods depend on the veracity of their application

c)

To ensure consistency between firms

d)

To allow for uniformity in CPA standards and application

e)

To allow multinational firms to understand international investment

56.

What does the success of the AICPA code depend on?

a)

Understanding of the code by its users

b)

The exercising of moral judgement in all things

c)

The acceptance and use by the professionals governed by the code

d)

Lack of misleading statements that destroys public confidence in the accounting profession

e)

Supporting the public interest in accounting practices

57.

Demonstrating a commitment to the profession by respecting and maintaining the public trust and serving the public honorably is an example of what type of obligation under the code of Ethics for CPAs?

a)

Responsibilities as a professional

b)

Being objective and independent

c)

Maintaining technical and ethical standards through due care

d)

Serving the public interest

e)

Increasing profitability

58.

Under the Code of Ethics for CPAs, what should a CPA do in regards to their responsibilities as a professional?

a)

The CPA should demonstrate commitment to the profession by respecting and maintaining the public trust.

b)

The CPA should perform all professional activities with highest regards for profitability.

c)

The CPA should exercise "due care," through professional improvement.

d)

The CPA should identify conflicts of interest and the appearance of conflicts of interest in performing their professional responsibilities.

e)

The CPA should use a high level of morality that is sensitive to bringing credit to their profession.

59.

What can a CPA do to maintain technical and ethical standards through due care?

a)

Update competence through continuing accounting education and improving the quality of services.

b)

Abide by the meaning and intent of the Code when determining the type of services offered to clients.

c)

Be independent from clients when certifying that statements are true and genuine.

d)

Promote the public's confidence in the profession at every opportunity.

e)

Serve the public honorably.

60.

Unethical accounting methods have affected public confidence only in the company found to have committed accounting violations.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Ethical behavior requires that a CPA give precedence to public trust in the profession over the directions of her or his employer.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

One of the purposes of ethics in accounting is to maintain public confidence in business institutions, financial markets, and the products and services of the accounting profession.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

What are the six ethics-related areas enforced by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants?

a)

Responsibilities; public interest; integrity; objectivity and independence; due care; scope and nature of services

b)

Responsibilities; integrity; independence; profitability; due care; scope of practice

c)

Public interest; integrity; independence; due care; scope and nature of services; compliance with GAAP

d)

Responsibilities; public interest; integrity; independence; professional improvement; scope and nature of services

64.

Why is it important to have ethical codes in the field of accounting?

a)

To maintain public confidence and ensure accounting tools and methods are applied with veracity while discouraging misconduct

b)

To increase profitability by allowing accountants to select standards that favor their clients

c)

To enable firms to avoid regulatory oversight by relying on professional judgment alone

d)

To prioritize the interests of employers over public trust in the profession

65.

Which of the following statements BEST describes the need for global accounting standards?

a)

The complexity of the global market increases the risk of unethical accounting behavior by allowing accountants to choose which national GAAP standards are best for their clients.

b)

The rise of the global market increases the risk of money laundering and offshore accounting.

c)

The rise of the global market increases the risk of fraudulent business transactions across borders.

d)

The rise of the global market increases the risk of international dumping and profit-skimming.

e)

The rise of the global market increases the risk of the creation of dummy companies and accounts for the purpose of dumping toxic assets.

66.

Why should there be universal accounting procedures?

a)

To allow for the international promotion of CPA

b)

To allow stakeholders to interpret and compare financial statements accurately

c)

To ensure conformity to U.S. standards of ethics

d)

To ensure all multinational firms report information accurately

e)

To prevent fraudulent business operations

67.

Who is responsible for developing and gaining support for global accounting standards and gaining support and cooperation to implement those standards?

a)

Securities and Exchange Commission

b)

Sarbanes-Oxley

c)

International Accounting Standards Board

d)

Financial Accounting Standards Board

e)

Institute of Management Accountants

68.

How does the lack of global accounting standards affect U.S.-based companies?

a)

Unethical U.S. companies will use whichever standard creates the most benefit for them.

b)

Using standards in countries where they do business allows for greater opportunity in the international market.

c)

Reporting performance in a variety of consolidated statements for global affiliates will minimize understanding, thereby minimizing attempted leveraged buyouts.

d)

There may be inconsistent and conflicting information that creates confusion for stakeholders.

e)

Assets can be values according to one standard, revenue and debt according to other standards, in an overall goal of presenting positive performance levels.

69.

When valuing assets, the U.S. GAAP allows an asset to be decreased if its value decreases, but cannot be increased if the value increases later. What is the IASB standard for this activity?

a)

The value of the asset must remain as initially recorded.

b)

The value of the asset must be increased annually.

c)

The value of the asset can be averaged over time.

d)

The value of the asset can be increased to reflect the increased market value.

e)

The value of the asset must remain the same for four accounting cycles, then can be changed to reflect current market value.

70.

In which accounting standard did the FASB and the IASB jointly propose new standards designed to improve the comparability of disclosures in financial statements?

a)

In devaluing financial assets

b)

In revenue recognition

c)

In valuing assets

d)

In expected loss modeling

e)

In fair value discloser

71.

In general, the accounting standards from the IASB and from U.S. GAAP align nearly perfectly.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

The International Accounting Standards Board is the prominent international organization for global accounting standards.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

What is the International Accounting Standards Board?

a)

An independent nonprofit established in 2001 in London that develops global accounting standards and promotes their implementation.

b)

A U.S. federal agency that enforces GAAP domestically.

c)

A private auditing firm network that certifies IFRS compliance.

d)

A committee within the SEC that sets stock exchange rules.

74.

Why are efforts to standardize global accounting practices important?

a)

They reduce inconsistencies across countries, improve comparability of financial statements, and protect investors in a global economy.

b)

They eliminate the need for consolidated reporting by multinational companies.

c)

They allow companies to report larger balance sheet figures under U.S. GAAP.

d)

They ensure every country adopts U.S. GAAP immediately.

75.

What is the fair value disclosure standard being jointly developed by the FASB and the IASB intended to accomplish?

a)

Improve comparability of fair value disclosures by defining fair value consistently for assets, liabilities, and equity items and requiring disclosure of measurement techniques and inputs.

b)

Eliminate fair value reporting from financial statements entirely.

c)

Require that only local GAAP determine fair value without disclosure.

d)

Limit fair value reporting to tangible assets and exclude liabilities.

76.

Which of the following banking instruments has a fixed term?

a)

Demand deposits

b)

Time deposits

c)

Money market mutual funds

d)

Credit card accounts

e)

Savings accounts

77.

Which of the following BEST describes the portability characteristic of money?

a)

If it wears out, it can be replaced.

b)

Units of money can be matched with the value of goods.

c)

It can be exchanged across national borders.

d)

Units of money allow people to measure the relative value of goods and services.

e)

It is light and easy to handle.

78.

Which of the following is a consequence of the divisibility characteristic of money?

a)

Units of money do not expire after a certain time limit.

b)

Units of money can be accurately matched with the value of goods.

c)

Units of money are easily carried.

d)

Units of money have relatively stable value.

e)

Units of money of different nations are easily converted to other units of money.

79.

Which of the following affects the value of money?

a)

How much currency is in circulation

b)

How many units the currency can be divided into

c)

How portable the form of currency is

d)

How durable the form of currency is

e)

How much currency has been saved

80.

Which of the following BEST describes the durability characteristic of money?

a)

Units of money do not expire after a certain time limit.

b)

Units of money can be matched with the value of goods.

c)

Units of money allow people to measure the relative value of goods and services.

d)

Units of money of different nations are easily converted to other units of money.

e)

Units of money have lasting value.

81.

Which of the following BEST describes the stability characteristic of money?

a)

Units of money do not expire after a certain time limit.

b)

Units of money of different nations are easily converted to other units of money.

c)

Units of money can be matched with the value of goods.

d)

Units of money allow people to measure the relative value of goods and services.

e)

Units of money have relatively constant value.

82.

Money frees society from a system of barter. In doing so, money is performing which of the following functions?

a)

Store of value

b)

Measure of worth

c)

Unit of account

d)

Determination factor

e)

Medium of exchange

83.

Which of the following is NOT part of the M-1 supply?

a)

Currency at hand

b)

Currency amount of written checks

c)

Currency available through a debit card

d)

Currency in checking accounts

e)

Currency value of time deposits

84.

Which of the following is NOT part of the M-2 money supply?

a)

Certificates of deposit

b)

Time deposits

c)

Money market mutual funds

d)

Savings account

e)

Credit card account

85.

What measure of the money supply is most often used by businesses and governments for economic planning?

a)

M-2

b)

Currency

c)

Demand deposits

d)

Liquidity

e)

M-1

86.

Why are credit cards excluded from the measure of the nation's money supply?

a)

Because debt continues to accrue as the credit card is used

b)

Because money is not moved until the debt is paid

c)

Because there are few spending controls on credit cards

d)

Because credit cards represent a convenience, not a service

e)

Because only the interest paid on the credit card is considered liquid money

87.

Any object can serve as money if it is portable, divisible, durable, and stable.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

The overall value of the U.S. M-2 has grown considerably since 1979 due primarily to the increased use of credit cards and debit cards.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

The divisibility characteristic of money is illustrated by a financial company's ability to divide its monetary assets among several investments.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

The reason why a savings account is not considered a component of the M-1 money supply is that it bears interest.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

A check is an order to a bank to withdraw funds at any time.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

What are the components of the M-1 money supply?

a)

Currency (cash), checks, and checking accounts (demand deposits)

b)

Time deposits, savings accounts, and money market mutual funds

c)

Credit cards, mortgages, and savings bonds

d)

Securities, mutual funds, and certificates of deposit

93.

What are the components of the M-2 money supply?

a)

Everything in M-1 plus time deposits, savings accounts, and money market mutual funds

b)

Only currency and demand deposits

c)

Credit cards and mortgages

d)

Gold reserves and foreign exchange holdings

94.

Why are savings accounts not considered a component of M-1, whereas checking accounts are?

a)

Savings deposits are not immediately available for spending, while checking deposits are immediately usable via checks

b)

Savings accounts are not insured, while checking accounts are insured

c)

Savings accounts lack interest, while checking accounts pay high interest

d)

Savings deposits circulate as currency, while checking deposits do not

95.

Which of the three functions of money does a time deposit account MOST exemplify?

a)

Medium of exchange

b)

Measure of worth (unit of account)

c)

Store of value

96.

Which of the following financial institutions earn profits from loans taken from the funds in each of its depositors' accounts?

a)

Securities investment firms

b)

Pension funds

c)

Finance companies

d)

Commercial banks

e)

Nondeposit institutions

97.

Which of the following financial institutions are considered to be owned by their depositors?

a)

Commercial banks and savings and loan associations

b)

Savings and loan associations and mutual savings banks

c)

Mutual savings banks and credit unions

d)

Credit unions and pension funds

e)

Pension funds and savings institutions

98.

Which of the following terms represents a promise by the bank to pay a firm on behalf of another firm, if specified conditions are met?

a)

Banker's acceptance

b)

Bank trust service

c)

Certified check

d)

Letter of credit

e)

Currency exchange agreement

99.

Which of the following reasons is the primary motivator for a commercial bank to acquire new depositors?

a)

A new deposit account will make more funds available to pay the interest on other deposit accounts.

b)

A new deposit account will make more funds available to pay the bank's employees.

c)

A new deposit account will make more funds available to give out in loans.

d)

A new deposit account will make more funds available to give out in dividends to its investors.

e)

A new deposit account will make more funds available to facilitate brokerage transactions.

100.

Which of the following represents a pool of managed funds that provide retirement income for members?

a)

Insurance companies

b)

Finance companies

c)

Securities investment dealers

d)

Nondeposit institutions

e)

Pension funds

101.

Which type of pension trust service includes tax-deferred funds that wage earners and their spouses can use to supplement their retirement funds?

a)

Trust services

b)

Securities investment deals

c)

Pension funds

d)

Individual retirement accounts (IRAs)

e)

Savings

102.

What types of firms lend to businesses needing capital or long-term funds?

a)

Insurance companies

b)

Pension and trust services

c)

Commercial finance companies

d)

Pension funds

e)

Securities investment dealers