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WorksheetsASNT SET-5
Total questions: 121
Worksheet time: 2hrs 1mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A fracture formed during solidification resulting from contraction is called:
a)
A) Burst
b)
B) Shrinkage crack in metal during restrained cooling
c)
C) Hot shortness defect
d)
D) Hot tears
2.
Which of the following are true?
a)
A) All defects are discontinuities.
b)
B) All discontinuities are defects.
c)
C) Rejectable defects are called discontinuities.
d)
D) Acceptable discontinuities are called defects.
3.
In metal assemblies, cracks emanating from fastener holes are:
a)
A) Usually easy to detect nondestructively.
b)
B) Of minor consequence because they seldom show.
c)
C) Difficult to detect nondestructively and usually require removal.
d)
D) Only present in structures subjected to high static loads.
4.
Which defect is more likely to occur when forging is continued after the metal cools below forging temperature?
a)
A) Cold shuts
b)
B) Forging bursts
c)
C) Oxidation
d)
D) Seams
5.
During welding, deviation of the arc from the normal path caused by residual magnetism is called:
a)
A) Paramagnetism
b)
B) Diamagnetic wandering
c)
C) Arcing
d)
D) Arc blow
6.
Which of the following defects occur only in castings?
a)
A) Inclusions
b)
B) Cold shut
c)
C) Cracks
d)
D) Porosity
7.
Which discontinuities are typical of a single-sided joint when backside access is not available?
a)
A) Porosity
b)
B) Tungsten inclusion
c)
C) Slag
d)
D) Incomplete fusion and burn through
8.
Proper heat treatment can:
a)
A) Restore original mechanical properties after cold working
b)
B) Achieve desired mechanical properties
c)
C) Achieve dimensional stability in service
d)
D) All of the above
9.
Steels are vacuum treated to:
a)
A) Improve cleanliness
b)
B) Reduce dissolved gases
c)
C) Both A & B
d)
D) None of the above
10.
Cheapest alloying element for increasing strength and hardness of steel is:
a)
A) Manganese
b)
B) Carbon
c)
C) Nickel
d)
D) Chromium
11.
A bar that is 25 cm long, 4 cm wide, and 2 cm thick is subjected to a tensile load of 20,000 kg along its length. The tensile stress within the bar is:
a)
A) 25 kg/cm²
b)
B) 800 kg/cm²
c)
C) 25 kg/mm²
d)
D) 100 kg/cm³
12.
Devices that show a magnified profile image of a workpiece on a frosted glass screen are called:
a)
A) Optical micrometer
b)
B) Optical flats
c)
C) Optical gauges
d)
D) Profile projectors
13.
Where do forging laps most commonly occur?
a)
A) The upper die part of the forging at the parting plane
b)
B) The lower die part of the forging in the forging dies
c)
C) The bottom of the die
d)
D) At points on the surface where forging hammer blows overlap
14.
In carbon steel, increasing carbon content from 0.2% to 0.4% will result in:
a)
A) Improved tensile strength
b)
B) Improved toughness
c)
C) Improved weldability
d)
D) All of the above
15.
Which of the following processes is carried out at the lowest temperature?
a)
A) Brazing
b)
B) Soldering
c)
C) Shielded metal arc welding
d)
D) Electron beam welding
16.
The welding process most frequently carried out in a vacuum chamber is:
a)
A) Plasma arc welding
b)
B) Electron beam welding
c)
C) Electroslag welding
d)
D) Friction welding
17.
Powder metallurgy provides two unique advantages in processing metals. One is the ability to produce shapes from refractory metals difficult to melt. The other is:
a)
A) Economical production of metals with extremely low melting temperatures
b)
B) Production of porous shapes by lighter pressing or lower sintering
c)
C) Produce metals easily machined by electrochemical processes
d)
D) Produce metals that are corrosion resistant
18.
Which of the following gases are most frequently used as shielding to provide an inert atmosphere in the vicinity of the weld?
a)
A) Argon, helium, and carbon dioxide
b)
B) Neon, tritium, and helium
c)
C) Sulphur dioxide, argon, and oxygen
d)
D) Argon, nitrogen, and hydrogen
19.
Which welding process uses a non-consumable electrode with the arc maintained in an inert gas atmosphere?
a)
A) Gas Tungsten Arc Welding
b)
B) Submerged Arc Welding
c)
C) Gas Metal Arc Welding
d)
D) Electro slag welding
20.
High-strength, low-density, corrosion-resistant metal alloy important in aircraft, marine, and chemical processing industries is:
a)
A) Tungsten
b)
B) Zinc
c)
C) Titanium
d)
D) Magnesium
21.
Monel and Inconel are:
a)
A) Nickel alloys
b)
B) Steel alloys
c)
C) Magnesium alloys
d)
D) Aluminum alloys
22.
Brass and bronze are alloys of zinc, tin, and a large percentage of:
a)
A) Beryllium
b)
B) Copper
c)
C) Lead
d)
D) Nickel
23.
Corrosion-resistant steels having relatively high percentages of nickel and chromium are called:
a)
A) Beryllium
b)
B) Low alloy steels
c)
C) Stainless steels
d)
D) Nonferrous steels
24.
The terms “body-centered cubic”, “face-centered cubic”, and “hexagonal close packed” all refer to the:
a)
A) Different size grains that can exist at the same time in a metallic structure
b)
B) Sequence of crystalline growth in mild steel
c)
C) Lattice structure that makes up unit cells in a solid metallic structure
d)
D) Change in metallic structure during plastic deformation
25.
Many metals exhibit an increase in strength caused by plastic flow beyond the elastic limit. This effect is called:
a)
A) Twinning
b)
B) Plastic deformation
c)
C) Work hardening
d)
D) Recrystallization
26.
A welding process that is most frequently carried out in a vacuum chamber is:
a)
A) Plasma arc welding
b)
B) Electron-beam welding
c)
C) Electro slag welding
d)
D) Friction welding
27.
Powder metallurgy provides two unique advantages in metals processing. One is the capability to produce shapes and objects of refractory metals difficult or impractical to melt. The other is:
a)
A) Economical production of metals with extremely low melting temperatures
b)
B) Produce metal shapes with controlled porosity
c)
C) Produce metals that can be easily machined by electrochemical processes
d)
D) Produce metals that are corrosion resistant
28.
The term used to describe a discontinuity in a casting that occurs when molten metal interfaces with already solidified metal with failure to fuse at the interface is:
a)
A) Hot tear
b)
B) Cold shut
c)
C) Lack of fusion
d)
D) Segregation
29.
Large voids or porosity in a casting result from:
a)
A) Turbulent flow of molten metal during pouring
b)
B) Alloy element segregation
c)
C) Molten metal boiling because of superheat
d)
D) Gas evolution before and during solidification
30.
Which of the following is true regarding solidification of molten metal in a casting mold?
a)
A) The metal cools at a constant rate, thus providing fine equiaxed grains throughout.
b)
B) Cooling takes place in phases having different rates that produce different types of grain structure in different sections of the casting.
c)
C) Solidification occurs at a constant rate, beginning at the interior and progressing outward.
d)
D) Thick sections cool more rapidly than thin sections and consist mostly of fine equiaxed grains.
31.
Based on the ratio of strength to weight:
a)
A) No plastic materials can compare with metals.
b)
B) Some plastics, including nylon, may have strengths greater than some steels.
c)
C) Plastics, as a group, are superior in strength to most ferrous metals.
d)
D) None of the above are true.
32.
The reduction of iron by mixing with coke, limestone, and oxygen for combustion of coke is accomplished in:
a)
A) A blast furnace
b)
B) An open-hearth furnace
c)
C) A Bessemer converter
d)
D) A basic oxygen furnace
33.
Annealing is usually performed to:
a)
A) Decrease hardness
b)
B) Increase ductility
c)
C) Relieve stress
d)
D) all
34.
Which of the following is true relative to the comparison of properties of aluminum-based alloys and iron-based alloys?
a)
A) Iron has lower melting point than aluminum.
b)
B) Iron can exist in several different crystalline structures, and its properties can be controlled by heat treatment.
c)
C) Iron is preferred for load-carrying designs, but should not be used for deformation-type manufacturing processes.
d)
D) All of the above.
35.
Even at the early stages of product planning, nondestructive testing should be considered because:
a)
A) It may be required by codes and specifications.
b)
B) The design of the part should permit easy access to critical areas for inspection.
c)
C) The material selected should be compatible with an NDT technique.
d)
D) All of the above.
36.
An important basis for the success of fracture control design procedures is:
a)
A) That all flaws are detected by NDT before service.
b)
B) Use of a large factor of safety.
c)
C) Use of assumed material strength values.
d)
D) Assurance that unexpected flaws of critical size are not present.
37.
In cleaning processes, vapour degreasing is NOT permitted for which of the following metals?
a)
A) Steel after heat treatment
b)
B) Stainless steel materials
c)
C) Titanium
d)
D) Aluminum alloy
38.
Preferential cooling in casting can be achieved using:
a)
A) Chaplets
b)
B) Chills
c)
C) Core
d)
D) None of the above
39.
A candidate has spent 20% in RT for 3 months and the remaining time in PT. How much time can he claim in RT?
a)
A) Zero (0) months
b)
B) 3 months
c)
C) 0.6 months
d)
D) None of the above
40.
In welding, deep penetration can occur due to:
a)
A) Long arc length
b)
B) Slow speed
c)
C) Short arc length
d)
D) B & C
41.
Cold work is done below:
a)
A) Austenitization
b)
B) Recrystallization
c)
C) Critical temperature
d)
D) Yield point
42.
Creep is:
a)
A) Deformation at elevated temperature & constant load below yield point
b)
B) Deformation at elevated temperature & constant load above yield point
c)
C) Deformation at ambient temperature & constant load below yield point
d)
D) Deformation at ambient temperature & constant load above yield point
43.
Discontinuities can propagate and become defects:
a)
A) All discontinuities are defects
b)
B) All defects will lead to failure; discontinuities can be harmless
c)
C) Discontinuities are external boundaries; defects are internal flaws
d)
D) None of the above
44.
NFPA 70E states the “flash hazard” distance for high-energy systems is:
a)
A) 1 foot
b)
B) 20 feet
c)
C) 4 meters
d)
D) 3 feet
45.
The main advantage of thermography over contact temperature methods is:
a)
A) It is fast and safe
b)
B) It is non-contact and provides instantaneous full-field temperature view
c)
C) It can be used for HV voltage lines
d)
D) Less wear and tear
46.
In neutron radiography, for a given material, attenuation:
a)
A) Varies directly with thickness
b)
B) Is inversely proportional to thickness
c)
C) Varies exponentially with thickness
d)
D) Is inversely proportional to thickness squared
47.
Neutron radiography is an excellent tool for determining:
a)
A) Coating thickness of aluminum oxide
b)
B) Voids in thick steel castings
c)
C) Integrity of thin plastic material within a lead housing
d)
D) Voids in thick plastic sections
48.
A one-inch specimen is radiographed using a source of 1/8″ diameter and 25″ SFD. Which change improves image quality?
a)
A) Increase source size from 1/8″ to 1/6″
b)
B) Increase the SFD to 37 inches
c)
C) Increase object-to-film distance to 2″
d)
D) Decrease SFD to 19 inches
49.
Detection of AE (Acoustic Emission) signal depends on:
a)
A) Duration exceeding instrument dead time
b)
B) Amplitude exceeding the threshold
c)
C) Rise time exceeding lockout time
d)
D) Frequency spectrum exceeding system bandwidth
50.
One of the limitations of AE is:
a)
A) Only homogeneous solids are tested.
b)
B) Useful only on metallic structures.
c)
C) Stressing is required.
d)
D) Whole object is required to be scanned.
51.
5.669 × 10⁻⁸ W/m² is the value for:
a)
A) Stefan-Boltzmann constant
b)
B) Wien’s constant
c)
C) Coefficient of cooling
d)
D) k value for aluminium oxide
52.
Material properties such as specific heat, density, thermal conductivity, thermal…
a)
A) Conduction
b)
B) Convection
c)
C) Radiation
d)
D) Conduction and convection
53.
The black body radiation is measured in:
a)
A) Lux
b)
B) Roentgen
c)
C) Degree Kelvin
d)
D) Foot candle
54.
Infrared measurements for NDT are normally carried out in the wavelength region:
a)
A) 2–5.6 microns
b)
B) 8–14 microns
c)
C) 16–32 microns
d)
D) A & C above
55.
The total radiant power emitted by a blackbody can be obtained from:
a)
A) Planck’s law
b)
B) Stefan-Boltzmann law
c)
C) Wien’s law
d)
D) None of the above
56.
Mass spectrometers are ideally suited to the leak testing of:
a)
A) Vacuum systems
b)
B) Pipe lines
c)
C) Large pressure vessels
d)
D) Pumps
57.
Leak testing & AE are different from other NDT methods by using:
a)
A) Probe or sensor
b)
B) Differential pressure gauge
c)
C) Meter
d)
D) CRT
58.
The temperature at which a blackbody must be operated so that its output matches the colour of a selective radiator is called:
a)
A) Blackbody temperature
b)
B) Correlated temperature
c)
C) Selective temperature
d)
D) Color temperature
59.
Hypermetropia is otherwise known as:
a)
A) Short sight
b)
B) Long sight
c)
C) Normal sight
d)
D) Magnification sight
60.
Which of the following is not an advantage of the water-washable fluorescent P.T. process?
a)
A) Good on rough surface
b)
B) Good on threaded parts
c)
C) Not affected by acids or chromates
d)
D) Good for large number of small parts
61.
A 15 mm stainless steel plate welded by GTAW shows an indication at the weld end. The bead was concave and the indication formed a star-shaped pattern. The defect is:
a)
A) Cracks due to impure argon gas
b)
B) HAZ cracks
c)
C) Crater cracks
d)
D) Tungsten inclusions
62.
Based on the principle of liquid penetrant inspection, which material is least suitable for this method?
a)
A) Powder metallurgy parts
b)
B) Aluminum castings
c)
C) Parts machined from copper bars
d)
D) Steel forgings
63.
A deep crack in PT will frequently appear as a:
a)
A) Small tight dotted indication
b)
B) Rounded indications
c)
C) Fine linear indication
d)
D) Faint intermittent line
64.
Among the following, which is not applicable to post-emulsifier penetrant systems?
a)
A) It has high sensitivity to wide & shallow cracks
b)
B) Used on smooth surface
c)
C) Can be used on rough surface
d)
D) None of the above
65.
The most common method for magnetic particle examination of welds is:
a)
A) Head shot method
b)
B) Use of oil
c)
C) Use of prods in conjunction with dry powder
d)
D) Use of a central conductor
66.
For the highest sensitivity in the continuous method of MT, which technique should be used?
a)
A) Apply current while part is immersed in wet ink, remove while current flows
b)
B) Apply current whilst part is immersed in wet ink
c)
C) Stop current while removing
d)
D) All the above give the same sensitivity
67.
Magnetic particle inspection is superior to liquid penetrant when:
a)
A) Inspecting corroded surfaces
b)
B) The surface is anodized
c)
C) The parts are painted
d)
D) A & C above
68.
A residual magnetic field is always:
a)
A) Stronger than the magnetizing field
b)
B) Weaker than the magnetizing field
c)
C) Equal to the magnetizing field
d)
D) None of the above
69.
For circular magnetization, what factors are considered?
a)
A) L/D
b)
B) Diameter
c)
C) Number of turns
d)
D) Length
70.
A test specimen used as a basis for calibrating test equipment or for comparison when evaluating test results is referred to as a:
a)
A) Null-balancer
b)
B) Phase shifter
c)
C) Reference standard
d)
D) High pass filter
71.
When testing by eddy current, discontinuities are most easily detected when eddy currents are:
a)
A) Coplanar with the major plane of the discontinuity
b)
B) Perpendicular to the major plane of the discontinuity
c)
C) Parallel to the major plane of the discontinuity
d)
D) 90° out of phase with the coil current
72.
Best method to inspect an aluminum aircraft wing for cracks from fastener holes:
a)
A) RT
b)
B) UT with 45° & 60° probes
c)
C) ET with pancake probe
d)
D) LT with helium
73.
Scattered radiation in radiography results in:
a)
A) No change in exposure time
b)
B) Increase in exposure time
c)
C) Reduced image quality
d)
D) Improved image quality
74.
For a given thickness, the most effective protection from X or gamma radiation is:
a)
A) Bricks
b)
B) Concrete
c)
C) Barium plaster
d)
D) Lead
75.
Which of the following particles or rays have the highest ionizing effect in air?
a)
A) Alpha particles
b)
B) Beta particles
c)
C) Neutrons
d)
D) Gamma and X-rays
76.
In film radiography, penetrameters are usually placed:
a)
A) Between intensifying screen and film
b)
B) On the source side of the test object
c)
C) On the film side of the test object
d)
D) Between operator and the radiation source
77.
In a betatron, acceleration of electrons into a circular path is achieved by:
a)
A) A rotating magnetic field
b)
B) Traveling wave guides
c)
C) The Villard doubling circuit
d)
D) Venturi tubes
78.
Resolution is the ability to see which of the following?
a)
A) The smallest flaw possible
b)
B) Two flaws adjacent as one
c)
C) Two flaws adjacent as separate flaws
d)
D) A large flaw over 3 meters away
79.
In SI units, the unit used to measure radiation absorption by humans is:
a)
A) Gray
b)
B) Rem
c)
C) Roentgen
d)
D) Becquerel
80.
In UT same area FBH at different depth with straight beam inspection are used for:
a)
A) Reference line
b)
B) Vertical linearity
c)
C) Resolution
d)
D) Horizontal linearity
81.
Which of the following is not within the scope of activities of a Level II individual?
a)
A) Calibrate equipment
b)
B) Prepare written instructions
c)
C) Establish techniques
d)
D) Provide training
82.
As per CP-189, how can one receive credit for training hours?
a)
A) The individual shall pass final examination
b)
B) Verifying attendance sheet of training
c)
C) By passing mock-up examination
d)
D) None of the above
83.
Which cannot be a valid reason for termination of certification of NDT Level-II?
a)
A) Promotion to a higher post
b)
B) Completion of three years after initial certification
c)
C) Termination of service
d)
D) Physical disability affecting NDT performance
84.
Who conducts the practical examination for Level-III?
a)
A) Employer
b)
B) Outside NDT Level-III
c)
C) QC Manager
d)
D) Employer’s representative with ASNT Level III in method
85.
Which statement is not correct as per CP-189?
a)
A) Level III must be well-versed with all NDT methods
b)
B) Level III must have practical fabrication & technology background
c)
C) Level III should assist in establishing acceptance criteria
d)
D) All of the above
86.
In CP-189 (2020), who approves the company’s written procedure for qualification & certification of NDT personnel?
a)
A) Employer
b)
B) Quality Control Manager
c)
C) ASNT
d)
D) Company designated NDT Level III
87.
In CP-189 (2020), the minimum number of check-points required in a Level I practical exam is:
a)
A) 5
b)
B) 10
c)
C) 15
d)
D) The employer certification procedure
88.
With regard to training of NDT personnel, the employer:
a)
A) Must conduct all training on premises
b)
B) May engage an outside service who must train on employer premises
c)
C) Should not conduct the training
d)
D) May engage an outside service but remains responsible for certification
89.
Calibration instrument is defined as:
a)
A) The comparison/adjustment of an instrument to known reference
b)
B) Ensure manufacturer provides features
c)
C) Checking reproducibility of equipment
d)
D) None of the above
90.
Minimum requirement for doing NDT job without supervision is:
a)
A) Level I
b)
B) Level II
c)
C) Designated Level III
d)
D) Level I or Level II
91.
The employer is responsible for certification of:
a)
A) Level I and Level II
b)
B) Level III only
c)
C) Outside services
d)
D) All levels of NDT personnel
92.
According to SNT-TC-1A, which is not true for a Level III?
a)
A) Shall assist in establishing acceptance criteria
b)
B) Must train and examine Level I and II
c)
C) Should be familiar with other commonly used NDT methods
d)
D) Shall be capable of establishing techniques and selection of test methods
93.
Responsibility of each certification level for determining acceptability shall:
a)
A) Be detailed in employer's written practice in all circumstances
b)
B) Be known to Level III
c)
C) Be verbally made known to third party inspector
d)
D) Be known to Level II
94.
ASNT Policy G-14 informs users that certification is in accordance with employer written practice and:
a)
A) Usage of ASNT name, acronym, or logo in certificates
b)
B) Code of ethics of ASNT NDT Level III
c)
C) Guidance of NDT Personnel Training and Certification
d)
D) Minimum requirements of employer certification procedure
95.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
A) ASNT has provided Level III certification exams since late 1960s
b)
B) SNT-TC-1A was first published in late 1960s
c)
C) SNT-TC-1A requires Level III personnel to be certified by ASNT
d)
D) SNT-TC-1A was developed to satisfy ASME needs
96.
For Level III qualification, without required education, an individual must have minimum years.
a)
A) 3 years
b)
B) 2 years
c)
C) 4 years
d)
D) None of the above
97.
Employer’s written practice must include:
a)
A) Training requirements
b)
B) Examination requirements
c)
C) Certification requirements
d)
D) All of the above
98.
For direct qualification to Level II with no time at Level I, recommended experience consists of:
a)
A) Time recommended for Level I
b)
B) Time recommended for Level II
c)
C) Sum of times for Level I + Level II
d)
D) Not less than 6 months
99.
Use of SNT-TC-1A is mandatory when:
a)
A) The material being tested is for a U.S. Air Force contract.
b)
B) The material being tested is for a U.S. Navy contract.
c)
C) It has been specified by the customer.
d)
D) The material being tested is for a U.S. Army contract requiring certification of NDT personnel.
100.
Which of the following is true about the SNT-TC-1A Interpretation Panel?
a)
A) Will be helpful in solving disputes between customer and supplier.
b)
B) Will be helpful in establishing the acceptance standard for a product.
c)
C) To get the concurrence of any company’s written practice.
d)
D) Will clarify the questions relating to the document.
101.
Which of the following statements is true concerning re-certification?
a)
A) Re-certification can be accomplished only by re-examination at least once every three years.
b)
B) Re-certification can be based upon evidence of continuing satisfactory performance.
c)
C) Once certified to a particular level, certification can only be terminated if the certified individual leaves the employer.
d)
D) Re-examination of a certified individual can be accomplished only after three years at a particular level.
102.
During certification of a candidate, you find that the candidate has lack of knowledge in one technique. What is your next step as per SNT-TC-1A?
a)
A) Additional training to impart knowledge and skill necessary for qualification.
b)
B) Should work with a certified individual.
c)
C) Must not work in production line.
d)
D) Certification is not issued.
103.
The employer has deemed an individual’s conduct to be unethical. His certification shall be:
a)
A) Revoked.
b)
B) Suspended.
c)
C) Terminated.
d)
D) Expired.
104.
A person qualified in a four-year Business Management Administration program wants NDT Level III certification. This degree is considered as:
a)
A) High school eligibility.
b)
B) Four-year equivalent science degree eligibility.
c)
C) Three-year equivalent science degree eligibility.
d)
D) Four-year equivalent engineering degree eligibility.
105.
When employer uses the ASNT name, acronym, or logo in certificates or wallet cards, the employer shall follow the requirement of?
a)
A) ASNT CP-01 2020
b)
B) ASNT CP-105 2020
c)
C) ASNT Policy G-14
d)
D) SNT-TC-1A 2020
106.
For acquiring film interpretation:
a)
A) He should have seen 1000 radiographs
b)
B) He should have reviewed minimum 1000 radiographs
c)
C) The number of radiographs shall be addressed in the employer’s certification procedure
d)
D) He should have evaluated minimum 500 radiographs
107.
A Level II leaves company A on 12/02/2019 and joins company B on 21/09/2019. He was certified Level II on 15/05/2018.
a)
A) He can work as Level II in the new concern
b)
B) He has to write and pass the exam
c)
C) He has to pass the exam and receive additional training
d)
D) He has to pass the exam and receive additional training decided by Level III new employer
108.
ASTM E1316 is to standardize:
a)
A) Terminology across all NDT methods
b)
B) Recommended practices for qualification of NDT personnel
c)
C) Minimum requirements for qualification of NDT personnel
d)
D) Topical outlines for qualification of NDT personnel
109.
A candidate for re-examination must wait a minimum of:
a)
A) 7 days
b)
B) 20 days
c)
C) 30 days
d)
D) Receive additional training as per Level III
110.
When carrying out practical examination at NDT Level III, how many checkpoints are necessary?
a)
A) 1
b)
B) 5
c)
C) 10
d)
D) 15
111.
Who has to establish the written practice?
a)
A) Employer
b)
B) Level III
c)
C) Jurisdictional code
d)
D) ASME Standard
112.
As per CP-189 (2020), how many Level II methods are included?
a)
A) 9
b)
B) 11
c)
C) 12
d)
D) 16
113.
As per SNT-TC-1A (2020), NDT Level I can be trained by:
a)
A) ASNT Level II
b)
B) Any Level III
c)
C) ACCP Level II
d)
D) All
114.
In the practical examination, to get certified:
a)
A) Candidate should detect all discontinuities in the test sample
b)
B) Candidate should detect at least 80 discontinuities specified by Level III
c)
C) Candidate should detect all discontinuities specified by Employer
d)
D) Candidate should detect at least 80 discontinuities in the test sample
115.
Which NDT Levels are qualified to set up and calibrate equipment and interpret/evaluate results?
a)
A) Level I
b)
B) Level II
c)
C) Level III
d)
D) Level II and Level III
116.
A training program for qualification and certification should include:
a)
A) Organized training on principles/practices of the method
b)
B) Training applicable to practices/products tested
c)
C) Sufficient examination to ensure comprehension
d)
D) All of the above
117.
Percentage of designated defects correctly classified shall be equal to or more than:
a)
A) 40
b)
B) 60
c)
C) 80
d)
D) 100
118.
Which Level II certification has the lowest number of minimum specific questions?
a)
A) BLT
b)
B) Neutron Radiography Testing
c)
C) UT A-Scan Thickness Gauging
d)
D) None
119.
Magnetic Flux Leakage (MFL) is:
a)
A) Separate method
b)
B) Limited technique in Electromagnetic Testing
c)
C) Limited technique in Magnetic Particle Testing
d)
D) None
120.
How many NDT methods are specified in SNT-TC-1A (2020)?
a)
A) 10
b)
B) 11
c)
C) 12
d)
D) 16
121.
For qualification, which of the following should be documented?
a)
A) Skill
b)
B) Knowledge
c)
C) Training
d)
D) All
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