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07_Digital_Forensics_FinalExam

Total questions: 195

Worksheet time: 2hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main purpose of an IP address?

a)

To uniquely identify a device on a network

b)

To store files on a server

c)

To encrypt network traffic

d)

To assign MAC addresses

e)

None of the answers are correct

2.

What type of address is a MAC address?

a)

A physical address

b)

A logical address

c)

A broadcast address

d)

A network ID

e)

None of the answers are correct

3.

How many hexadecimal digits are in a MAC address?

a)

12

b)

8

c)

16

d)

4

e)

None of the answers are correct

4.

Which rule states that every device on a network must be unique?

a)

Rule #1

b)

Rule #2

c)

Rule #3

d)

Rule #4

e)

None of the answers are correct

5.

What happens when a device connects to Wi-Fi?

a)

It is assigned an IP address

b)

It receives a MAC address

c)

It becomes a server

d)

It disables encryption

e)

None of the answers are correct

6.

What is another name for an IP address?

a)

Logical address

b)

Physical address

c)

Broadcast address

d)

Network ID

e)

None of the answers are correct

7.

Which IP version uses dotted decimal notation?

a)

IPv4

b)

IPv6

c)

MAC

d)

DNS

e)

None of the answers are correct

8.

How many octets are in an IPv4 address?

a)

4

b)

2

c)

6

d)

8

e)

None of the answers are correct

9.

What is the maximum value of an IPv4 octet?

a)

255

b)

128

c)

512

d)

1024

e)

None of the answers are correct

10.

Which IP class is reserved for multicast?

a)

Class D

b)

Class A

c)

Class B

d)

Class C

e)

None of the answers are correct

11.

What is the first octet range for a Class A address?

a)

1–126

b)

128–191

c)

192–223

d)

224–239

e)

None of the answers are correct

12.

What is the default subnet mask for a Class C network?

a)

255.255.255.0

b)

255.0.0.0

c)

255.255.0.0

d)

255.255.128.0

e)

None of the answers are correct

13.

What does the subnet mask determine?

a)

The network and host portions of an IP address

b)

The MAC address

c)

The default gateway

d)

The DNS server

e)

None of the answers are correct

14.

Which part of the IP identifies the device?

a)

Host ID

b)

Network ID

c)

MAC ID

d)

Default ID

e)

None of the answers are correct

15.

What address identifies the network itself?

a)

Network identifier address

b)

Host address

c)

Broadcast address

d)

Loopback address

e)

None of the answers are correct

16.

Which address is used to send data to all devices on a network?

a)

Broadcast address

b)

Network ID

c)

Host ID

d)

Loopback address

e)

None of the answers are correct

17.

What is the loopback address?

a)

127.0.0.1

b)

255.255.255.0

c)

192.168.0.1

d)

0.0.0.0

e)

None of the answers are correct

18.

What must be the same for two devices to communicate?

a)

Network ID

b)

Host ID

c)

MAC address

d)

Gateway

e)

None of the answers are correct

19.

Which network ID indicates a private Class C range?

a)

192.168

b)

172.20

c)

10.1

d)

224.1

e)

None of the answers are correct

20.

What does NAT stand for?

a)

Network Address Translation

b)

Network Access Tool

c)

Network Allocation Table

d)

Network Application Transfer

e)

None of the answers are correct

21.

Why is NAT used?

a)

To allow private IPs to access the Internet

b)

To replace MAC addresses

c)

To eliminate subnet masks

d)

To encrypt DNS traffic

e)

None of the answers are correct

22.

Which IP range is Class A private?

a)

10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255

b)

172.16 – 172.31

c)

192.168 – 192.168.255.255

d)

224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255

e)

None of the answers are correct

23.

Which class is typically used by governments and large organizations?

a)

Class B

b)

Class A

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

e)

None of the answers are correct

24.

What type of IP is unique across the entire Internet?

a)

Public IP address

b)

Private IP address

c)

Loopback IP

d)

Multicast IP

e)

None of the answers are correct

25.

Why are private IPs not routed on the Internet?

a)

Routers discard them

b)

They are encrypted

c)

They expire too quickly

d)

They are multicast

e)

None of the answers are correct

26.

Which IP class has limited availability for small to medium organizations?

a)

Class C

b)

Class A

c)

Class B

d)

Class D

e)

None of the answers are correct

27.

Which address cannot be assigned to a device?

a)

Network identifier address

b)

Host address

c)

DHCP address

d)

DNS address

e)

None of the answers are correct

28.

What does a 255 value in an octet represent?

a)

Network portion

b)

Host portion

c)

Gateway

d)

Encryption

e)

None of the answers are correct

29.

What is the purpose of private IP addressing?

a)

To conserve public IP addresses

b)

To speed up browsers

c)

To replace MAC addresses

d)

To block Internet access

e)

None of the answers are correct

30.

Which class is reserved for research?

a)

Class E

b)

Class A

c)

Class B

d)

Class D

e)

None of the answers are correct

31.

What type of IP is still most commonly used today?

a)

IPv4

b)

IPv6

c)

MAC

d)

DNS

e)

None of the answers are correct

32.

What notation format does IPv4 use?

a)

Dotted decimal

b)

Binary only

c)

Hexadecimal

d)

Scientific

e)

None of the answers are correct

33.

What assigns IP addresses on most networks automatically?

a)

DHCP

b)

NAT

c)

DNS

d)

HTTP

e)

None of the answers are correct

34.

How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

a)

32

b)

16

c)

64

d)

128

e)

None of the answers are correct

35.

What happens if two devices have the same IP?

a)

Network conflict occurs

b)

Internet speed increases

c)

NAT is disabled

d)

Subnet is removed

e)

None of the answers are correct

36.

Which IP must be used to access the Internet directly?

a)

Public IP

b)

Private IP

c)

Loopback IP

d)

Broadcast IP

e)

None of the answers are correct

37.

Which address tests the local network interface?

a)

Loopback

b)

Broadcast

c)

Network

d)

Multicast

e)

None of the answers are correct

38.

What type of address is changeable?

a)

IP address

b)

MAC address

c)

BIOS address

d)

CPU address

e)

None of the answers are correct

39.

Which IP class begins with 192?

a)

Class C

b)

Class A

c)

Class B

d)

Class D

e)

None of the answers are correct

40.

What identifies the LAN portion of an IP?

a)

Network ID

b)

Host ID

c)

MAC ID

d)

Port ID

e)

None of the answers are correct

41.

What is required before a device can join a network?

a)

It must belong to a network

b)

It must reboot

c)

It must be encrypted

d)

It must disable the firewall

e)

None of the answers are correct

42.

What is the main job of the network layer?

a)

Deliver data between networks

b)

Store passwords

c)

Display websites

d)

Encrypt databases

e)

None of the answers are correct

43.

What IP class is used for multicast traffic?

a)

Class D

b)

Class A

c)

Class B

d)

Class C

e)

None of the answers are correct

44.

Which IP address is NOT assignable to devices?

a)

64.255.255.255

b)

192.168.1.25

c)

10.20.5.15

d)

172.16.2.10

e)

None of the answers are correct

45.

Which IP has 255 in the host portion?

a)

Broadcast address

b)

Host address

c)

Network ID

d)

Loopback

e)

None of the answers are correct

46.

What connects private networks to the public Internet?

a)

Gateway using NAT

b)

Switch

c)

Hub

d)

NIC

e)

None of the answers are correct

47.

Which IP range is private Class B?

a)

172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255

b)

10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255

c)

192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255

d)

224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255

e)

None of the answers are correct

48.

What does an IP address act like?

a)

An ID card

b)

A password

c)

A firewall

d)

A protocol

e)

None of the answers are correct

49.

What device connects to both wired and wireless networks?

a)

A device with Ethernet and Wi-Fi

b)

Only a router

c)

Only a switch

d)

Only a modem

e)

None of the answers are correct

50.

Why do private networks exist?

a)

To expand available IP addresses

b)

To eliminate subnet masks

c)

To remove routers

d)

To stop encryption

e)

None of the answers are correct

51.

What is the primary function of an MDF?

a)

It serves as the central point for network distribution

b)

It is used to cool rack equipment

c)

It measures power consumption

d)

It connects fiber strands together

e)

None of the answers are correct.

52.

What does an IDF primarily connect?

a)

Endpoints on a floor to the MDF

b)

Wireless access points to the internet backbone

c)

Servers to cloud storage

d)

HVAC systems to monitoring dashboards

e)

None of the answers are correct.

53.

What does rack size measure?

a)

Height in “U” units and rack form factor

b)

Number of switches installed

c)

Maximum weight capacity

d)

Ventilation direction

e)

None of the answers are correct.

54.

What is the purpose of a patch panel?

a)

Organizing and connecting copper cabling

b)

Housing power supplies

c)

Cooling server racks

d)

Securing wireless controllers

e)

None of the answers are correct.

55.

What does a fiber distribution panel do?

a)

Routes and manages fiber optic cable connections

b)

Monitors fiber temperature

c)

Converts fiber to copper

d)

Stores spare fiber cables

e)

None of the answers are correct.

56.

What is a PDU used for?

a)

Distributing power to rack-mounted equipment

b)

Monitoring humidity

c)

Rerouting damaged cables

d)

Managing wireless signals

e)

None of the answers are correct.

57.

What does a UPS provide?

a)

Battery backup during a power outage

b)

High-speed fiber switching

c)

Temperature alerts

d)

Cable organization

e)

None of the answers are correct.

58.

What does power load measure?

a)

The total electrical current demand on a circuit

b)

The number of devices connected

c)

The voltage drop in cables

d)

The heat produced by a server

e)

None of the answers are correct.

59.

What is the purpose of fire suppression in network rooms?

a)

Preventing fire damage using chemical, gas, or water systems

b)

Improving airflow around servers

c)

Maintaining humidity levels

d)

Testing copper cable quality

e)

None of the answers are correct.

60.

Why is temperature control essential?

a)

To prevent overheating and maintain safe operation

b)

To keep the network cables clean

c)

To improve Wi-Fi performance

d)

To block unauthorized access

e)

None of the answers are correct.

61.

What does humidity control help prevent?

a)

Corrosion or signal loss in copper cables

b)

Overvoltage conditions

c)

Rack misalignment

d)

Fire suppression malfunctions

e)

None of the answers are correct.

62.

Why should IDFs be placed on each floor of a building?

a)

To keep cable runs short and maintain signal quality

b)

To store backup servers

c)

To improve Wi-Fi roaming

d)

To reduce storage requirements

e)

None of the answers are correct.

63.

Which component is commonly found in an IDF?

a)

Patch panels

b)

Core switches

c)

Large enterprise servers

d)

HVAC controls

e)

None of the answers are correct.

64.

What problem occurs when a server with port-side exhaust is placed in an enclosed rack?

a)

Airflow becomes blocked, causing overheating

b)

Power load increases

c)

Fiber cables break

d)

Fire suppression activates

e)

None of the answers are correct.

65.

What is a recommended fix for poor rack airflow?

a)

Use perforated or open-frame racks

b)

Increase copper cable thickness

c)

Disable exhaust fans

d)

Add more patch panels

e)

None of the answers are correct.

66.

What two devices help reduce downtime during a power failure?

a)

UPS and PDU

b)

Patch panel and modem

c)

Fiber panel and switch

d)

IDF and MDF

e)

None of the answers are correct.

67.

Why is humidity control important in network rooms?

a)

Moisture affects copper cable performance

b)

It prevents UPS overload

c)

It maintains server passwords

d)

It improves wireless bandwidth

e)

None of the answers are correct.

68.

Why should racks be lockable?

a)

To prevent unauthorized access and tampering

b)

To reduce energy usage

c)

To increase copper cable length

d)

To improve Wi-Fi coverage

e)

None of the answers are correct.

69.

What role does a patch panel play in cable management?

a)

Provides a central point for organizing cable connections

b)

Filters electrical noise

c)

Balances server workloads

d)

Connects wireless devices

e)

None of the answers are correct.

70.

How is a PDU different from a standard power strip?

a)

Provides rack-level power distribution and monitoring

b)

Uses fewer outlets

c)

Works only with fiber equipment

d)

Requires no mounting

e)

None of the answers are correct.

71.

Why is an MDF typically located near servers?

a)

It is the central hub for major network connections

b)

It needs to be kept at a higher temperature

c)

It contains user workstations

d)

It requires no airflow

e)

None of the answers are correct.

72.

What is the benefit of localizing connections in an IDF?

a)

Easier troubleshooting and maintenance

b)

Faster Wi-Fi roaming

c)

Increased file storage

d)

Better fiber-to-copper conversion

e)

None of the answers are correct.

73.

What typically connects an IDF to an MDF?

a)

Fiber or copper uplinks

b)

USB cables

c)

HDMI cables

d)

Coaxial TV lines

e)

None of the answers are correct.

74.

What is a common environmental issue that affects copper cabling?

a)

Excess moisture in the air

b)

Low power consumption

c)

Too many patch panels

d)

Server restarts

e)

None of the answers are correct.

75.

What should be added if a network room has temperature control but poor humidity monitoring?

a)

A humidity control system

b)

Additional switches

c)

Extra wall outlets

d)

A new MDF

e)

None of the answers are correct.

76.

What is a key advantage of having UPS units in IDFs?

a)

Equipment stays online during short power interruptions

b)

Increases wireless speeds

c)

Reduces humidity

d)

Eliminates fiber cabling needs

e)

None of the answers are correct.

77.

What happens when cabling runs are too long?

a)

Signal strength decreases

b)

Servers reboot

c)

Fire alarms trigger

d)

Fiber panels fail

e)

None of the answers are correct.

78.

Why might a school place multiple IDFs across a campus?

a)

To reduce cable distance and improve network performance

b)

To create additional storage rooms

c)

To install more HVAC units

d)

To hold spare computers

e)

None of the answers are correct.

79.

What is the purpose of a distribution frame?

a)

To organize and route structured cabling

b)

To reduce wireless interference

c)

To enhance server graphics

d)

To store backup batteries

e)

None of the answers are correct.

80.

What is one sign of poor airflow in a server rack?

a)

High heat readings near equipment

b)

Slow Wi-Fi performance

c)

Loud patch panel connections

d)

Low power usage

81.

What transmits data in fiber optic cables?

a)

Light impulses

b)

Electric current

c)

Magnetic waves

d)

Sound pulses

e)

None of these answers are correct

82.

What device produces light in multimode fiber?

a)

LED

b)

Laser

c)

Diode pump

d)

X-ray source

e)

None of these answers are correct

83.

What device produces light in single-mode fiber?

a)

Laser

b)

LED

c)

Light bulb

d)

Infrared emitter

e)

None of these answers are correct

84.

Approximately what is the core diameter of single-mode fiber?

a)

8–10 µm

b)

20 µm

c)

50 µm

d)

62.5 µm

e)

None of these answers are correct

85.

Approximately what is the core diameter of multimode fiber?

a)

50 or 62.5 µm

b)

8–10 µm

c)

100 µm

d)

125 µm

e)

None of these answers are correct

86.

Which type of fiber uses multiple light paths?

a)

Multimode fiber

b)

Single-mode fiber

c)

Plastic optical fiber

d)

Copper pair

e)

None of these answers are correct

87.

Which type of fiber uses a straight-line transmission path?

a)

Single-mode fiber

b)

Multimode fiber

c)

Twisted pair

d)

Coaxial cable

e)

None of these answers are correct

88.

What is the IEEE standard for 1 Gbps single-mode fiber?

a)

1000Base-LX

b)

1000Base-SX

c)

10GBase-LX

d)

10GBase-SX

e)

None of these answers are correct

89.

What is the IEEE standard for 1 Gbps multimode fiber?

a)

1000Base-SX

b)

1000Base-LX

c)

10GBase-SX

d)

10GBase-LX

e)

None of these answers are correct

90.

What is the maximum distance for single-mode fiber?

a)

Up to 100 km

b)

Up to 500 m

c)

Up to 2 km

d)

Up to 10 km

e)

None of these answers are correct

91.

What is the typical maximum high-speed distance for multimode fiber?

a)

About 500 m

b)

100 km

c)

2 km

d)

50 km

e)

None of these answers are correct

92.

Which connector has a push-pull square design?

a)

SC

b)

LC

c)

ST

d)

MPO

e)

None of these answers are correct

93.

Which connector is small form-factor with a latch?

a)

LC

b)

SC

c)

ST

d)

MPO

e)

None of these answers are correct

94.

Which connector uses a bayonet-style coupling?

a)

ST

b)

SC

c)

LC

d)

RJ-45

e)

None of these answers are correct

95.

Which connector joins multiple fibers (12–48) in one plug?

a)

MPO

b)

LC

c)

ST

d)

SC

e)

None of these answers are correct

96.

What makes fiber immune to interference?

a)

It carries light, not electricity

b)

It is shielded metal

c)

It uses magnetic shielding

d)

It has twisted pairs

e)

None of these answers are correct

97.

Which feature makes fiber cables safer than copper?

a)

They do not carry electrical current

b)

They are thicker

c)

They have insulation

d)

They are grounded

e)

None of these answers are correct

98.

What is one security advantage of fiber optics?

a)

Harder to tap

b)

Easy to splice

c)

Reflects radio waves

d)

Uses encryption

e)

None of these answers are correct

99.

What is a key disadvantage of fiber optic cabling?

a)

High installation cost

b)

Low speed

c)

High electrical noise

d)

Poor bandwidth

e)

None of these answers are correct

100.

What kind of professional is usually needed to install fiber?

a)

Trained fiber technician

b)

Network manager

c)

Security analyst

d)

Database admin

e)

None of these answers are correct

101.

What is the main cause of “noise” in fiber optics?

a)

Modal interference or physical variations

b)

Electromagnetic fields

c)

Power surges

d)

Packet loss

e)

None of these answers are correct

102.

What does a transceiver do?

a)

Converts electrical to optical signals

b)

Amplifies radio waves

c)

Measures voltage

d)

Translates binary to ASCII

e)

None of these answers are correct

103.

Why are transceivers important for networks with both copper and fiber?

a)

They allow the two media types to work together

b)

They increase voltage

c)

They change connectors only

d)

They boost RF signals

e)

None of these answers are correct

104.

What does SFP stand for?

a)

Small Form-Factor Pluggable

b)

Single Fiber Port

c)

Standard Form Plug

d)

Simple Fiber Patch

e)

None of these answers are correct

105.

How many channels does a QSFP support?

a)

4

b)

1

c)

2

d)

8

e)

None of these answers are correct

106.

What is the speed of SFP+?

a)

16 Gbps

b)

5 Gbps

c)

10 Gbps

d)

28 Gbps

e)

None of these answers are correct

107.

What is the data rate of QSFP28?

a)

112 Gbps

b)

40 Gbps

c)

25 Gbps

d)

6 Gbps

e)

None of these answers are correct

108.

Which question helps determine the right media type?

a)

Cabling type, speed, connector, standard, distance

b)

Brand name

c)

Price only

d)

Color of jacket

e)

None of these answers are correct

109.

What is the typical weight of 1000 ft of fiber cable?

a)

≈ 9 lbs

b)

≈ 80 lbs

c)

≈ 40 lbs

d)

≈ 20 lbs

e)

None of these answers are correct

110.

What should you *never* do with a single-mode laser cable?

a)

Look into the end

b)

Bend it tightly

c)

Label it

d)

Clean the connector

e)

None of these answers are correct

111.

Choose the word that completes the sentence:

2. As the light changes direction in the soapy layer, it (a)   ,splitting into multiple different wavelengths.

Choose from the below words

Diffracts

Refracts

Disperses

Reflects

Interferes

112.

Match the following

a)

Reflecting Telescope

1.

Uses mirrors to focus the light

b)

Refracting Telescope

2.

Uses a lens to focus the light

c)

detector

3.

Where the light is delivered for further study

113.

Visible ​ (a)   that the ​ (b)   can see is called the ​ (c)   spectrum.

Choose from the below words
light
eye
electromagnetic
114.

A glass ​ (a)   breaks light into bands of color

Choose from the below words
prism
convex
vibrates
115.

We ​ (a)   better details with higher powers of magnification,

but we ​ (b)   as much of the image.

Choose from the below words

can see

cannot see

116.

Light bending as it passes through a raindrop is an example of (a)  

Choose from the below words
Reflection
Refraction
Absorption
117.

What is network media?

4 lines
118.

What are the four key characteristics of network media?

4 lines
119.

What organization sets networking standards such as Ethernet (802.3)?

4 lines
120.

What is the most commonly used type of coaxial cable?

4 lines
121.

What are the two main connector types for coaxial cable?

4 lines
122.

What is the maximum distance a coaxial cable can transmit data before signal degradation?

4 lines
123.

What is Direct Attach Copper (DAC) cable primarily used for?

4 lines
124.

What are the speed capabilities of DAC cables?

4 lines
125.

What is the difference between RJ-11 and RJ-45 connectors?

4 lines
126.

Which twisted pair cable category supports 10 Gigabit Ethernet?

4 lines
127.

What is the maximum distance for twisted pair cables used in Ethernet networking?

4 lines
128.

What is the difference between plenum and non-plenum cables?

4 lines
129.

Why are plenum cables required in certain buildings?

4 lines
130.

Which cable category is an alternative to DAC for short-distance 40 Gbps networking?

4 lines
131.

Which twisted pair cable standard supports 1 Gbps Ethernet?

4 lines
132.

What does network media refer to?

a)

The speed of data transmission in a network

b)

The type of devices used in a network

c)

The materials used to connect devices and carry data signals

d)

The protocols used for network communication

133.

Which organization sets the standards for digital networking equipment to ensure compatibility?

a)

ISO

b)

IEEE

c)

FCC

d)

IETF

134.

What is the most commonly used type of coaxial cable?

a)

RG58

b)

RG6

c)

CAT5e

d)

Fiber Optic

135.

Which connector type is used for coaxial cables in cable television and modems?

a)

RJ-45

b)

SFP+

c)

F-Type

d)

SC

136.

What is the maximum distance that 10Base2 coaxial Ethernet can transmit data before signal degradation?

a)

100 meters

b)

185 meters

c)

500 meters

d)

1 kilometer

137.

What type of cable is Direct Attach Copper (DAC)?

a)

Fiber optic cable

b)

Twisted pair cable

c)

Coaxial cable

d)

Twinaxial cable

138.

Which connector types are used for Direct Attach Copper (DAC) cables?

a)

RJ-11 and RJ-45

b)

F-Type and BNC

c)

SFP+ and QSFP+

d)

SC and LC

139.

What is the maximum effective distance of a Direct Attach Copper (DAC) cable?

a)

5 to 15 meters

b)

50 meters

c)

100 meters

d)

500 meters

140.

Which type of twisted pair connector is typically used for Ethernet networking?

a)

RJ-11

b)

RJ-45

c)

SC

d)

F-Type

141.

What is the maximum cable length for a standard twisted pair Ethernet connection?

a)

50 meters

b)

100 meters

c)

185 meters

d)

500 meters

142.

What is the primary difference between plenum and non-plenum cables?

a)

Speed and bandwidth

b)

Fire resistance and safety requirements

c)

Connector type

d)

Maximum transmission distance

143.

Which category of twisted pair cable supports speeds up to 10 Gbps?

a)

CAT 3

b)

CAT 5e

c)

CAT 6a

d)

CAT 8

144.

What is the speed rating for CAT 8 twisted pair cable?

a)

1 Gbps

b)

10 Gbps

c)

40 Gbps

d)

100 Gbps

145.

What type of cable is required in spaces where air circulation can spread smoke in case of a fire?

a)

Non-plenum cable

b)

Fiber optic cable

c)

Plenum-rated cable

d)

Coaxial cable

146.

What does OSI stand for?

a)

Open Systems Interconnection

b)

Operating System Interface

c)

Open Software Integration

d)

Online System Interlink

e)

Organizational System Infrastructure

147.

Which organization created the OSI model?

a)

ISO

b)

IEEE

c)

IETF

d)

W3C

e)

FCC

148.

Why is the OSI model important?

a)

It provides a common language for network communication.

b)

It replaces TCP/IP entirely.

c)

It only applies to wireless networks.

d)

It eliminates all data loss.

e)

It encrypts all transmissions.

149.

How many layers are there in the OSI model?

a)

7

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

e)

8

150.

Which OSI layer interacts directly with user applications?

a)

Application

b)

Presentation

c)

Session

d)

Network

e)

Data Link

151.

Which layer is responsible for encryption and compression?

a)

Presentation

b)

Transport

c)

Application

d)

Network

e)

Physical

152.

Which layer manages sessions and dialog control?

a)

Session

b)

Application

c)

Transport

d)

Data Link

e)

Network

153.

Which layer handles reliable delivery and flow control?

a)

Transport

b)

Session

c)

Network

d)

Physical

e)

Presentation

154.

The Network layer is mainly responsible for:

a)

Routing packets between devices

b)

Formatting data for display

c)

Error detection

d)

Reliable delivery

e)

Translating binary signals

155.

Which layer uses protocols such as Ethernet and handles MAC addressing?

a)

Data Link

b)

Network

c)

Physical

d)

Transport

e)

Presentation

156.

What is the main purpose of the Physical layer?

a)

Transmit bits over the medium

b)

Route packets

c)

Encrypt data

d)

Maintain sessions

e)

Control congestion

157.

Which of the following is an example of an Application Layer protocol?

a)

HTTP

b)

IP

c)

Ethernet

d)

TCP

e)

ICMP

158.

Which OSI layer converts data into signals suitable for transmission?

a)

Physical

b)

Data Link

c)

Transport

d)

Network

e)

Application

159.

What type of design does the OSI model encourage?

a)

Modular design

b)

Monolithic design

c)

Proprietary design

d)

Static design

e)

Legacy design

160.

What does encapsulation mean in networking?

a)

Wrapping data with protocol information

b)

Encrypting data only

c)

Removing headers

d)

Routing packets

e)

Translating user data

161.

What is the reverse of encapsulation?

a)

Decapsulation

b)

Compression

c)

Transmission

d)

Encryption

e)

Serialization

162.

Which process occurs at the receiving end of communication?

a)

Decapsulation

b)

Encapsulation

c)

Compression

d)

Fragmentation

e)

Encoding

163.

In encapsulation, each OSI layer adds a (a)   to the data.

164.

When an email message is transmitted, it becomes (a)   at the Physical Layer.

165.

What is the data unit called at the Transport layer?

a)

Segment or Datagram

b)

Packet

c)

Frame

d)

Bit

e)

File

166.

The Network layer sends information as ______.

a)

Packets

b)

Frames

c)

Segments

d)

Bits

e)

Streams

167.

Which layer uses frames as its data unit?

a)

Data Link

b)

Network

c)

Transport

d)

Physical

e)

Session

168.

Which layer transmits bits?

a)

Physical

b)

Data Link

c)

Network

d)

Transport

e)

Application

169.

At which layers is the data unit referred to as “data”?

a)

Application, Presentation, Session

b)

Network, Transport, Physical

c)

Transport, Network, Data Link

d)

Data Link, Physical, Network

e)

Application, Data Link, Physical

170.

HTTP and HTTPS: These are (a)   used for transferring web pages. (b)   is a (c)   of HTTP commonly used for online transactions.

Choose from the below words

protocols

secure

version

standard

171.

What does peer-to-peer communication mean in the OSI model?

a)

Each layer communicates with its peer layer on another device

b)

Users share files directly

c)

Computers connect without a server

d)

Layers communicate randomly

e)

Applications bypass lower layers

172.

TCP communicates directly with TCP on another device using which concept?

a)

Peer-to-peer layer communication

b)

Direct addressing

c)

Application mapping

d)

Encryption

e)

Tunneling

173.

Which term describes how each OSI layer communicates with the same layer on another system?

a)

Peer-to-peer

b)

End-to-end

c)

Link-to-link

d)

Serial connection

e)

Broadcast

174.

How many layers are there in the TCP/IP model?

a)

4

b)

7

c)

6

d)

5

e)

8

175.

The OSI model is more ______ than the TCP/IP model.

a)

conceptual and detailed

b)

practical and simplified

c)

modern

d)

faster

e)

hardware-specific

176.

Which OSI layer corresponds to the Transport layer in TCP/IP?

a)

Transport

b)

Network

c)

Data Link

d)

Presentation

e)

Session

177.

Which of these protocols exist in both the OSI and TCP/IP models?

a)

IP

b)

JPEG

c)

Ethernet

d)

HDMI

e)

ARP

178.

The TCP/IP model is considered:

a)

Practical and widely implemented

b)

Purely theoretical

c)

Obsolete

d)

Unrelated to OSI

e)

Application-only

179.

What is a similarity between the two models?

a)

Both use TCP and UDP in the Transport layer

b)

Both have the same number of layers

c)

Both are ISO standards

d)

Both replace each other completely

e)

Both require Ethernet

180.

Which OSI layer is merged with the Application layer in TCP/IP?

a)

Presentation

b)

Network

c)

Transport

d)

Data Link

e)

Physical

181.

The OSI model helps you troubleshoot network problems by:

a)

Isolating issues layer by layer

b)

Restarting all devices

c)

Encrypting all packets

d)

Resetting routers automatically

e)

Using AI diagnostics

182.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of the OSI model?

a)

Vendor lock-in

b)

Standardization

c)

Interoperability

d)

Flexibility

e)

Troubleshooting

183.

How does the OSI model promote interoperability?

a)

By standardizing communication protocols

b)

By limiting hardware use

c)

By enforcing vendor exclusivity

d)

By encrypting all traffic

e)

By eliminating physical media

184.

What allows one layer to be updated without changing the others?

a)

Layer independence

b)

Monolithic architecture

c)

Hardcoding

d)

Proprietary design

e)

Static layering

185.

What does the OSI model help to isolate?

a)

Network problems

b)

Data encryption

c)

Vendor licensing

d)

Power issues

e)

Memory allocation

186.

Why is modular design beneficial in networking?

a)

It simplifies troubleshooting and upgrades.

b)

It increases complexity.

c)

It eliminates encryption.

d)

It reduces compatibility.

e)

It prevents all failures.

187.

Which protocol is used at the Transport layer for reliable communication?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

c)

IP

d)

ICMP

e)

ARP

188.

Which transport protocol provides unreliable delivery?

a)

UDP

b)

TCP

c)

IP

d)

ICMP

e)

SSL

189.

Which layer uses the IP and ICMP protocols?

a)

Network

b)

Data Link

c)

Transport

d)

Presentation

e)

Session

190.

Which protocol operates at the Session layer?

a)

NetBIOS

b)

IP

c)

Ethernet

d)

SSL

e)

HTTP

191.

Which of the following is an example of a Presentation layer protocol?

a)

SSL/TLS

b)

TCP

c)

FTP

d)

Ethernet

e)

ICMP

192.

Which layer handles issues involving MAC addresses?

a)

Data Link

b)

Network

c)

Physical

d)

Application

e)

Session

193.

Cables and hubs belong to which layer?

a)

Physical

b)

Data Link

c)

Network

d)

Transport

e)

Session

194.

Which layer ensures that data is formatted correctly for the receiver?

a)

Presentation

b)

Network

c)

Data Link

d)

Session

e)

Physical

195.

When troubleshooting a network, identifying whether a cable is unplugged refers to which layer?

a)

Physical

b)

Network

c)

Data Link

d)

Application

e)

Transport

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