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Mosby's Federal Requirements

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a primary consideration for a pharmacy technician according to the American Association of Pharmacy Technicians Code of Ethics?

a)

To ensure the health and safety of the patient and use knowledge and skills to the best of their ability in serving others.

b)

To maximize the profit of the pharmacy.

c)

To follow only the instructions of the pharmacist without question.

d)

To prioritize speed over accuracy in dispensing medications.

2.

According to the code of ethics, what should a pharmacy technician never assist in?

a)

Dispensing, promoting, or distribution of medications or medical devices that are not of good quality or do not meet the standards required by law.

b)

Filing prescriptions.

c)

Counseling patients about general health topics.

d)

Participating in medication reconciliation.

3.

Which of the following is NOT typically a role of pharmacists and pharmacy technicians?

a)

Performing surgery on patients.

b)

Filling prescriptions and verifying instructions from physicians.

c)

Advising patients on potential side effects of medicines.

d)

Participating in medication reconciliation and therapy management.

4.

What is the main difference between ethics and laws as described in the material?

a)

Ethics are embraced by a profession without government involvement, while laws are enacted by the government to achieve a goal.

b)

Ethics are only about personal beliefs, while laws are about professional conduct.

c)

Laws are optional, but ethics are mandatory.

d)

Ethics are enforced by the police, while laws are enforced by pharmacists.

5.

A pharmacy technician is required to respect the confidentiality of a patient’s records. When is it appropriate to disclose this information?

a)

Only with proper authorization.

b)

Whenever a friend asks for it.

c)

If the patient is not present.

d)

If the technician is curious.

6.

Which of the following best describes the role of the state board of pharmacy?

a)

Oversees pharmacy practices, including licensure, registration, and certification requirements for pharmacy technicians.

b)

Manufactures medications for pharmacies.

c)

Sets prices for all medications.

d)

Provides direct patient care in hospitals.

7.

Why is it important for pharmacy technicians to maintain competency in their practice?

a)

To continually enhance their professional knowledge and expertise.

b)

To avoid having to work with pharmacists.

c)

To ensure they can work in any country.

d)

To reduce the number of patients they see.

8.

Which of the following actions would be considered unethical for a pharmacy technician?

a)

Engaging in any activity that will discredit the profession or expose it to fear or favor, illegal or unethical conduct.

b)

Maintaining patient confidentiality.

c)

Supporting the patient’s individuality and dignity.

d)

Assisting the pharmacist in the safe distribution of health services.

9.

Which of the following is a responsibility of a community pharmacy technician?

a)

Assist the pharmacist with filling and labeling prescriptions.

b)

Diagnose patient illnesses.

c)

Prescribe medications to patients.

d)

Counsel patients on medication use.

10.

What is one task that a pharmacy technician cannot perform?

a)

Counsel patients on their medication.

b)

Assist in training new pharmacy technicians.

c)

Screen telephone calls for the pharmacist.

d)

Enter prescription orders into the computer.

11.

Which of the following is a responsibility of an institutional pharmacy technician?

a)

Transport medications and pharmacy equipment to nursing units and clinics.

b)

Write prescriptions for patients.

c)

Perform professional judgment duties such as patient counseling.

d)

Diagnose and treat patient illnesses.

12.

In some states, what expanded responsibility may pharmacy technicians have?

a)

Check the work of other pharmacy technicians.

b)

Prescribe medications.

c)

Diagnose patient conditions.

d)

Counsel patients on medication therapies.

13.

Which of the following best describes a Tech-Check-Tech (TCT) program?

a)

A program where pharmacy technicians check the work of other technicians, often limited to restocking automated dispensing machines and unit-dose batches.

b)

A program where technicians prescribe medications.

c)

A program where technicians provide patient counseling.

d)

A program where technicians diagnose illnesses.

14.

Why are TCT programs generally limited to the institutional setting?

a)

They require advanced education and training and are contingent on ongoing quality assurance tests.

b)

They allow technicians to prescribe medications.

c)

They allow technicians to diagnose illnesses.

d)

They allow technicians to perform surgery.

15.

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a community pharmacy technician?

a)

Counseling patients about their medication.

b)

Screening telephone calls for the pharmacist.

c)

Assisting the pharmacist in performing medication reconciliation.

d)

Prepacking bulk medications.

16.

What is one of the tasks institutional pharmacy technicians may perform related to medication dispensing technology?

a)

Deliver unit dose to automated dispensing technology, such as a Pyxis machine.

b)

Prescribe medications for patients.

c)

Counsel patients on medication use.

d)

Diagnose patient illnesses.

17.

Which of the following is a skill/concept (DoK Level 2) task for a pharmacy technician?

a)

Compounding large-volume and small-volume intravenous (IV) mixtures.

b)

Reciting the definition of a pharmacy technician.

c)

Naming the laws that regulate pharmacy practice.

d)

Listing the steps to fill a prescription.

18.

A pharmacy technician is asked to verify that customers received the correct prescription and to check if they have any questions for the pharmacist. What level of depth of knowledge does this task require?

a)

Skill/Concept (DoK Level 2)

b)

Recall and Reproduction (DoK Level 1)

c)

Strategic Thinking (DoK Level 3)

d)

No depth of knowledge required

19.

Which of the following professionals is NOT typically permitted to prescribe medications for humans?

a)

Veterinarians (DVMs; can only prescribe for animals)

b)

Medical doctors (MDs)

c)

Nurse practitioners (NPs)

d)

Physician assistants (PAs)

20.

What was the main purpose of the Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906?

a)

To prohibit the interstate transportation or sale of adulterated and misbranded food or drugs

b)

To require all new drug applications be filed with the FDA

c)

To create the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

d)

To regulate prescription drug advertising

21.

Which federal law led to the creation of the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?

a)

Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 (FDCA 1938)

b)

Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906

c)

Controlled Substances Act of 1970

d)

Drug Listing Act of 1972

22.

Which of the following is an example of drug adulteration?

a)

A drug prepared, packed, or held under unsanitary conditions

b)

A drug with a misleading label

c)

A drug missing the expiration date

d)

A drug with an incorrect National Drug Code (NDC) number

23.

Which of the following is considered misbranding under federal law?

a)

Labeling that is false or misleading in any particular way

b)

Containing unsafe color additives

c)

Being prepared in unsanitary conditions

d)

Containing poisonous substances

24.

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for manufacturer drug labeling?

a)

Patient’s insurance information

b)

National Drug Code (NDC) number

c)

Statement of ingredients

d)

Expiration date

25.

Why is it important for prescription drugs to include required warning statements on their labels?

a)

To inform users of potential risks and ensure safe usage

b)

To advertise the drug to consumers

c)

To increase the price of the drug

d)

To comply with insurance company policies

26.

Which amendment created two categories of drugs: legend and nonlegend (OTC)?

a)

Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

b)

Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

c)

Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970

d)

Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970

27.

What is the main purpose of the Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970?

a)

To require child-resistant packaging for most OTC and legend drugs

b)

To ensure drugs are pure, safe, and effective

c)

To create the Occupational Safety and Health Administration

d)

To separate drugs into legend and nonlegend categories

28.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a medication that does NOT require child-resistant containers?

a)

Betamethasone with no more than 12.6 mg per package

b)

Oral contraceptives in manufacturer’s dispensing package

c)

Mebendazole tablets with more than 600 mg per package

d)

Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets

29.

What does the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 ensure?

a)

A safe and healthful workplace for all employees

b)

That all drugs are pure, safe, and effective

c)

That drugs are packaged in child-resistant containers

d)

That prescription medications require a physician’s supervision

30.

According to the Durham-Humphrey Amendment, which type of medication requires the supervision of a physician?

a)

Legend drugs

b)

OTC drugs

c)

All medications

d)

Investigational drugs

31.

Which amendment requires drug manufacturers to be responsible for good manufacturing process (GMP)?

a)

Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

b)

Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

c)

Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970

d)

Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970

32.

Why are child-resistant containers important according to the Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970?

a)

They reduce accidental poisoning in children

b)

They ensure drugs are pure and effective

c)

They allow for easier dispensing of medication

d)

They separate legend and nonlegend drugs

33.

Which of the following is a requirement of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970?

a)

Requires a reporting system for job-related injuries and illness

b)

Requires all drugs to be effective

c)

Requires child-resistant packaging for all drugs

d)

Requires prescription medications to be supervised by a physician

34.

Which of the following is a requirement of the Hazard Communication Standard?

a)

All employees must be informed of the hazards and identities of chemicals to which they are exposed.

b)

Only supervisors need to know about chemical hazards.

c)

Hazard information is only required for non-hazardous chemicals.

d)

Employees are not required to receive any information about chemicals.

35.

What is the main purpose of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?

a)

To provide recipes for chemical mixtures

b)

To communicate information on chemical hazards to users

c)

To advertise chemical products

d)

To list employee names

36.

Which section of the SDS provides information about the initial care for someone exposed to a chemical?

a)

Section 1: Identification

b)

Section 4: First aid measures

c)

Section 7: Handling and storage

d)

Section 10: Stability and reactivity

37.

Section 2 of the SDS is primarily concerned with which of the following?

a)

Fire-fighting measures

b)

Hazards identification

c)

Physical and chemical properties

d)

Toxicological factors

38.

Why is it important for workers to be familiar with the format and contents of SDSs?

a)

So they can ignore safety procedures

b)

To ensure they can quickly find and understand hazard information in an emergency

c)

To memorize chemical formulas

d)

To create new chemicals

39.

A chemical spill occurs in a laboratory. According to the SDS, which section should be consulted for recommendations on the appropriate response?

a)

Section 6: Accidental release measures

b)

Section 3: Composition/information on ingredients

c)

Section 9: Physical and chemical properties

d)

Section 11: Toxicological factors

40.

A worker needs to know the safe storage conditions for a chemical. Which section of the SDS should they refer to?

a)

Section 7: Handling and storage

b)

Section 5: Fire-fighting measures

c)

Section 8: Exposure controls and personal protection

d)

Section 10: Stability and reactivity

41.

Suppose a new chemical is introduced in the workplace. What steps should an institution take to comply with the Hazard Communication Standard?

a)

Ignore the new chemical

b)

Write a hazard communication program and obtain an SDS from the manufacturer, importer, or distributor

c)

Only inform the management about the chemical

d)

Store the chemical without any documentation

42.

What is the main purpose of the Orphan Drug Act of 1983?

a)

To provide orphan status to drugs and biologics for rare diseases affecting fewer than 200,000 people in the U.S.

b)

To regulate the pricing of all prescription drugs

c)

To ensure all drugs are tested on children

d)

To ban the use of biologics in drug therapy

43.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three essential components of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) of 1990 drug use review programs?

a)

Prospective drug use review

b)

Retrospective drug use review

c)

Educational programs

d)

Drug manufacturing regulations

44.

According to OBRA '90, what must a pharmacist discuss with a patient during counseling? (Select the best answer)

a)

The name and description of the medication

b)

The cost of the medication

c)

The manufacturer’s stock price

d)

The history of the pharmacy

45.

Which act provides the general guidelines for hazardous waste management in the United States?

a)

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)

b)

Orphan Drug Act

c)

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA)

d)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

46.

Which of the following is a requirement of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996?

a)

Protecting patient information confidentiality

b)

Mandating all drugs be generic

c)

Banning the use of biologics

d)

Requiring all pharmacies to be open 24 hours

47.

Which of the following is a characteristic of hazardous waste as defined by the RCRA?

a)

Ignitability

b)

Solubility

c)

Edibility

d)

Biodegradability

48.

A pharmacist is reviewing a patient’s drug therapy for potential duplication and drug-disease contraindications before filling a prescription. Which OBRA '90 component is being applied?

a)

Prospective drug use review

b)

Retrospective drug use review

c)

Educational programming

d)

Hazardous waste management

49.

Why must pharmacies arrange for the disposal of their hazardous waste through an outside vendor under RCRA regulations?

a)

To adhere to regulations and protect human health and the environment

b)

To increase pharmacy profits

c)

To reduce medication costs

d)

To comply with HIPAA

50.

Which of the following is NOT a topic that may be discussed during patient counseling under OBRA '90?

a)

The medication’s expected onset of action

b)

The medication’s relationship to laboratory tests

c)

The pharmacist’s salary

d)

Instructions for 24-hour access to a pharmacist

51.

What is the main goal of the educational programming component of a state’s drug use review program under OBRA '90?

a)

To improve prescribing and dispensing practices

b)

To increase drug prices

c)

To promote pharmaceutical advertising

d)

To reduce pharmacy staff

52.

Which of the following is covered by the HIPAA Privacy Rule?

a)

Patient's health information

b)

Hospital construction codes

c)

Medical equipment manufacturing

d)

Insurance premium rates

53.

According to the HIPAA privacy rule, what must covered entities do to protect patient privacy?

a)

Have a set of privacy practices appropriate for their health care services

b)

Only allow doctors to access patient records

c)

Destroy all patient records after one year

d)

Share patient information with insurance companies without consent

54.

Which of the following is considered Protected Health Information (PHI) under HIPAA?

a)

Patient's address and date of birth

b)

Hospital cafeteria menu

c)

Number of hospital beds

d)

List of hospital staff schedules

55.

What is a required security measure under the HIPAA security rule?

a)

Encryption of electronic health information

b)

Posting patient information on public websites

c)

Allowing unrestricted access to medical records

d)

Disabling all computer passwords

56.

Which act provides a voluntary prescription drug benefit to Medicare beneficiaries?

a)

Medicare prescription drug improvement and modernization act of 2003

b)

Anabolic steroid control act of 2004

c)

HIPAA security rule

d)

Biologics price competition and innovation act of 2009

57.

What was a major change introduced by the Anabolic Steroid Control Act of 2004?

a)

Redefined anabolic steroids and changed administrative scheduling actions

b)

Allowed over-the-counter sale of anabolic steroids

c)

Removed all restrictions on anabolic steroid use

d)

Required all medications to be labeled in Spanish

58.

Why are standard code sets important in HIPAA electronic health care transactions?

a)

They provide uniform codes for diseases, procedures, and medications

b)

They allow hospitals to set their own codes

c)

They are only used for billing purposes

d)

They are optional for health care providers

59.

Which of the following is a security policy example required by HIPAA?

a)

Informing employees about protecting electronically stored information

b)

Allowing employees to share passwords

c)

Posting patient data on social media

d)

Disabling all security software

60.

How did the Medicare prescription drug improvement and modernization act of 2003 impact senior citizens?

a)

Added preventive medical benefits

b)

Removed all prescription drug coverage

c)

Increased out-of-pocket costs for drugs

d)

Eliminated Medicare Part B

61.

What is the purpose of appointing a privacy official under the HIPAA privacy rule?

a)

To ensure privacy practices are adopted and followed

b)

To manage hospital finances

c)

To schedule patient appointments

d)

To oversee cafeteria operations

62.

Which of the following is a goal of the Drug Supply Chain Security Act (DSCSA)?

a)

To increase the price of prescription drugs

b)

To allow verification of the authenticity of the drug product identifier down to the package level

c)

To ban the use of all biological products

d)

To eliminate the need for drug recalls

63.

Which act created an abbreviated pathway for approval of biological products demonstrated to be biosimilar to or interchangeable with an FDA-licensed reference biological product?

a)

Drug Supply Chain Security Act

b)

Safe Water Drinking Act

c)

Biologics Price Competition and Innovation (BPCI) Act of 2009

d)

National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health Act

64.

According to the DSCSA, what must manufacturers and repackagers be required to put on certain prescription drug packages?

a)

Expiration date

b)

Unique product identifier, such as a bar code

c)

Manufacturer's address

d)

Patient's name

65.

Which of the following is NOT a criterion for identifying a drug as hazardous?

a)

Carcinogenicity

b)

Genotoxicity

c)

High solubility in water

d)

Teratogenicity or developmental toxicity

66.

Which of the following is classified as a hazardous drug according to the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Estradiol

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Amoxicillin

67.

A pharmacy wants to return expired and discontinued drugs to the manufacturer. Which type of distributor is permitted to process these returns?

a)

Primary distributor

b)

Reverse distributor

c)

Wholesale distributor

d)

Third-party logistics provider

68.

Which of the following is an example of an antineoplastic hazardous drug?

a)

Tamoxifen

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Ibuprofen

69.

Why are third-party logistics providers required to obtain a state or federal license under the DSCSA?

a)

To manufacture new drugs

b)

To provide storage and logistical operations related to drug distribution

c)

To prescribe medications

d)

To conduct clinical trials

70.

Which of the following is required before pharmacy personnel handle hazardous drugs?

a)

Training in the receipt, storage, compounding, dispensing, and disposal of hazardous drugs

b)

Certification in first aid

c)

Training in customer service

d)

Certification in nutrition

71.

How often must competency training for handling hazardous drugs be completed?

a)

Every 6 months

b)

Every 12 months

c)

Every 2 years

d)

Every 5 years

72.

Which of the following is NOT a component of training for handling hazardous drugs?

a)

Providing a list of HDs and their risks

b)

Reviewing SOP regarding handling of HDs

c)

Training in financial management

d)

Spill management

73.

What is the primary purpose of containment primary engineering controls (C-PEC)?

a)

To increase drug potency

b)

To minimize exposure to hazardous drugs through control of airborne contaminants

c)

To improve drug flavor

d)

To reduce drug cost

74.

Which of the following must be available in the room where C-PEC is stored?

a)

A television

b)

A sink and eye wash station for emergency rinsing and washing

c)

A refrigerator for snacks

d)

A treadmill

75.

When must personal protective equipment (PPE) be worn when handling hazardous drugs?

a)

Only when transporting drugs

b)

Only during spill control

c)

When receiving, storing, transporting, compounding, deactivation/decontamination, and spill control

d)

Only when compounding drugs

76.

Why must access to areas where hazardous drugs are handled be restricted?

a)

To prevent theft

b)

To restrict access to authorized personnel only and ensure safety

c)

To save energy

d)

To reduce paperwork

77.

Which of the following is a requirement for the storage of hazardous drugs?

a)

Storage must be located away from employee break areas, patients, and visitors

b)

Storage must be in the pharmacy manager’s office

c)

Storage must be in the patient waiting area

d)

Storage must be in the hospital cafeteria

78.

What is the correct procedure for disposing of hazardous drug-related waste according to the OSHA Technical Manual?

a)

Dispose of in regular trash bins

b)

Use properly labeled, sealed, and covered disposal containers handled by trained personnel

c)

Flush down the sink

d)

Burn in open air

79.

A pharmacy is planning to store both sterile and nonsterile hazardous drugs. According to the guidelines, what is the best practice for storage?

a)

Store them together

b)

Store them in the same container as nonhazardous drugs

c)

Store them in the patient waiting area

d)

Store them in a dedicated refrigerator in a negative-pressure area (for refrigerated antineoplastic HDs)

80.

Which of the following is a potential route of exposure to hazardous drugs for pharmacy personnel during compounding?

a)

Crushing tablets or opening capsules

b)

Counting tablets from bulk containers

c)

Moving HDs within a health care setting

d)

Spill generation and management

81.

What is the first step personnel should take if exposed to hazardous drugs?

a)

Immediately remove the gloves or gown

b)

Obtain medical attention

c)

Flood the affected eye at an eyewash station

d)

Document exposure in the employee’s medical record

82.

Which item is NOT typically included in a hazardous drug spill kit?

a)

A stethoscope

b)

Absorbent, plastic-backed sheets or spill pads

c)

Disposable toweling

d)

Puncture-resistant container for glass fragments

83.

What should be done with nonhazardous pharmaceutical materials?

a)

Discarded in a regular trash container

b)

Disposed of using sharps containers

c)

Flushed down the sink

d)

Incinerated immediately

84.

Why is it important to post signs to limit access to a spill area during hazardous drug cleanup?

a)

To prevent unprotected personnel from entering and being exposed

b)

To notify housekeeping to clean the area

c)

To indicate the area is under construction

d)

To mark the location for future reference

85.

During hazardous drug spill cleanup, why should cleanup proceed from areas of lesser to greater contamination?

a)

To minimize the spread of contamination

b)

To save time during cleanup

c)

To use fewer cleaning materials

d)

To avoid using protective equipment

86.

What is the appropriate action for handling glass and used needles?

a)

Dispose of using sharps containers

b)

Place in regular trash

c)

Flush down the toilet

d)

Burn in an open area

87.

Which of the following is considered a type of waste according to the Occupational Safety and Health Act?

a)

Solid waste

b)

Hazardous material

c)

Infectious waste

d)

All of the above

88.

What characteristic defines a hazardous waste as ignitable?

a)

It has a flash point less than 60°C

b)

It has a pH less than 2 or greater than 12.5

c)

It is liable to explode when in contact with water

d)

It contains a regulated substance above the limit

89.

Which of the following is an example of a P-list waste?

a)

Warfarin >0.3%

b)

Mitomycin

c)

Chloral hydrate

d)

Cyclophosphamide

90.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of hazardous waste?

a)

Ignitability

b)

Corrosivity

c)

Solubility

d)

Reactivity

91.

What is required for every facility that dispenses controlled substances?

a)

It must be registered with the DEA

b)

It must use only P-list waste

c)

It must dispose of all waste in regular trash

d)

It must renew registration every year

92.

Which of the following best describes U-list waste?

a)

A chemical substance that is the commercially pure grade or technical grade

b)

A waste that is always liquid

c)

A waste that is always solid

d)

A waste that is only found in hospitals

93.

Why should hazardous drug-related wastes be disposed of according to EPA, state, and local regulations?

a)

To ensure proper recycling

b)

To prevent environmental contamination and comply with legal requirements

c)

To save money for the pharmacy

d)

To reduce the amount of regular trash

94.

Which of the following is a correct procedure for handling hazardous waste in a pharmacy?

a)

Use thick, leak-proof plastic bags labeled as “Hazardous Drug-related wastes”

b)

Dispose of all waste in the same container

c)

Label all waste as “Non-hazardous”

d)

Store hazardous waste in open containers

95.

How often must a pharmacy renew its DEA registration for dispensing controlled substances?

a)

Every 3 years

b)

Every year

c)

Every 5 years

d)

Every 10 years

96.

Which of the following is an example of a U-list waste?

a)

Mitomycin

b)

Warfarin >0.3%

c)

Phentermine

d)

Nicotine

97.

Which of the following statements best describes Schedule I medications according to DEA schedules?

a)

They have accepted medical use in the United States and a low potential for abuse.

b)

They have no accepted medical use in the United States and possess an extremely high potential for abuse.

c)

They are available over the counter and have minimal side effects.

d)

They are only prescribed for severe pain and have moderate potential for abuse.

98.

Which of the following is an example of a Schedule I narcotic?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Heroin

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Codeine

99.

Which drug is NOT classified as a Schedule I narcotic?

a)

Marijuana (cannabis)

b)

Methaqualone

c)

Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)

d)

Acetaminophen

100.

Why are Schedule I drugs considered to have a high potential for abuse?

a)

They are commonly prescribed for medical use.

b)

They have no accepted medical use and can lead to severe psychological or physical dependence.

c)

They are available in pharmacies without a prescription.

d)

They are used to treat minor illnesses.