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Diagnostic Phlebotomy Final Exam (Grade 12)

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following veins is most commonly used for venipuncture?

a)

Basilic vein

b)

Median cubital vein

c)

Cephalic vein

d)

Brachial vein

2.

The anticoagulant EDTA is most commonly found in which color tube top?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Purple/lavender

d)

Green

3.

What is the maximum time a tourniquet should remain on a patient's arm?

a)

30 seconds

b)

1 minute

c)

2 minutes

d)

3 minutes

4.

Which of the following is the correct order of draw for multiple tube collections?

a)

Red, blue, purple, green

b)

Blue, red, green, purple

c)

Purple, green, blue, red

d)

Green, purple, red, blue

5.

The term hemoconcentration refers to:

a)

Dilution of blood components

b)

Concentration of blood components due to fluid loss

c)

Increased red blood cell production

d)

Decreased plasma volume only

6.

What angle should the needle be inserted during venipuncture?

a)

90 degrees

b)

45 degrees

c)

15-30 degrees

d)

60 degrees

7.

Which of the following is a contraindication for venipuncture?

a)

Previous blood donation

b)

Mastectomy on the same side

c)

Patient anxiety

d)

Visible veins

8.

The primary purpose of using a tourniquet during venipuncture is to:

a)

Prevent infection

b)

Reduce patient pain

c)

Distend the veins

d)

Stop bleeding

9.

Which of the following represents proper patient identification?

a)

Asking the patient to state their name

b)

Checking the patient's wristband

c)

Asking the patient to state their name and date of birth

d)

All of the above

10.

What is the first step in the venipuncture procedure?

a)

Apply the tourniquet

b)

Verify patient identity

c)

Wash hands

d)

Assemble equipment

11.

The needle gauge most commonly used for routine venipuncture is:

a)

18 gauge

b)

20 gauge

c)

21 gauge

d)

23 gauge

12.

Which of the following additives prevents blood clotting?

a)

Sodium fluoride

b)

Heparin

c)

Silica

d)

Thrombin

13.

A hematoma is most likely to occur when:

a)

The needle goes through the vein

b)

The tourniquet is too tight

c)

The patient is dehydrated

d)

The collection tube is overfilled

14.

The appropriate site for capillary puncture in adults is:

a)

Tip of the finger

b)

Side of the finger

c)

Palm of the hand

d)

Back of the hand

15.

Which of the following tubes should be collected first in a multi-tube draw?

a)

Serum separator tube

b)

Coagulation tube

c)

Hematology tube

d)

Chemistry tube

16.

The term hemolysis refers to:

a)

Blood clotting

b)

Destruction of red blood cells

c)

White blood cell increase

d)

Plasma separation

17.

What is the recommended depth for a capillary puncture?

a)

1.0 mm

b)

2.0 mm

c)

3.0 mm

d)

4.0 mm

18.

Which of the following is a sign of patient syncope?

a)

Increased heart rate

b)

Sweating and pale skin

c)

Elevated blood pressure

d)

Rapid breathing only

19.

The median cubital vein is located:

a)

In the antecubital fossa

b)

On the back of the hand

c)

In the wrist area

d)

On the thumb side of the arm

20.

Which of the following is the correct procedure after needle insertion?

a)

Immediately remove tourniquet

b)

Advance needle further into vein

c)

Release tourniquet after blood flow begins

d)

Withdraw needle slightly

21.

What is the minimum number of times tubes with additives should be inverted?

a)

3-4 times

b)

5-8 times

c)

10-12 times

d)

15-20 times

22.

The purpose of inverting blood collection tubes is to:

a)

Mix blood with anticoagulant

b)

Prevent hemolysis

c)

Reduce clotting time

d)

Increase blood flow

23.

Which of the following is a proper technique for palpating veins?

a)

Use your thumb

b)

Use your index finger

c)

Use multiple fingers

d)

Use the palm of your hand

24.

The chain of custody is most important for:

a)

Routine blood tests

b)

Therapeutic drug monitoring

c)

Forensic specimens

d)

Blood bank samples

25.

Which of the following conditions requires special handling of specimens?

a)

Bilirubin testing

b)

Glucose testing

c)

Ammonia testing

d)

All of the above

26.

The appropriate disinfectant for routine venipuncture is:

a)

Hydrogen peroxide

b)

Povidone iodine

c)

70% isopropyl alcohol

d)

Soap and water

27.

What should be done if a patient faints during blood collection?

a)

Continue the procedure quickly

b)

Remove the needle and apply pressure

c)

Elevate the patient's legs

d)

Both B and C

28.

The term QNS stands for:

a)

Quality Not Sufficient

b)

Quantity Not Sufficient

c)

Quick Needs Sample

d)

Qualified Nurse Supervision

29.

Which of the following is the correct procedure for labeling specimens?

a)

Label before collection

b)

Label after collection at patient's side

c)

Label in the laboratory

d)

Label can be done at any time

30.

The recommended site for capillary puncture in infants is:

a)

Finger

b)

Heel

c)

Toe

d)

Earlobe

31.

Which of the following can cause a false elevation in potassium levels?

a)

Hemolysis

b)

Delayed processing

c)

Tourniquet use

d)

All of the above

32.

The primary reason for using a winged collection set is:

a)

Faster blood flow

b)

Better for difficult veins

c)

Reduced contamination

d)

Lower cost

33.

What is the proper procedure if no blood is obtained during venipuncture?

a)

Immediately try a different site

b)

Probe gently with the needle

c)

Apply more pressure

d)

Remove needle and try again

34.

The evacuated tube system works by:

a)

Positive pressure

b)

Negative pressure (vacuum)

c)

Gravity

d)

Manual suction

35.

Which of the following is a post-analytical error?

a)

Mislabeled specimen

b)

Hemolyzed sample

c)

Incorrect reporting of results

d)

Contaminated specimen

36.

The basilic vein is located:

a)

On the thumb side of the arm

b)

On the pinky side of the arm

c)

In the center of the antecubital fossa

d)

On the back of the hand

37.

What is the appropriate action if a tube does not fill completely?

a)

Gently shake the tube

b)

Advance the needle further

c)

Try a new tube

d)

Remove and reinsert needle

38.

The purpose of sodium fluoride in blood collection tubes is to:

a)

Prevent clotting

b)

Preserve glucose

c)

Enhance cell separation

d)

Prevent hemolysis

39.

Which of the following is considered a pre-analytical error?

a)

Incorrect specimen labeling

b)

Improper storage temperature

c)

Wrong collection time

d)

All of the above

40.

The recommended procedure for disposal of needles is:

a)

Recap and dispose

b)

Break the needle first

c)

Dispose in regular trash

d)

Dispose in sharps container without recapping

41.

What is the appropriate response to a needlestick injury?

a)

Apply pressure and continue working

b)

Wash thoroughly and report immediately

c)

Apply antiseptic only

d)

Ignore if bleeding stops

42.

The term petechiae refers to:

a)

Large bruises

b)

Small red spots under the skin

c)

Swollen lymph nodes

d)

Infected puncture sites

43.

The proper technique for cleaning the venipuncture site is:

a)

Circular motion from inside out

b)

Circular motion from outside in

c)

Back and forth motion

d)

Dabbing motion

44.

What is the maximum number of venipuncture attempts that should be made on a patient?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

45.

The most common complication of venipuncture is:

a)

Nerve injury

b)

Hematoma formation

c)

Infection

d)

Arterial puncture

46.

Which of the following is the correct procedure for removing a needle?

a)

Quickly pull straight out

b)

Slowly remove at the same angle of insertion

c)

Twist while removing

d)

Rock back and forth

47.

The purpose of a serum separator tube is to:

a)

Prevent clotting

b)

Separate serum from cells

c)

Preserve specimens

d)

Prevent hemolysis

48.

What is the appropriate storage temperature for most blood specimens?

a)

Room temperature

b)

2–8°C (refrigerated)

c)

Frozen

d)

37°C

49.

The term "phlebotomy" means:

a)

Blood study

b)

Vein cutting

c)

Blood collection

d)

Blood analysis

50.

Which of the following is a proper technique for applying a tourniquet?

a)

Apply directly over the puncture site

b)

Apply 3–4 inches above the puncture site

c)

Apply as tightly as possible

d)

Apply for maximum time possible

51.

The appropriate needle insertion technique includes:

a)

Inserting with the bevel up

b)

Inserting with the bevel down

c)

Inserting perpendicular to the skin

d)

Inserting at a 90-degree angle

52.

What should be done if a patient has a latex allergy?

a)

Use latex-free gloves and equipment

b)

Proceed with regular equipment

c)

Refuse to draw blood

d)

Use extra gloves

53.

The correct procedure for transporting specimens is:

a)

Room temperature for all specimens

b)

Follow specific temperature requirements

c)

Freeze all specimens

d)

Heat all specimens

54.

Which of the following can cause specimen rejection?

a)

Unlabeled specimen

b)

Hemolyzed specimen

c)

Clotted specimen in anticoagulant tube

d)

All of the above

55.

The primary function of the circulatory system is to:

a)

Produce blood cells

b)

Transport substances throughout the body

c)

Filter blood

d)

Store blood

56.

What is the appropriate action if a patient refuses blood collection?

a)

Proceed anyway

b)

Document refusal and notify supervisor

c)

Convince patient to comply

d)

Come back later without notification

57.

The term "arterial puncture" refers to:

a)

Normal venipuncture procedure

b)

Accidental puncture of an artery

c)

Intentional collection from an artery

d)

Puncture of arterial pressure point

58.

Which of the following is the correct hand hygiene procedure?

a)

Wash hands only before patient contact

b)

Wash hands before and after patient contact

c)

Gloves eliminate need for hand washing

d)

Hand sanitizer is never appropriate

59.

The purpose of personal protective equipment (PPE) is to:

a)

Protect the patient only

b)

Protect the healthcare worker only

c)

Protect both patient and healthcare worker

d)

Meet regulatory requirements only

60.

What is the appropriate procedure for cleaning up blood spills?

a)

Use regular cleaning supplies

b)

Use bleach solution

c)

Use alcohol only

d)

Use soap and water

61.

The term "standard precautions" means:

a)

Treat all patients the same way

b)

Treat all body fluids as potentially infectious

c)

Use extra precautions for known infectious patients

d)

Follow hospital policies only

62.

Which of the following is a bloodborne pathogen of primary concern?

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Hepatitis C

c)

HIV

d)

All of the above

63.

The appropriate procedure for handling contaminated materials is:

a)

Dispose in regular trash

b)

Dispose in biohazard containers

c)

Rinse and reuse

d)

Store for later disposal

64.

What is the primary purpose of quality control in phlebotomy?

a)

Reduce costs

b)

Ensure accurate results

c)

Speed up procedures

d)

Satisfy regulations

65.

The term "informed consent" means:

a)

Patient signs a form

b)

Patient understands the procedure and agrees

c)

Doctor gives permission

d)

Family gives permission

66.

Which of the following is considered patient identifying information?

a)

Name and date of birth

b)

Social Security number

c)

Medical record number

d)

All of the above

67.

The appropriate response to a patient question you cannot answer is:

a)

Give your best guess

b)

Ignore the question

c)

Refer to appropriate healthcare provider

d)

Make up an answer

68.

What is the purpose of using a butterfly needle?

a)

Faster blood collection

b)

Better for small or fragile veins

c)

Prevents contamination

d)

Reduces patient pain

69.

The correct procedure for specimen transport includes:

a)

Immediate transport to laboratory

b)

Proper labeling and packaging

c)

Appropriate temperature control

d)

All of the above

70.

Which of the following can affect test results?

a)

Patient position during collection

b)

Time of day

c)

Patient preparation

d)

All of the above

71.

The term "hemostasis" refers to:

a)

Blood circulation

b)

Blood clotting process

c)

Blood production

d)

Blood pressure

72.

What is the appropriate action if equipment malfunctions during collection?

a)

Continue with faulty equipment

b)

Stop procedure and get new equipment

c)

Ignore the malfunction

d)

Report after completing collection

73.

The primary responsibility of a phlebotomist is to:

a)

Diagnose patient conditions

b)

Collect blood specimens safely

c)

Interpret test results

d)

Prescribe treatments

74.

Which of the following is proper professional behavior?

a)

Discussing patient information with colleagues

b)

Maintaining patient confidentiality

c)

Sharing interesting cases

d)

Talking about patients in public areas

75.

The appropriate procedure for handling an emergency during blood collection is:

a)

Continue the procedure

b)

Stop and call for help

c)

Finish quickly

d)

Leave the patient alone

76.

What is the purpose of continuing education for phlebotomists?

a)

Meet regulatory requirements

b)

Stay current with best practices

c)

Maintain certification

d)

All of the above

77.

The term "scope of practice" refers to:

a)

Work schedule

b)

Authorized duties and responsibilities

c)

Salary range

d)

Work location

78.

Which of the following is an example of quality assurance?

a)

Regular equipment maintenance

b)

Proper training of staff

c)

Monitoring collection procedures

d)

All of the above

79.

The appropriate response to a patient complaint is:

a)

Ignore it

b)

Listen and address concerns appropriately

c)

Argue with the patient

d)

Blame other staff members

80.

What is the primary goal of patient education?

a)

Reduce complaints

b)

Improve patient understanding and compliance

c)

Save time

d)

Meet legal requirements

81.

The term "nosocomial infection" refers to:

a)

Community-acquired infection

b)

Hospital-acquired infection

c)

Bloodborne infection

d)

Respiratory infection

82.

Which of the following is proper ergonomic practice?

a)

Bending at the waist

b)

Maintaining proper posture

c)

Reaching across the body

d)

Working in cramped spaces

83.

The appropriate procedure for handling a difficult patient is:

a)

Force compliance

b)

Use patience and professionalism

c)

Refuse to provide service

d)

Restrain the patient

84.

What is the purpose of incident reporting?

a)

Blame individuals

b)

Identify and prevent future problems

c)

Satisfy legal requirements

d)

Document everything

85.

The term "critical value" refers to:

a)

Important test results

b)

Life-threatening results requiring immediate attention

c)

Expensive tests

d)

Routine test results

86.

Which of the following is appropriate communication with patients?

a)

Use medical terminology exclusively

b)

Speak clearly and simply

c)

Avoid eye contact

d)

Talk to family members only

87.

The primary purpose of laboratory accreditation is to:

a)

Increase costs

b)

Ensure quality standards

c)

Satisfy government requirements

d)

Reduce liability

88.

What is the appropriate response to a medication error?

a)

Ignore if no harm occurred

b)

Report immediately

c)

Fix it quietly

d)

Blame someone else

89.

The term "clinical correlation" means:

a)

Comparing test results

b)

Relating test results to patient condition

c)

Repeating tests

d)

Confirming results

90.

Which of the following is a component of risk management?

a)

Identifying potential problems

b)

Preventing accidents

c)

Reducing liability

d)

All of the above

91.

The appropriate procedure for handling a specimen mix-up is:

a)

Ignore it

b)

Recollect specimens from affected patients

c)

Guess which specimen belongs to which patient

d)

Report results anyway

92.

What is the purpose of proficiency testing?

a)

Evaluate laboratory performance

b)

Train new employees

c)

Reduce costs

d)

Satisfy patients

93.

The term "evidence-based practice" refers to:

a)

Using legal evidence

b)

Using scientific evidence to guide practice

c)

Using personal experience only

d)

Using tradition only

94.

Which of the following is appropriate delegation?

a)

Assign tasks beyond scope of practice

b)

Assign appropriate tasks to qualified personnel

c)

Assign tasks without instruction

d)

Assign tasks without supervision

95.

The primary purpose of performance improvement is to:

a)

Punish poor performers

b)

Enhance quality of care

c)

Reduce costs

d)

Satisfy regulators

96.

What is the appropriate response to ethical concerns?

a)

Ignore them

b)

Discuss with appropriate personnel

c)

Handle alone

d)

Avoid involvement

97.

The term "cultural competence" refers to:

a)

Speaking multiple languages

b)

Understanding and respecting cultural differences

c)

Traveling internationally

d)

Reading about other cultures

98.

Which of the following is a component of effective teamwork?

a)

Good communication

b)

Mutual respect

c)

Shared goals

d)

All of the above

99.

The most important quality for a phlebotomist is:

a)

Technical skill

b)

Speed

c)

Attention to detail and patient safety

d)

Friendly personality