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Worksheets

MOD 8 Overview

Total questions: 169

Worksheet time: 46hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many channels are present in DS3/T3, and what is the maximum data rate?

a)

44.736/672

b)

6.312/40,567

c)

430/39,300

d)

650/44,730

2.

What is the maximum data rate for DS2/T2?

a)

1.544 Mbps

b)

64 kbps

c)

6.312 Mbps

d)

274.176 Mbps

3.

What is the max data rate for CAT 5e?

a)

1 Gbps

b)

25 Gbps

c)

10 Gbps

d)

40 Gbps

4.

What is the bandwidth of a CAT 5e cable?

a)

20 Mhz

b)

100 Mhz

c)

250 Mhz

d)

500 Mhz

5.

Kbps stands for?

a)

Kilohertz per second 

b)

Kilobits per minute 

c)

Kilobytes per second 

d)

Kilobits per second 

6.

___ ensure enough bandwidth is set aside for a specific date and time of the day on a priority basis

a)

Time-of day restrictions 

b)

Demand assigned protocols 

c)

Convention allocations 

d)

Dynamic bandwidth settings 

7.

Twisted pair is an example of a ____ transmission media

a)

Shielded

b)

Unbalanced 

c)

Optical 

d)

Balanced 

8.

Coax cable is one of the most ___ types of cabling you will see in the RF career field

a)

Popular

b)

Experimental

c)

Rare

d)

Obsolete

9.

What type of bandwidth allocation wastes bandwidth when users are inactive?

a)

Dynamic

b)

Demand Assigned

c)

Conventional

d)

Time-of-Day

10.

Network bandwidth management does not consider cables, connectors, or protocols

a)
True
b)
False
11.

What is the fastest type of transmission media

a)

fiber

b)

 coax

c)

twisted pair

d)

wireless

12.

Fiber optics is immune to EMI

a)
True
b)
False
13.

Satellite and Troposcatter (TROPO) transmissions are both ______ wireless

a)

Omnidirectional

b)

Directional

c)

Omnidirectional and directional

d)

Line of site

14.

Conventional bandwidth allocation is the most predictable but least efficient method

a)
True
b)
False
15.

Biggest limitation of Demand Assigned Bandwidth?

a)

 it has fixed channels

b)

 Users always get the maximum bandwidth

c)

 Available bandwidth may not be enough for the next user.

d)

It only works with fiber optic cables.

16.

Dynamic bandwidth allocation becomes active when…

a)

One user exceeds their bandwidth

b)

Combined data rates exceed the available system bandwidth

c)

The system is offline.

d)

All cables are balanced

17.

What organization defines communication standards such as EIA- 232 and EIA-530

a)

Nasa

b)

DoD

c)

IEEE

d)

Electronics Industries Association (EIA) 

18.

EIA-232C allows up to 50 ft at what maximum data rate?

a)

2 Mbps

b)

56 Kbps

c)

9.6 Kbps

d)

100 Mbps

19.

What is the maximum direct-wire distance for EIA-232C at 56 Kbps

a)

100 Feet

b)

300 Feet

c)

5,000 Feet

d)

50 Feet

20.

 Demand Assigned manages the bandwidth more efficiently than conventional?

a)
True
b)
False
21.

What does possessing a valid SDB number guarantee?

a)

Access to satellite resources, but not guaranteed immediate service

b)

Permission to operate on any frequency

c)

Unlimited satellite bandwidth

d)

 Immediate access to satellite services

22.

Which of the following is NOT required information for a SAR?

a)

Desired frequency band

b)

Bandwidth/data rate requirements

c)

Beacon frequency

d)

 Terminal location

23.

 What document gives terminal operators approval to access a satellite?

a)

GAR

b)

SAA

c)

SDB certificate

d)

GAR

24.

What is typically submitted along with a SAR to request DISN access?

a)

 STEP Request

b)

Gateway Access Request (GAR)

c)

Frequency Clearance Request

d)

Terminal Power Certification

25.

Planning cells that provide GMF access to the unified and specified commands on defense & commercial satellite services

a)

RSSC

b)

 GMFA

c)

SDB

d)

SAR

26.

What does the SAA Provide?

a)

Trouble Shooting

b)

Authorized parameters

c)

Terminal hardware requirements

d)

IP addressing for DSN

27.

Firewall and whitelist specifications are required components when submitting a GAR. 

a)
True
b)
False
28.

Because Satellites are shared between many entities, services must be carefully allocated and managed.

a)
True
b)
False
29.

The GAR provides access to the ____ housed in the ____ 

a)

DOD, NSA

b)

Air Force, Command 

c)

DISN, DoDIN

d)

DSN, DOD

30.

What must be obtained in addition to an SAA before transmitting?

a)

AEHF clearance

b)

Local Frequency authorization

c)

DISA access code

d)

GPS timing lock

31.

The SAA tells operators exactly what satellite, frequencies, bandwidth, and time window they are authorized use

a)
True
b)
False
32.

What is one of the following information requirements for SAR?

a)

Element 115

b)

Agarthan Gateway

c)

Terminal declassification

d)

Location of terminal

33.

How many RSSC locations are there

a)

6

b)

5

c)

4

d)

3

34.

The SDB is the centralized database containing all DOD official satellite requirements for _________ entities.

a)

military, civil, industrial and international

b)

territorial, NATO, terrestrial, and extraterrestrial

c)

internal, external, and commercial

d)

military, commercial, civil and allied

35.

All military branches that operate on a satellite’s resources must have a valid SAB number

a)
True
b)
False
36.

What does Unit missions planning element send to the RSSC

a)

satellite access request / gateway access request

b)

 satellite access authorization 

c)

Terminal order approval 

d)

control order wire 

37.

Who is responsible for reviewing a SAR submission and compare it with available resources?

a)

SAA

b)

SATLAN

c)

RSSC

d)

TCC&C

38.

What is the communication line between terminal operators & ground mobile forces operators 

a)

satellite access authorization

b)

control order wire

c)

satellite access request / gateway access request

d)

Terminal order approval 

39.

At 9.6 Kbps, what is the EIA-232C direct wire-distance?

a)

10-20 Feet

b)

100 Miles 

c)

Unlimited 

d)

500 to 5,000 Feet

40.

What is EIA-232C also known as ?

a)

RS-449

b)

RS-232C

c)

EIA-530

d)

Mil-STD-232

41.

Which method of Bandwidth allocation is the most efficient?

a)

Conventional

b)

Demand Assigned

c)

Dynamic

d)

Time-of-day

42.

If a Dynamic Bandwidth system faces a surge of users what would most likely happen?

a)

The system would evenly distribute its bandwidth across all users

b)

The system would prioritize users who paid for a better package

c)

The system would exceed its actual bandwidth slowing speeds

d)

The system would kick off random users

43.

How many users are required to make a network?

a)

Three

b)

Two

c)

Ten

d)

One

44.

What does DSU stand for?

a)

Diagnostic Service Unit

b)

Digital Service Unit

c)

Dynamic Standard Unit

d)

Differentiated Signal Uplink

45.

What does CSU stand for?

a)

Channel Service Unit

b)

Cesium Secondary Unit

c)

Channel Side Unit

d)

Chase Service Unit

46.

What are the differences between twisted pair categories?

a)

speed/signal

b)

Maximum data rate/bandwidth

c)

material/color

d)

Fiber optic, or Copper

47.

What is the max data rate and bandwidth of a CAT6 cable?

a)

10Gbps/1Ghz

b)

500Mhz/5Gbps

c)

250Mhz/1Gbps

d)

10Gbps/10Ghz

48.

How many channels does DS4/T4 have?

a)

2,016

b)

8,064

c)

16,128

d)

4,032

49.

CDMA uses what to separate users?

a)

Time slots

b)

Guard bands

c)

 Pseudorandom noise coders

d)

satellite numbers

50.

What do FDMA systems use to minimize crosstalk between users?

a)

 Time Slots

b)

 Encryption Keys

c)

PN Codes

d)

Guard Bands

51.

 Which access method separates users by frequency?

a)

TDMA

b)

FDMA

c)

CDMA

d)

DAMA

52.

WCDMA is ______, allowing more flexibility

a)

Synchronous

b)

Asynchronous

c)

Expensive

d)

Wired 

53.

What is a major advantage of WCDMA over CDMA?

a)

Allows higher throughput due to wider bandwidth

b)

Uses guard bands

c)

Has smaller dish requirements

d)

Uses Fixed frequency only

54.

Which multiple-access method returns the frequency to a pool after a user finishes transmitting?

a)

TDMA

b)

CDMA

c)

FDMA

d)

DAMA

55.

This Access type operates on a ‘First come first served’ basis

a)

DAMA

b)

CDMA

c)

TDMA

d)

FDMA

56.

In CDMA the receiving terminal actively looks for a specific coded waveform from the desired transmitter.

a)
True
b)
False
57.

 in DAMA, once finished, the frequency is returned to the frequency pool for the next user.

a)
True
b)
False
58.

CDMA allows users to transmit at the same time without any inefficient spectrum usage that would otherwise occur in FDMA

a)
True
b)
False
59.

 What kind of carrier does WCDMA use?

a)

 5 Mhz- wide

b)

1Ghz-wide

c)

5 Ghz-wide

d)

1 Mhz-wide

60.

Can be spectrally inefficient for the satellite’s total capacity

a)

TDMA

b)

CDMA

c)

FTPMA

d)

FDMA

61.

 ____  functions by assigning terminals dedicated time slots on a channel’s bandwidth.

a)

TCPMA

b)

FDMA

c)

TDMA 

d)

PDMA

62.

When using the TDMA method, time separates each slot that acts as _____

a)

Broad Band

b)

Wide Band

c)

Guard Band

d)

 Spectrum Band

63.

 TDMA functions by assigning terminals dedicated codes on a channel’s bandwidth, as opposed to time to each user

a)
True
b)
False
64.

X-band is most commonly used for which purpose?

a)

Military applications

b)

Commercial Internet

c)

Weather forecasting 

d)

TV broadcasting

65.

Which frequency range does X- band use?

a)

4-8GHz 

b)

8-12GHz

c)

12-18 GHz

d)

27-40 GHz

66.

Ku-Band is highly resistant to rain fade and rarely experiences weather-related issues

a)
True
b)
False
67.

Which Band uses the 4-8 GHz range and is highly resistant to rain fade?

a)

Ku-Band

b)

Ka-Band

c)

C-band

d)

X-band

68.

What is a main advantage of C-band

a)

Highest throughput 

b)

Resistant to rain

c)

Not used for satellites 

d)

Small antennas

69.

Ka Band has the highest throughput of all bands discussed, but is highly affected by weather.

a)
True
b)
False
70.

Ka-Band operates at what frequency?

a)

27-40 GHz

b)

4-8 GHz

c)

12-18 GHz

d)

18-27 MHz

71.

What range of frequency does k-band utilize?

a)

4-8 MHz

b)

18-27 MHz

c)

18-27 GHz

d)

12-18 GHz

72.

k-band is useful for long distance communication.

a)
True
b)
False
73.

C-Band was one of the first and original range of frequencies and is used in satellites such as

a)

DOMSAT, INTELSAT, EUTELSAT, and PANAMSAT

b)

INTELSAT, EUTELSAT, OSISAT, TCPSAT

c)

PANAMSAT, DOMSAT, UCLASAT, INTELSAT

d)

EUTELSAT, DOMESTICSAT, PANAMASAT, INTELSAT

74.

The metal or composite structure of the satellite spacecraft is the ___?

a)

Bass

b)

train

c)

Bus

d)

Body

75.

What does the propulsion subsystem do?

a)

Sends commands to ground stations 

b)

Re-transmits radio signals

c)

 corrects launch errors and performs positions changes

d)

 Provides satellite power

76.

What Subsystem generates and regulates a satellite's electrical power?.

a)

Propulsion subsystem

b)

TT&C subsystem

c)

Beacon subsystem

d)

Power subsystem

77.

What equipment on a communications satellite receives a signal and retransmits it?

a)

Transponder

b)

Repeater 

c)

 Receiver 

d)

Transformer

78.

The bus must be strong enough to withstand launch, and heavy enough to restrict payload weight.

a)
True
b)
False
79.

What are we as Radio and Satellite technicians classified as that utilize the capabilities of the satellite payload?

a)

Space Segment

b)

Terminal Segment

c)

Command Segment

d)

Control Segment

80.

The Terminal Segment consists of ___________-based equipment that are used for transmitting and receiving signals 

a)

Ground, Airborne, and Sea

b)

Ground, Airborne, and Space

c)

Ground and Airborne

d)

Airborne, and Subaquatic

81.

The ____ subsystem manages spacecraft control, payload control, and communications network control.

a)

TCCC

b)

TT&C

c)

T&CC

d)

T&C

82.

The most common type of THIS subsystem today is a combination of large solar panels and rechargeable batteries.

a)

 propulsion subsystem

b)

TT&C

c)

Power Subsystem

d)

 Electron subsystem

83.

What is the space segment?

a)

It consists of ground stations that manage satellite data.

b)

 It consists of the (satellites) that carry communications payloads.

c)

It includes the software systems that control satellite functions.

d)

It comprises the antennas and receivers used for satellite communication.

84.

_____  involves operation and control of the payload on the spacecraft.

a)

Propulsion Control

b)

Power Control

c)

Propulsion Subsystem

d)

Payload Control

85.

The TT&C subsystem allows satellites to communicate only with other satellites, not with ground stations.

a)

False

b)

True

86.

Which subsystem provides electrical power to the satellite?

a)

Beacon subsystem

b)

Propulsion subsystem

c)

Power subsystem

d)

 TT&C subsystem

87.

Terminal Segment includes personnel, equipment, and facilities that utilizes the ability of the satellite payload.

a)
True
b)
False
88.

The TT&C subsystem is responsible for

a)

Communications with other satellites

b)

Telemetry, tracking, and control

c)

Power regulation

d)

Satellite propulsion

89.

The command and control segment consists of?

a)

Ground Systems NOT Responsible for Control

b)

The ISS

c)

Ground Systems Responsible for Control

d)

Propulsion Subsystems

90.

Where is the network control operations main base?

a)

Wright Patterson AFB

b)

Keesler AFB

c)

Anderson AFB

d)

Schriever AFB

91.

Why is the uplink frequency typically higher than the downlink frequency?

a)

Satellites are louder than ground stations

b)

Uplink needs less power

c)

Ground Stations must use higher frequencies to penetrate the atmosphere

d)

Downlink needs more power due to noise

92.

Network control remote stations are _.

a)

Diego Garcia, Guam, England, Greenland, Hawaii, New Hampshire,  California.

b)

Luxembourg, England, France, Hawaii, New Mexico, Washington

c)

Canada, Guam, Diego Garcia, Iceland, Philippines Agartha, 

d)

United States, Canada, Mexico, Panama
Haiti, Jamaica, Peru
Republic Dominican, Cuba, Caribbean
Greenland, El Salvador too

93.

If the AF using the a commercial satellite disrupts a TV broadcast, then the AF could be fined.

a)

False

b)

True

94.

What is the primary role of the DSCS?

a)

High capacity, high availability military communications

b)

 Commercial broadcasting

c)

Civilian internet service

d)

weather forecasting

95.

How many transponders does each DSCS satellite have?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

10

96.

Which satellite system provides the DoD’s highest capacity communications?

a)

DSCS

b)

MILSTAR

c)

STARLINK

d)

WGS

97.

WGS satellites can

a)

Only operate in UHF

b)

Only transmit voice traffic

c)

Only support DSN Traffic

d)

Cross-band between X and KA

98.

MILSTAR satellites offer jam-resistant, survivable communications and use crosslinks for worldwide coverage

a)
True
b)
False
99.

Who owns the GPS system?

a)

NASA

b)

U.S. Navy

c)

United States government

d)

NATO

100.

GPS provides which type of information to a receiver?

a)

Weather and climate data

b)

Satellite maintenance data

c)

Internet connectivity

d)

Geolocation and time information

101.

A GPS receiver must have an unobstructed line of sight to how many satellites for accurate positioning?

a)

2 or more

b)

4 or less

c)

4 or more

d)

6 or more

102.

Which statement about GPS is true?

a)

It requires the user to transmit data back to satellites

b)

 It operates independently from telephonic or Internet reception

c)

 It is only available for military use

d)

 It works only with Internet access

103.

What frequency band/s do DSCS satellites operate in?

a)

in both the X and Ka frequency bands 

b)

operate mainly in the X-band

c)

Operate mainly in the C-band

d)

Operate mainly in the K-band

104.

How many satellites are in the AEHF constellation?

a)

There are six military communication satellites in the AEHF constellation

b)

Six satellites launched, with five currently operational 

c)

There are eight military communication satellites in the AEHF constellation 

d)

There are four military communication satellites in the AEHF constellation 

105.

What is the primary function of MILSTAR satellites?

a)

To prevent interference between channels 

b)

 protection from EMP effects of a nuclear explosion 

c)

To provide reliable, high capacity comms in support of various operations.

d)

 To provide secure, jam-resistant communications

106.

What type of system is GPS classified as?

a)

 Local navigation system

b)

Global navigation satellite system

c)

Terrestrial radio mapping system

d)

Orbital radar network

107.

What is anti-scintillation in the context of MILSTAR

a)

To provide survivable, jam resistant communications 

b)

 Continuous coverage between latitudes 65 south 65 north

c)

Protection from EMP effects of a nuclear explosion

d)

 The beacon frequency is 7,600 MHz 

108.

What is the purpose of the mobile user objective system (MUOS)

a)

To facilitate communication and data transfer at specified rates 

b)

 To hop, permute, and spread communications data over usable bandwidth

c)

 To prevent interference between channels 

d)

To revolutionize secure UHF SATCOM for mobile forces

109.

Who developed MUOS for the U.S. Navy?

a)

DARPA

b)

NASA

c)

Lockheed Martin

d)

Northrop Grumman

110.

What frequency range does MUOS utilize?

a)

HF

b)

UHF

c)

VHF

d)

SHF

111.

The AEHF provides ______ communications for high-priority military ground, sea and air assets

a)

Survivable, global, secure, protected and jam-resistant

b)

Survivable, international, secure, protected and self-correcting

c)

Local, secure, insured, jam-resistant and survivable

d)

Global, secure, insured, jam-resistant and survivable

112.

The Advanced Extremely High Frequency System is a joint service satellite communications system.

a)
True
b)
False
113.

This Satellite System is the follow-on to the MILSTAR system, augmenting and improving on its abilities

a)

MILSTAR

b)

GPS 

c)

AEHF

d)

Commercial

114.

This Satellite System expands the MILSATCOM architecture

a)

MILSTAR

b)

AEHF

c)

WGS

d)

MUOS

115.

Provides support for the operation, control, & maintenance of a variety of US DoD, & Commercial Satellites

a)

MUOS

b)

MILSTAR

c)

AFSCN

d)

DSCN

116.

provides prelaunch checkout and simulation, launch support, and early orbit support.

a)

DSCS

b)

AFSCN

c)

GPS

d)

Commercial

117.

provides tracking data to help maintain the catalog of space objects

a)

MILSTAR

b)

Commercial

c)

AFSCN

d)

AEHF

118.

_________communications operate in the C-band and Ku-band

a)

AFSCN

b)

MILSTAR

c)

Commercial

d)

WGS

119.

What is one of the new capabilities of MUOS?

a)

Simultaneous Crystal Clear Voice

b)

Instant Send/Receive messaging to Agartha

c)

Asynchronous Telecommunications

d)

Able to automatically remove noise from any signal from a MILSTAR satellite

120.

Your unit pays for access time when using a commercial satellite.

a)

False

b)

True

121.

 One way to distinguish between military and commercial satellites is

a)

Operating inside military space zone

b)

By Name

c)

Military Insignia

d)

Connection to Hyperborean sine waves

122.

What major risk exists when the military uses commercial SATCOM?

a)

 Possibility of fines if military transmissions disrupt TV broadcasts

b)

Loss of onboard encryption

c)

Loss of UHF coverage

d)

GPS interference

123.

This device is used to measure time based on the position of the sun

a)

 Sun Dial

b)

 magnifying glass

c)

watch

d)

telescope

124.

Mutual synchronization provides a highly stable clock at each station

a)
True
b)
False
125.

What technique requires one node to be the master station

a)

master slave

b)

mutual

c)

Master clock

d)

Plesiochronous

126.

What do atomic oscillators take advantage of?

a)

Crystals

b)

Atoms

c)

The Sun

d)

Tritium

127.

most stable synchronization technique

a)

master clock

b)

mutual

c)

master slave

d)

Plesiochronous

128.

 Apparent Solar Time is based off?

a)

The sun

b)

Electron flow

c)

The revolution of the earth

d)

The moon

129.

GPS constellation was designed to provide four-satellite visibility from anywhere in the world

a)
True
b)
False
130.

The ___ effect is the process of resonating a tuned voltage through a crystal used for timing

a)

Master clock

b)

Plesiochronous

c)

Piezoelectric

d)

Cesium Beam

131.

These oscillators are widely used in everything from wrist watches to laboratory equipment

a)

Mutual

b)

Atomic

c)

Rubidium

d)

Quartz

132.

This synchronization technique provides a highly stable clock at each station

a)

Plesiochronous

b)

Master Clock

c)

Master-Slave

d)

Mutual

133.

Operates at 9 billion clocks per second (9.192 GHz) drifts 200 nanoseconds in 24 hours.

a)

Cesium beam

b)

Rubidium Standard

c)

 Master slave

d)

Master clock

134.

Two of the most common types of THESE oscillators are the cesium beam oscillators and the rubidium gas cell oscillator

a)

Mutual

b)

Atomic

c)

Piezoelectric

d)

Plesiochronous

135.

What makes atomic oscillators more stable than quartz?

a)

They use radio waves

b)

They are cooled with nitrogen

c)

They are larger in size

d)

They ignore temperature and aging effects

136.

Why is cesium considered a primary frequency standard?

a)

It is the cheapest

b)

 It has the highest power output

c)

 It has extremely high stability and low drift

d)

 It is used in wristwatches

137.

GPS timing becomes more accurate when the antenna sees

a)

One satellite

b)

More satellites at once

c)

Two satellites

d)

Three satellites

138.

What Multiplexing technique is used  by most civilian and military communications  today?

a)

Time Division Multiplexing

b)

Frequency Division Multiplexing

c)

Conventional Multiplexing

d)

Assigned Multiplexing

139.

Multiplexing that utilizes modulation to create analog signals for each user

a)

TDM

b)

Conventional Multiplexing

c)

FDM

d)

Assigned Multiplexing

140.

What is used extensively in telephone systems, LOS, tropospheric scatter links, and relay networks?

a)

Multiplexing

b)

FDM

c)

Assigned Multiplexing

d)

TDM

141.

Combines two or more digital signals onto the same transmission path by assigning each channel to a different time slot

a)

Assigned Multiplexing

b)

Frequency Division Multiplexing

c)

Conventional Multiplexing

d)

Time Division Multiplexing

142.

What process is used by the distant end multiplexer to sort signals into their own respective outputs/channels?

a)

Demultiplexing

b)

Reverse Multiplexing

c)

Time Division Multiplexing

d)

Frequency Dividing Multiplexing

143.

What are the two types of multiplexing?

a)

DPS/PCM

b)

FDM/TDM

c)

FDM/QAM

d)

LDM/RDM

144.

What is used in frequency division multiplexing in order to create analog signals for each user?

a)

Oscillators

b)

Heterodyning

c)

Modulation

d)

Tuning

145.

In FDM, which type of filter is used on the distant end to return a signal to its original range?

a)

Low pass

b)

Band pass

c)

High pass

d)

Band reject

146.

In frequency division multiplexing, when are the modulated signals combined?

a)

Prior to transmission

b)

 During transmission

c)

When the signal passes through the band pass filter

d)

At a time specified by the user

147.

In the digital network hierarchy, what is the maximum data rate of a DS0? 


a)

 1.544 Mbps

b)

64 kbps

c)

6.312 Mbps 

d)

274.176 Mbps

148.

How many users (channels) can a DS1/T1 support?

a)

1

b)

48

c)

90

d)

24

149.

What is the maximum data rate of a DS2/T2 level? 

a)

6.312 Mbps

b)

  1. 44.736 Mbps

c)

1.544 Mbps

d)

  1. 374.176 Mbps 

150.

How many users (channels) can a DS3/T3 support ? 

a)

24

b)

4032

c)

672

d)

96

151.

How many voice channels can a DS4/T4 carry? 

a)

24

b)

4032

c)

96

d)

672

152.

How many users (channels) can a DS2/T2 carry? 

a)

672

b)

96

c)

4032

d)

24

153.

What is the maximum data rate at the DS4/T4 hierarchy level?

a)

  1. 6.312 Mbps 

b)

  1. 64 kbps 

c)

274.176 Mbps

d)

  1. 1.544 Mbps 

154.

Why can a single DS1/T1 only support 24 telephone inputs? 

a)

Because its maximum data rate is only 1.544

b)

  1. Because of cooling limitations 

c)

  1. Because it uses fiber optics 

d)

  1. Because it connects only wireless signals 

155.

As demand grows, the digital hierarchy increases bandwidth ____. 

a)

  1. Randomly 

b)

  1. Non-linearly 

c)

Proportionally

d)

  1. Only at the highest levels

156.

The CSU is also the digital equivalent of what device?

a)

Satellite radio

b)

Analog modem

c)

  1. Virtual machine 

d)

  1. Network switch 

157.

What level in the digital network hierarchy has a maximum data rate of 44.736 Mbps and 672 Number of users (channels) ?

a)

  1. DS4/T4

b)

  1. DS0

c)

  1. DS2/T2 

d)

DS3/T3

158.

When does positive control take place? 

a)

Before any communication link attempted 

b)

After a successful communication link is established

c)

Only during ASIs 

d)

Only when a terminal losses power 

159.

The Uplink is the signal we are _______.

a)

 sending from our transmitter

b)

 receiving from the satellite

c)

redirecting to another terminal

d)

Receiving from our transmitter

160.

What is the technician's job when communication links go down without notice? 

a)

Troubleshoot and restore the links

b)

Report it and wait 

c)

Shut down the terminal 

d)

Contact the user 

161.

In order to prevent a Downlink’s receiver from being under over powered we use.

a)

Battery Thresholds

b)

67 Watts

c)

9 Volts

d)

Power Balancing

162.

To ensure that our Uplink is ideal, output power must be heavily controlled.

a)
True
b)
False
163.

What is the first step in establishing a link?

a)

uplink

b)

Satellite tracking

c)

downlink

d)

side-to-side link

164.

What two things can you use to verify you are on the correct satellite?

a)

Cross-link, Cross-band

b)

Uplink, downlink

c)

Beacon, Spectrum analyzer

d)

computer, cable

165.

Who ensures each terminal is operating according to the satellite access authorization  ?

a)

The satellite network controllers

b)

The RF technician 

c)

Sierra Nevada Corporation

d)

The STEP site manager

166.

A nominal uplink and downlink happens when you get SAA

a)

False

b)

True

167.

What are Authorized Service Interruptions? (ASIs) 

a)

Random outages caused by users 

b)

Errors caused by poor satellite positioning

c)

Scheduled link outages for maintenance or updates

d)

Unapproved downtime 

168.

A downlink receiver’s distant end also needs to be power balanced.

a)
True
b)
False
169.

What principals do we use to achieve communication between satellite and terminal?

a)

Upstream and Downstream

b)

 Transmit and Receive 

c)

Agarthan Transceiver 

d)

GAR and UAE

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