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Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing Test One: Weight-lifting

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which foundational theory in psychiatric mental health nursing emphasizes the importance of human growth and development?

a)

Cognitive theory

b)

Developmental theory

c)

Humanistic theory

d)

Social cognitive theory

2.

What is the primary goal of milieu therapy in a mental health setting?

a)

To provide medication management

b)

To create a healing environment

c)

To focus on individual therapy

d)

To ensure client autonomy

3.

Which of the following is a principle of the psychosocial environment in mental health care?

a)

Providing physical safety only

b)

Balancing client autonomy and independence

c)

Focusing solely on medication adherence

d)

Ensuring strict rules without flexibility

4.

Which prevention strategy focuses on reducing risk factors before the clinical manifestation of mental illness?

a)

Primary prevention

b)

Secondary prevention

c)

Tertiary prevention

d)

Quaternary prevention

5.

What is the nurse's role in therapeutic communication with mental health clients?

a)

To provide nontherapeutic techniques

b)

To establish a working alliance and build trust

c)

To focus solely on medication administration

d)

To avoid discussing sensitive topics

6.

Which adverse childhood experience is associated with an increased risk of developing serious mental health issues?

a)

Physical abuse

b)

Parental separation

c)

Witnessing traumatic events

d)

All of the above

7.

What is the primary focus of tertiary prevention in mental health care?

a)

Early detection of mental illness

b)

Reduction of disabling effects of mental illness

c)

Screening and education

d)

Reduction of risk factors

8.

Which factor is considered a social determinant of mental health?

a)

Client's birthplace

b)

Socioeconomic status

c)

Food security

d)

All of the above

9.

What is the primary purpose of debriefing after the use of restraints or seclusion?

4 lines
10.

Which of the following is a nurse's responsibility when caring for a client in restraints?

a)

Providing hydration and food

b)

Ensuring ongoing assessment of circulation and skin integrity

c)

Offering reassurance and support

d)

All of the above

11.

What is the difference between capacity and competence in mental health care?

a)

Capacity is a legal term, while competence is a medical term.

b)

Capacity refers to cognitive processes, while competence refers to global impairment.

c)

Competence is determined by a medical provider, while capacity is determined by a judge.

d)

Competence and capacity are interchangeable terms.

12.

Which of the following is a consequence of stigma in mental health care?

a)

Improved treatment compliance

b)

Loss of hope and emotional self-regulation

c)

Increased self-esteem

d)

Enhanced quality of care

13.

What is the principle of least restrictive measures in mental health care?

4 lines
14.

Which of the following is a strategy for reducing disparities in mental health care?

a)

Providing culturally sensitive care

b)

Increasing workforce diversity

c)

Promoting cultural and language competence

d)

All of the above

15.

What is a nurse's role in promoting self-care among the care team?

a)

Ignoring signs of burnout

b)

Encouraging emotional exhaustion

c)

Advocating for organizational interventions

d)

Avoiding self-assessment

16.

Which phase in the development of a crisis involves major disorganization when tension mounts beyond a breaking point?

a)

A. Exposure to a stressor

b)

B. Increased anxiety due to ineffective problem-solving

c)

C. Utilizing all possible internal and external resources

d)

D. Breakdown leading to poor coping skills and disorganization

17.

What are the three primary factors that determine whether an individual experiences a crisis?

a)

Availability of professional interventions, coping mechanisms, and financial support

b)

Perception of the event, situational supports, and coping mechanisms

c)

Personality traits, severity of stressor, and physical health

d)

Societal norms, mental diagnosis, and availability of resources

18.

Which of the following is classified as a maturational or developmental crisis?

a)

Experiencing trauma after a natural disaster

b)

Losing a loved one in an accident

c)

Going through puberty or retirement

d)

Being a victim of a violent crime

19.

Which behavior is most commonly associated with aggression rather than anger?

a)

Clenched fists and yelling

b)

Pacing and making verbal threats

c)

Speaking through clenched teeth

d)

Intense discomfort and hypersensitivity

20.

What is the most important factor when assessing risk for aggressive behavior?

a)

Family history of mental illness

b)

Past history of violence

c)

Stress management techniques

d)

Coping strategies used during previous crises

21.

What is the primary goal of crisis intervention?

a)

Long-term therapy to prevent future crises

b)

Resolution of the immediate crisis and restoration to baseline functioning

c)

Avoidance of psychological treatment

d)

Enforcing strict limitations on coping behaviors

22.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended de-escalation technique?

a)

Keeping a calm, steady voice

b)

Avoiding physical proximity and ensuring an exit route

c)

Telling the patient to "calm down"

d)

Using open, non-threatening body posture

23.

What is the purpose of evaluating crisis intervention outcomes?

a)

To assess whether harm was prevented and the patient recognizes anger triggers

b)

To determine if hospitalization is needed

c)

To recommend long-term therapy

d)

To judge the patient's reactions to interventions

24.

What is the primary goal of a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship?

a)

To establish a social friendship

b)

To provide emotional support without boundaries

c)

To promote the patient’s growth and well-being

d)

To ensure the nurse’s personal needs are met

25.

Which phase of the nurse-patient relationship involves setting boundaries and establishing trust?

a)

Pre-interaction phase

b)

Orientation phase

c)

Working phase

d)

Termination phase

26.

During the working phase of the therapeutic relationship, what is the nurse’s primary focus?

a)

Terminating the relationship

b)

Addressing the patient’s immediate needs and concerns

c)

Exploring and resolving patient problems

d)

Avoiding emotional involvement

27.

Which of the following is an example of a non-therapeutic communication technique?

a)

Active listening

b)

Offering reassurance without validation

c)

Reflecting the patient’s feelings

d)

Asking open-ended questions

28.

What is the nurse’s role during the termination phase of the therapeutic relationship?

a)

To avoid discussing the end of the relationship

b)

To ensure the patient becomes dependent on the nurse

c)

To summarize progress and discuss post-discharge plans

d)

To ignore the patient’s feelings about termination

29.

Which of the following is a key characteristic of a therapeutic relationship?

a)

A. Mutual respect and trust

b)

B. Social interaction outside of clinical settings

c)

C. Focus on the nurse’s emotional needs

d)

D. Avoidance of patient autonomy

30.

What is the nurse’s priority during the pre-interaction phase of the therapeutic relationship?

a)

Establishing trust with the patient

b)

Reviewing the patient’s medical history and preparing for the interaction

c)

Addressing the patient’s immediate concerns

d)

Terminating the relationship

31.

Which of the following behaviors demonstrates empathy in a therapeutic relationship?

a)

Sharing personal experiences to relate to the patient

b)

Actively listening and acknowledging the patient’s feelings

c)

Avoiding emotional involvement with the patient

d)

Providing solutions without understanding the patient’s perspective

32.

What is the nurse’s role in maintaining professional boundaries in a therapeutic relationship?

a)

Encouraging social interactions outside of clinical settings

b)

Avoiding discussions about the patient’s emotions

c)

Ensuring the relationship remains patient-centered and goal-oriented

d)

Sharing personal details to build trust

33.

Which of the following is a barrier to effective therapeutic communication?

a)

Using silence appropriately

b)

Asking closed-ended questions

c)

Reflecting the patient’s feelings

d)

Providing validation

34.

What is the nurse’s primary focus during the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship?

a)

Reviewing the patient’s medical history

b)

Establishing trust and defining goals

c)

Resolving patient problems

d)

Preparing the patient for independence

35.

Which of the following is an example of therapeutic communication?

a)

Everything will be fine, don’t worry.

b)

Can you tell me more about how you’re feeling?

c)

I think you should do this to solve your problem.

d)

You shouldn’t feel that way.

36.

What is the nurse’s role in promoting patient autonomy during the therapeutic relationship?

a)

Making decisions for the patient

b)

Encouraging the patient to rely on the nurse

c)

Supporting the patient in making their own decisions

d)

Avoiding discussions about the patient’s goals

37.

Which of the following is a sign that the therapeutic relationship is effective?

a)

The patient becomes dependent on the nurse

b)

The patient demonstrates improved coping skills and

38.

What is the nurse’s priority when a patient expresses strong emotions during the therapeutic relationship?

a)

Avoid discussing the emotions to prevent escalation

b)

Validate the patient’s feelings and provide support

c)

Offer reassurance without addressing the emotions

d)

Focus on resolving the patient’s problems immediately

39.

What is the primary function of the myocardium?

a)

Protect the heart from external damage

b)

Pump blood through the heart and body

c)

Line the heart chambers and valves

d)

Act as a reservoir for blood

40.

Which heart valve prevents backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium during systole?

a)

Tricuspid valve

b)

Pulmonary valve

c)

Mitral valve

d)

Aortic valve

41.

What is the correct sequence of blood flow through the heart?

a)

Right atrium → Tricuspid valve → Right ventricle → Pulmonary valve → Lungs → Left atrium → Mitral valve → Left ventricle → Aortic valve → Body

b)

Right atrium → Pulmonary valve → Right ventricle → Tricuspid valve → Lungs → Left atrium → Mitral valve → Left ventricle → Aortic valve → Body

c)

Right atrium → Mitral valve → Right ventricle → Pulmonary valve → Lungs → Left atrium → Tricuspid valve → Left ventricle → Aortic valve → Body

d)

Right atrium → Aortic valve → Right ventricle → Pulmonary valve → Lungs → Left atrium → Mitral valve → Left ventricle → Tricuspid valve → Body

42.

What is the primary purpose of coronary arteries?

a)

To transport deoxygenated blood to the lungs

b)

To supply oxygenated blood to the heart muscle

c)

To regulate the heart rate and rhythm

d)

To remove waste products from the heart chambers

43.

Which cardiac enzyme is most specific for detecting myocardial infarction?

a)

Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB)

b)

Troponin

c)

Myoglobin

d)

C-reactive protein

44.

What is the normal cardiac output in a healthy adult at rest?

a)

3 to 4 L/min

b)

5 to 6 L/min

c)

7 to 8 L/min

d)

9 to 10 L/min

45.

Which factor directly affects stroke volume?

a)

Heart rate

b)

Preload

c)

Blood pressure

d)

Respiratory rate

46.

What is the primary goal of treatment for a patient experiencing unstable angina?

a)

Increase physical activity

b)

Relieve chest pain and prevent myocardial infarction

c)

Reduce blood pressure to normal levels

d)

Eliminate all risk factors for coronary artery disease

47.

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease?

a)

Age

b)

Family history

c)

Smoking

d)

Gender

48.

What is the primary purpose of a cardiac catheterization procedure?

a)

To measure blood pressure in the arms and legs

b)

To evaluate and treat blockages in coronary arteries

c)

To monitor heart rate and rhythm

d)

To assess lung function

49.

Which heart sound is associated with the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves?

a)

S1

b)

S2

c)

S3

d)

S4

50.

What is the primary function of the sinoatrial (SA) node?

a)

To delay impulses to allow atrial contraction

b)

To act as the heart’s natural pacemaker

c)

To transmit impulses to the Purkinje fibers

d)

To regulate blood flow through the coronary arteries

51.

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of coronary artery disease?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Angina

c)

Hypertension

d)

Peripheral edema

52.

What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing chest pain?

a)

Administer nitroglycerin as prescribed

b)

Encourage the patient to walk to reduce anxiety

c)

Provide a high-sodium diet to improve circulation

d)

Delay treatment until diagnostic tests are completed

53.

Which diagnostic test is considered the gold standard for detecting coronary artery disease?

a)

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

b)

Stress test

c)

Cardiac catheterization

d)

Chest X-ray

54.

What is the hallmark characteristic of psychotic-related disorders?

a)

Impaired motor function

b)

Disconnection with reality

c)

Increased social interaction

d)

Enhanced cognitive abilities

55.

According to the DSM-5-TR criteria, how long must signs of continuous disturbance be present for a diagnosis of schizophrenia?

a)

1 month

b)

3 months

c)

6 months

d)

12 months

56.

Which of the following is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

a)

A. Alogia

b)

B. Anhedonia

c)

C. Hallucinations

d)

D. Avolition

57.

What is the primary goal of treatment for schizophrenia?

a)

Cure the disorder

b)

Manage symptoms and improve daily functioning

c)

Eliminate all risk factors

d)

Prevent genetic transmission

58.

Which of the following is a risk factor for schizophrenia?

a)

Low ACEs (Adverse Childhood Experiences) score

b)

Chronic exposure to cortisol

c)

High socioeconomic status

d)

Lack of family history

59.

What is the primary nursing intervention for a client experiencing delusions?

a)

Agree with the delusion to build trust

b)

Challenge the delusion directly

c)

Focus on the client’s feelings and provide reality orientation

d)

Ignore the delusion

60.

Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

a)

Delusions

b)

Disorganized speech

c)

Flat affect

d)

Hallucinations

61.

What is the primary purpose of antipsychotic medications in the treatment of schizophrenia?

a)

Cure the disorder

b)

Treat both positive and negative symptoms

c)

Eliminate the need for therapy

d)

Prevent relapse entirely

62.

Which of the following is a common side effect of antipsychotic medications?

a)

Increased energy levels

b)

Weight gain

c)

Improved memory

d)

Enhanced libido

63.

What is the nurse’s priority when caring for a client experiencing hallucinations?

a)

Argue with the client to disprove the hallucination

b)

Encourage the client to ignore the hallucination

c)

Ensure the client’s safety and acknowledge their experience

d)

Provide a high-stimulation environment to distract the client

64.

Which phase of psychosis is characterized by severe delusions and hallucinations?

a)

Prodromal phase

b)

Active phase

c)

Residual phase

d)

Recovery phase

65.

What is the primary nursing intervention during the prodromal phase of psychosis?

a)

Administer antipsychotic medications

b)

Monitor for early signs of psychosis and provide support

c)

Focus on rehabilitation and recovery

d)

Ignore symptoms until they worsen

66.

Which of the following is a characteristic of disorganized speech in schizophrenia?

a)

Flat affect

b)

Word salad

c)

Avolition

d)

Anhedonia

67.

What is the nurse’s role in managing a client’s medication adherence?

a)

Discontinue medications if the client reports side effects

b)

Encourage the client to discuss side effects with their provider

c)

Avoid discussing the importance of medication adherence

d)

Allow the client to stop medications once symptoms improve

68.

Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention for a client experiencing catatonia?

a)

Encourage the client to engage in physical activity

b)

Provide a high-stimulation environment

c)

Monitor for physical needs and ensure safety

d)

Avoid interacting with the client

69.

What is the primary cause of peripheral neuropathy in 50% of affected patients?

a)

Nutritional deficiencies

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Autoimmune diseases

d)

Alcohol use disorder

70.

What is the primary function of the autonomic nervous system?

a)

Control voluntary muscle movements

b)

Regulate involuntary functions such as heart rate and blood pressure

c)

Transmit sensory information to the brain

d)

Coordinate reflex actions

71.

Which diagnostic test involves inserting fine needles into a muscle to record electrical activity?

a)

Electromyography (EMG)

b)

Nerve biopsy

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Computed tomography (CT)

72.

Which of the following is a sensory manifestation of peripheral neuropathy?

a)

Muscle atrophy

b)

Tingling and numbness

c)

Foot drop

d)

Uncontrolled muscle movements

73.

What is the primary goal of treatment for peripheral neuropathy?

a)

Cure the condition

b)

Manage symptoms and prevent further nerve damage

c)

Eliminate all risk factors

d)

Reverse nerve degeneration

74.

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for peripheral neuropathy?

a)

A. Genetic predisposition

b)

B. Exposure to environmental toxins

c)

C. Age

d)

D. Family history

75.

What is the nurse’s priority when caring for a client with peripheral neuropathy?

a)

Encourage the client to avoid physical activity

b)

Assess the client’s home environment for safety hazards

c)

Focus solely on pharmacological management

d)

Avoid discussing the client’s pain

76.

Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat neuropathic pain?

a)

Gabapentin

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Aspirin

77.

What is a common psychosocial impact of peripheral neuropathy?

a)

Increased social interaction

b)

Stress, anxiety, and depression

c)

Enhanced emotional well-being

d)

Improved sleep patterns

78.

Which of the following is a recommended safety measure for clients with peripheral neuropathy?

a)

Avoid wearing shoes indoors

b)

Monitor water temperature to prevent burns

c)

Use dim lighting in hallways

d)

Avoid using handrails in stairways

79.

What is the primary purpose of a nerve biopsy in diagnosing peripheral neuropathy?

a)

Assess electrical activity in the muscles

b)

Determine the appearance of the nerve

c)

Evaluate blood flow to the nerve

d)

Detect vitamin deficiencies

80.

Which of the following is a strategy to prevent peripheral neuropathy?

a)

Avoiding exercise

b)

Maintaining blood glucose levels

c)

Limiting physical activity

d)

Ignoring symptoms

81.

What is the nurse’s role in client education for peripheral neuropathy?

a)

Discourage the use of assistive devices

b)

Educate clients about the dangers of operating vehicles with reduced sensation

c)

Avoid discussing environmental toxins

d)

Focus solely on pharmacological treatments

82.

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of autonomic nerve involvement in peripheral neuropathy?

a)

Foot ulcers

b)

Heat intolerance

c)

Muscle atrophy

d)

Tingling in the extremities

83.

What is the primary distinction between delirium and major neurocognitive disorders (NCDs)?

a)

Delirium is progressive and irreversible, while major NCDs are reversible.

b)

Delirium is short-term and reversible, while major NCDs are progressive and irreversible.

c)

Delirium is caused by genetic factors, while major NCDs are caused by infections.

d)

Delirium affects only older adults, while major NCDs affect all age groups.

84.

Which of the following is a risk factor for delirium?

a)

Advanced age and history of head trauma

b)

Neurologic conditions and polypharmacy

c)

Family history of Alzheimer’s disease

d)

Lifestyle factors such as smoking and alcohol use

85.

What is the definitive diagnostic procedure for neurocognitive disorders?

a)

EEG and ECG

b)

Neuroimaging (CT, PET scans)

c)

Autopsy

d)

Mini-Mental Status Examination (MMSE)

86.

Which screening tool is used to assess delirium?

a)

Functional Dementia Scale

b)

Confusion Assessment Method (CAM)

c)

Mini-Mental Status Examination (MMSE)

d)

Global Deterioration Scale

87.

What is the primary nursing intervention for a client with neurocognitive disorder?

a)

Promote independence without safety precautions

b)

Protect the client from injury while promoting dignity and quality of life

c)

Encourage the client to make all decisions independently

d)

Avoid reorienting the client to prevent frustration

88.

Which environmental modification can help reduce agitation in clients with neurocognitive disorders?

a)

Use bright, contrasting colors in the room

b)

Provide a well-lit environment with minimal contrasts and shadows

c)

Place mirrors in the room to improve self-awareness

d)

Increase auditory stimuli to promote alertness

89.

What is the purpose of memory aids for clients with neurocognitive disorders?

a)

To prevent the progression of cognitive decline

b)

To reorient the client and improve daily functioning

90.

Which of the following is a recommended safety measure for clients with neurocognitive disorders?

a)

Install handrails in bathrooms and mark step edges with colored tape

b)

Remove all lighting from the room to promote sleep

c)

Avoid locking doors to ensure freedom of movement

d)

Place scatter rugs to prevent slipping

91.

What is the nurse’s priority when communicating with a client experiencing hallucinations?

a)

Argue with the client to disprove the hallucination

b)

Reinforce reality and use a calm, reassuring tone

c)

Encourage the client to ignore the hallucination

d)

Provide high-stimulation activities to distract the client

92.

Which medication is commonly prescribed for clients with neurocognitive disorders due to Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

Gabapentin

b)

Memantine

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Ibuprofen

93.

What is a common adverse effect of cholinesterase inhibitors?

a)

Weight gain

b)

Gastrointestinal disturbances

c)

Increased blood pressure

d)

Enhanced memory

94.

Which of the following is a recommended intervention for caregivers of clients with neurocognitive disorders?

a)

Discourage respite care to ensure continuity

b)

Encourage legal counsel for advanced directives and guardianship

c)

Avoid discussing long-term care options

d)

Focus solely on the client’s needs

95.

What is the nurse’s priority when assessing a client with delirium?

a)

Monitor for neurologic status and physiological disturbances

b)

Focus solely on cognitive function

c)

Avoid assessing vital signs to prevent agitation

d)

Encourage the client to make independent decisions

96.

Which communication strategy is most effective for clients with neurocognitive disorders?

a)

Use long, detailed instructions to improve comprehension

b)

Speak positively and use short, simple sentences

c)

Argue with the client to correct their beliefs

d)

Avoid eye contact to reduce agitation

97.

What is the primary purpose of physical activity for clients with neurocognitive disorders?

a)

To prevent cognitive decline

b)

To reduce agitation and promote sleep

c)

To eliminate the need for caregiver support

d)

To enhance decision-making skills

98.

A nurse is conducting chart reviews at a mental health facility. Which event is an example of a maturational crisis?

a)

Rape

b)

Marriage

99.

A nurse is caring for a client experiencing a crisis. Which medication should the nurse plan to administer?

a)

Lithium carbonate

b)

Paroxetine

c)

Risperidone

d)

Haloperidol

e)

Lorazepam

100.

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who sustained minor injuries in a motor vehicle crash where their spouse was killed. Which action should the nurse take first?

a)

Determine if the client has thoughts of self-harm.

b)

Ask the client how the accident occurred.

c)

Assist the client in setting short-term treatment goals.

d)

Instruct the client on the use of coping strategies.

101.

Personality development is determined by unconscious experiences in very early childhood, so early that we often don’t remember.

a)

Psychodynamic

b)

Social Cultural

c)

Neuroscience

d)

Humansitic

102.

Which perspective would most likely explain anger as "an outlet for unconscious hostility"?

a)

Social-cultural

b)

Psychodynamic

c)

Behavioral

d)

Cognitive

103.

What is a potential effect of trauma on a young person's social skills?

a)

Enhanced social skills

b)

Difficulty trusting others

c)

Increased popularity

d)

No effect

104.

Client-centered therapists try to appreciate how the world appears from the client's point of view. This is an example of which of the following concepts?

a)

reflection

b)

congruence

c)

self-concept

d)

empathy

e)

unconditional positive regard