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Health Assessment Final

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The four areas to note in a general survey during a health assessment are (a)   , body structure, mobility, and behavior.

Choose from the below words

Appearance

Posture

Gait

Behavior

2.

(a)   is a characteristic of a general survey in the aging adult.

Choose from the below words

Cognitive function

Physical health

Social support

Emotional well-being

3.

The difference between subjective and objective data in health assessment is that subjective data is what the patient says, whereas objective data is what the professional (a)  

Choose from the below words

says

observes

measures

reports

4.

A key component of health promotion is (a)  

Choose from the below words

Nutrition

Exercise

Education

Community Support

5.

Cultural assessment is important in health history and communication because it (a)   serious errors due to lack of cultural competence.

Choose from the below words

can lead to

avoids

creates

prevents

6.

A health disparity is (a)  

Choose from the below words

a difference in health outcomes

a type of health insurance

a public health initiative

a medical treatment

7.

The spiritual history tool that includes faith, importance/influence, community, and address/action is (a)   .

Choose from the below words

Faith

Importance/Influence

Community

Address/Action

8.

(a)   is the assessment technique that always comes first.

Choose from the below words

Formative Assessment

Summative Assessment

Diagnostic Assessment

Norm-referenced Assessment

9.

The best part of the hand to use for determining temperature during palpation is (a)  

Choose from the below words

Palm

Fingers

Back of the hand

Wrist

10.

What type of percussion note is described as medium-loud, low pitch, and clear quality?

(a)  

Choose from the below words

Conga

Bongos

Timbales

Djembe

11.

The function of the diaphragm of a stethoscope is to hear (a)   sounds like breath, bowel, and normal heart sounds.

Choose from the below words

breath sounds

bowel sounds

heart sounds

12.

(a)   develops due to a lesion or disease in the somatosensory nervous system.

Choose from the below words

Neuropathy

Multiple Sclerosis

Stroke

Diabetes

13.

(a)   is an example of visceral pain.

Choose from the below words

Visceral pain

Somatic pain

Neuropathic pain

Acute pain

14.

(a)   is described as persistent and lasting for 6 months or longer.

Choose from the below words

Persistent

Temporary

Short-term

Long-lasting

15.

(a)   produce thick, milky secretion.

Choose from the below words

Mucus

Serum

Plasma

Lymph

16.

The function of the skin that involves the production of Vitamin D is (a)  

Choose from the below words

Synthesis of Vitamin D

Protection against UV rays

Regulation of body temperature

Sensation

17.

The term for dry skin is (a)  

Choose from the below words

Xerosis

Dermatitis

Psoriasis

Eczema

18.

A characteristic of cherry angiomas is (a)  

Choose from the below words

red color

raised surface

bleeding

painful

19.

The acronym ABCDEF stands for (a)   in the context of skin lesions.

Choose from the below words

Atypical

Benign

Cancerous

Dermatological

20.

The presence of clubbing in nails indicates (a)  

Choose from the below words

Lung disease

Heart disease

Liver disease

Thyroid disease

21.

A Mongolian spot looks like a (a)  

Choose from the below words

blue mark

birthmark

bruise

mole

22.

Brown linear streaks in light-skinned people indicate (a)  

Choose from the below words

Melanoma

Lentigo

Nevus

Seborrheic Keratosis

23.

The appearance of sebaceous hyperplasia is (a)  

Choose from the below words

smooth

bumpy

shiny

rough

24.

The type of skin lesion described as "flat and circumscribed, of less than 1 cm" is called a (a)   .

Choose from the below words

Macule

Papule

Nodule

Plaque

25.

(a)   is a skin lesion that is solid, elevated, and less than 1 cm in diameter.

Choose from the below words

Benign

Malignant

Inflammatory

Infectious

26.

The term for lesions that run together, such as hives, is (a)  

Choose from the below words

Urticaria

Psoriasis

Eczema

Dermatitis

27.

The stage of bruising described as "red-blue or purple immediately after or within 24 hours of trauma" is (a)  

Choose from the below words

Contusion

Hematoma

Ecchymosis

Petechiae

28.

A vesicle in terms of skin lesions is a (a)  

Choose from the below words

blister

macule

papule

plaque

29.

A common result of chronic sun damage in aging adults is (a)  

Choose from the below words

Wrinkles

Sunspots

Skin Cancer

Dry Skin

30.

Senile lentigines are commonly known as (a)   .

Choose from the below words

Age Spots

Freckles

Moles

Lentigines

31.

The appearance of keratoses is (a)  

Choose from the below words

Common

Rare

Moderate

Severe

32.

In lighter skin, erythema typically appears as (a)   .

Choose from the below words

Redness

Swelling

Itching

Pain

33.

A common cause of anosmia is (a)  

Choose from the below words

Viral infection

Nasal obstruction

Head trauma

Neurological disorders

34.

The function of the olfactory nerve (CN I) is (a)  

Choose from the below words

smell

taste

sight

hearing

35.

The Optic nerve (CN II) is a type of (a)   nerve.

Choose from the below words

Sensory

Motor

Mixed

36.

The function of the Oculomotor nerve (CN III) is (a)  

Choose from the below words

Eye movement

Pupil constriction

Lens shape adjustment

All of the above

37.

(a)   is characterized by blindness over half the field of vision.

Choose from the below words

Hemianopia

Quadrantanopia

Scotoma

Agnosia

38.

The cranial nerves involved with the Oculomotor nerve (CN III) are (a)  

Choose from the below words

Trochlear nerve

Abducens nerve

Optic nerve

Oculomotor nerve

39.

The term for drooping of the eyelid is (a)   .

Choose from the below words

Ptosis

Eyelid

Droop

Lid

40.

The cranial nerve responsible for the down and inward movement of the eye is (a)   .

Choose from the below words

Oculomotor Nerve

Trochlear Nerve

Abducens Nerve

Optic Nerve

41.

The Trigeminal nerve is a type of (a)   nerve.

Choose from the below words

Sensory

Motor

Mixed

42.

The test used to assess the sensory function of the Trigeminal nerve is the (a)   test.

Choose from the below words

Sensory Test

Motor Test

Reflex Test

43.

A lesion of the pons affecting the Trigeminal nerve might result in (a)   .

Choose from the below words

Loss of sensation

Facial pain

Muscle weakness

Twitching

44.

The CN VI: Abducens is a type of (a)   nerve.

Choose from the below words

motor

sensory

mixed

45.

(a)   is associated with the failure to move laterally and diplopia on lateral gaze.

Choose from the below words

Cranial Nerve VI Palsy

Myasthenia Gravis

Thyroid Eye Disease

Multiple Sclerosis

46.

A symptom of Bell's palsy is (a)  

Choose from the below words

Facial drooping

Loss of taste

Tearing

Pain around the jaw

47.

The cranial nerve responsible for hearing and equilibrium is (a)   .

Choose from the below words

Vestibulocochlear nerve

Trigeminal nerve

Optic nerve

Facial nerve

48.

The ability to hear normal conversation and by the whispered voice test is used to test (a)  

Choose from the below words

Hearing

Vision

Touch

Smell

49.

The primary function of the Vagus nerve (CN X) is (a)  

Choose from the below words

Regulating heart rate

Controlling digestive tract

Influencing mood

Managing respiratory rate

50.

The cranial nerve responsible for the movement of the tongue is (a)   .

Choose from the below words

Hypoglossal Nerve

Vagus Nerve

Glossopharyngeal Nerve

Trigeminal Nerve

51.

What symptom is associated with a unilateral CN X lesion?

a)

Hoarse or brassy voice

b)

Deviates to side

c)

Atrophy

d)

Torticollis

52.

What condition is indicated by a very brisk reflex response graded as 4+?

a)

Normal reflex

b)

Hyperactive with clonus, indicative of disease

c)

Absent reflex

d)

Reduced reflex

53.

What is presbyopia?

a)

A condition where the lens loses elasticity, affecting near vision

b)

A gradual nerve degeneration affecting hearing

c)

A type of cataract affecting the lens

d)

A condition causing loss of central vision

54.

Which of the following is a common cause of decreased visual functioning in older adults?

a)

Presbycusis

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Temporal artery prominence

d)

Head tremors

55.

What is a characteristic of sensorineural hearing loss in aging adults?

a)

Caused by presbyopia

b)

Caused by presbycusis

c)

Caused by cataracts

d)

Caused by macular degeneration

56.

What are pinguecula?

a)

Yellowish elevated nodules on the conjunctiva

b)

Cloudy cornea and opaque lens

c)

Wrinkles around the eyes

d)

Loss of central vision

57.

What is the range of intercostal spaces where the heart extends?

a)

1st to 3rd intercostal space

b)

2nd to 5th intercostal space

c)

3rd to 6th intercostal space

d)

4th to 7th intercostal space

58.

Which valves are involved in the first heart sound (S1)?

a)

Aortic and pulmonic valves

b)

Tricuspid and bicuspid/mitral valves

c)

Semilunar valves

d)

Aortic and mitral valves

59.

What causes the second heart sound (S2)?

a)

Closure of mitral and tricuspid valves

b)

Opening of AV valves

c)

Closure of aortic and pulmonic valves

d)

Opening of semilunar valves

60.

What is a common cause of peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Atherosclerosis

c)

Diabetes

d)

Hyperthyroidism

61.

What is the S3 heart sound associated with?

a)

Atrial gallop

b)

Ventricular gallop

c)

Mitral valve prolapse

d)

Aortic stenosis

62.

What is the characteristic sound of a heart murmur?

a)

Blowing or whooshing sound

b)

Clicking sound

c)

Humming sound

d)

Buzzing sound

63.

Which grade of heart murmur is associated with a thrill palpable on the chest wall?

a)

Grade 1

b)

Grade 3

c)

Grade 4

d)

Grade 6

64.

What is a common symptom of right-sided heart failure?

a)

Distended neck veins and abdomen

b)

Swollen ankles

c)

Chest pain

d)

Headache

65.

What is orthopnea?

a)

A need for an upright position to breathe

b)

A sudden drop in blood pressure

c)

Fainting or sudden temporary loss of consciousness

d)

Swelling in the legs

66.

What is the main difference between arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis?

a)

Arteriosclerosis involves hardening of the arterial wall, while atherosclerosis involves fatty plaque deposition.

b)

Arteriosclerosis involves fatty plaque deposition, while atherosclerosis involves hardening of the arterial wall.

c)

Arteriosclerosis is a type of heart murmur, while atherosclerosis is a type of heart failure.

d)

Arteriosclerosis is a symptom of orthopnea, while atherosclerosis is a symptom of syncope.

67.

Which of the following is a risk factor for atherosclerosis?

a)

Low blood pressure

b)

Obesity

c)

High physical activity

d)

Low cholesterol levels

68.

What does 3+ pitting edema indicate?

a)

Mild pitting, slight indentation

b)

Moderate pitting, indentation subsides rapidly

c)

Deep pitting, indentation remains for a short time

d)

No pitting, leg looks normal

69.

What does a thrill in a peripheral vascular assessment signify?

a)

Normal blood flow

b)

Turbulent blood flow

c)

Absence of blood flow

d)

Decreased blood pressure

70.

What is a common finding in a patient with right ventricular hypertrophy?

a)

Left ventricular heave

b)

Right ventricular heave

c)

Absence of heave

d)

Bilateral heave

71.

Which condition is associated with clubbing of distal phalanges?

a)

Liver disease

b)

COPD

c)

Heart failure

d)

Diabetes

72.

What is the position called when a patient with COPD leans forward with arms braced against their knees?

a)

Supine position

b)

Fowler's position

c)

Tripod position

d)

Prone position

73.

Which lobe is mostly found in the anterior chest?

a)

Lower lobe

b)

Upper and middle lobe

c)

Only middle lobe

d)

Only upper lobe

74.

What does noisy breathing indicate?

a)

Chronic bronchitis or asthma

b)

Pneumonia

c)

COPD

d)

Pleural effusion

75.

What is tactile fremitus?

a)

Palpable vibration

b)

Unequal chest expansion

c)

Noisy breathing

d)

Increased lung sounds

76.

What does decreased fremitus indicate?

a)

Obstruction of bronchus, pleural effusion, pneumothorax, emphysema

b)

Consolidation of lung tissue

c)

Chronic bronchitis

d)

Asthma

77.

Where should auscultation start on the anterior chest?

a)

Supraclavicular areas (3-4 cm above the clavicle)

b)

At the base of the lungs

c)

At the midline of the chest

d)

Below the clavicle

78.

What are bronchial breath sounds characterized by?

a)

High pitched, loud

b)

Moderate pitched

c)

Low pitched, soft

d)

Absent

79.

What is the normal ratio for the anterior (AP) diameter compared to the transverse diameter of the thoracic cage?

a)

1:2 or 0.70

b)

1:1 or 0.50

c)

2:1 or 1.50

d)

1:3 or 0.30

80.

Which of the following is a characteristic of bronchovesicular breath sounds?

a)

Low-pitched, soft, rustling

b)

High-pitched, loud, wheezing

c)

Medium-pitched, harsh, crackling

d)

High-pitched, soft, bubbling

81.

What does hyperresonance in lung resonance indicate?

a)

Lower-pitched sound

b)

Higher-pitched sound

c)

Normal lung density

d)

Increased lung density

82.

What color of sputum is associated with bacterial infections?

a)

Yellow or green

b)

White or clear

c)

Rust colored

d)

Pink, frothy

83.

What is a common symptom of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?

a)

Awakening from sleep with shortness of breath

b)

Difficulty breathing when standing

c)

Continuous cough throughout the day

d)

Increased appetite at night

84.

What is a characteristic of a barrel chest?

a)

Equal AP-to-transverse diameter

b)

Ribs are vertical

c)

Chest appears narrow

d)

AP diameter is less than transverse diameter

85.

What is the purpose of the 6-minute walk test (6 MWT)?

a)

To measure lung capacity

b)

To assess heart rate variability

c)

To evaluate endurance and oxygen saturation

d)

To test muscle strength

86.

Which sound is described as a discontinuous popping over inspiration?

a)

Wheezes

b)

Crackles

c)

Rhoncal

d)

Stridor

87.

What does an increased tactile fremitus indicate?

a)

Decreased lung density

b)

Increased lung density

c)

Obstructed airways

d)

Normal lung function

88.

Which respiratory pattern is characterized by an irregular pattern with periods of apnea?

a)

Cheyne-Stokes respiration

b)

Biot respiration

c)

Chronic obstructive breathing

d)

Normal breathing

89.

What technique is used to assess tactile fremitus?

a)

Using a stethoscope

b)

Placing the palmar base of one hand on the chest

c)

Measuring breath sounds

d)

Observing chest movement

90.

Which of the following is a characteristic of pneumonia?

a)

Infection in either one or both lungs causing inflammation in sacs

b)

Abnormally wide costal angle with slight inspiratory variation

c)

Collapse or closure of the lung, resulting in reduced or absent gas exchange

d)

Allergic hypersensitivity characterized by bronchospasms

91.

What is a symptom of asthma?

a)

Wheezing, dyspnea, and chest tightness

b)

Unequal chest expansion with decreased tactile fremitus

c)

Abnormally wide costal angle with slight inspiratory variation

d)

Infection in either one or both lungs causing inflammation in sacs

92.

What does the term "egophony" refer to in voice sounds?

a)

Abnormal sound of "aaaaa"

b)

Normal response is faint, muffled, and almost inaudible

c)

Normal voice transmission is soft, muffled, and indistinct

d)

Abnormal sound of "ninety-nine"

93.

Which condition is characterized by a severe attack involving the use of accessory muscles, cyanosis, and audible wheezes?

a)

Asthma

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Emphysema

d)

Atelectasis

94.

What is the normal response in whispered pectoriloquy?

a)

Faint, muffled, and almost inaudible

b)

Hearing a clear "ninety-nine"

c)

Abnormal sound of "aaaaa"

d)

Trachea shifts to unaffected side

95.

Which organs are located in the Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ) of the abdominal cavity?

a)

Liver, gallbladder, duodenum, right kidney, adrenal gland

b)

Stomach, spleen, left lobe of liver, left kidney

c)

Cecum, appendix, right ovary, right ureter

d)

Sigmoid colon, left ovary, left ureter

96.

What should be done prior to assessing the abdomen?

a)

Person should empty bladder, keep room warm, person supine, use distraction

b)

Person should drink water, keep room cold, person standing, use music

c)

Person should eat a meal, keep room dark, person sitting, use silence

d)

Person should exercise, keep room bright, person lying on side, use conversation

97.

Which quadrant contains the stomach and spleen?

a)

Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ)

b)

Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ)

c)

Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ)

d)

Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ)

98.

What is the correct procedure for inspecting the contour of the abdomen?

a)

Stand on the left side, look up, then stoop or sit to gaze across

b)

Stand on the right side, look down, then stoop or sit to gaze across

c)

Stand in front, look straight, then stoop or sit to gaze across

d)

Stand behind, look down, then stoop or sit to gaze across

99.

What is a Sister Mary Joseph nodule?

a)

A hard nodule in the umbilicus associated with metastatic cancer

b)

A type of skin rash

c)

A common type of abdominal pain

d)

A type of bowel sound

100.

What does an everted umbilicus indicate?

a)

Obesity

b)

Ascites

c)

Dehydration

d)

Jaundice