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Quarter 2 review Final

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What role do saliva and digestive enzymes play in breaking down food?

a)

elimination of waste products

b)

absorption of nutrients

c)

chemical digestion

d)

physical digestion

2.

After digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins is completed, absorption of nutrients occurs in the:

a)

large intestine.

b)

small intestine.

c)

stomach.

d)

liver.

3.

Faith routinely takes ibuprofen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication for minor aches and pains. She begins experiencing epigastric pain between meals and early in the morning. Her doctor explains that she has developed a sore in the lining of her stomach. What is Faith’s most likely diagnosis?

a)

irritable bowel syndrome

b)

gastroenteritis

c)

hiatal hernia

d)

peptic ulcer

4.

The term gastro means:

a)

esophagus.

b)

gums.

c)

stomach.

d)

tongue.

5.

Weston presented in the emergency department with abdominal pain and nausea after eating a meal that was high in fat. His symptoms indicate which most likely diagnosis?

a)

gastroesophageal reflux

b)

gastroenteritis

c)

cholelithiasis

d)

hepatitis C

6.

Runners who eat pancakes and pasta before a race choose these foods because these foods provide extra energy from:

a)

A. carbohydrates.

b)

B. folic acid.

c)

C. proteins.

d)

D. iron.

7.

Which structure is located within the large intestine?

a)

descending colon

b)

duodenum

c)

jejunum

8.

The digestive organ responsible for elimination of waste is the:

a)

large intestine.

b)

small intestine.

c)

pancreas.

d)

stomach.

9.

The digestive system is also known as the:

a)

nutrient absorption system.

b)

alimentary canal.

c)

elimination canal.

d)

intestinal tract.

10.

Which digestive structure is responsible for the physical breakdown of food?

a)

salivary glands

b)

large intestine

c)

pharynx

d)

teeth

11.

The digestive disorder that may occur if a person abuses alcohol or Tylenol is:

a)

cirrhosis.

b)

constipation.

c)

diarrhea.

d)

ulcers.

12.

The digestive prefix chole- means:

a)

bile.

b)

colon.

c)

cyst.

d)

green.

13.

The substance that is produced by the liver and aids in the digestion of fat is:

a)

bile.

b)

glycogen.

c)

insulin.

d)

ptyalin.

14.

The term hepat means:

a)

bile.

b)

blood.

c)

liver.

d)

yellow.

15.

Ashton experiences pain and burning in the epigastric region when laying flat in bed after eating a meal. Ashton's condition improves when the head of the bed is raised. Ashton's most likely diagnosis is:

a)

gastroesophageal reflux.

b)

gastroenteritis.

16.

Which condition is characterized by constipation or diarrhea, abdominal pain, and gas or bloating?

a)

irritable bowel syndrome

b)

peptic ulcer

c)

hepatitis

d)

cirrhosis

17.

Food must be mechanically broken down in the buccal cavity before being swallowed. Teeth are responsible for tearing and grinding food. Which organ aids in both chewing and swallowing the bolus once formed?

a)

esophagus

b)

gingiva

c)

tongue

d)

uvula

18.

Weston feels an increase in stress related to completing graduation requirements and preparing for final exams. He could be at risk for developing:

a)

a peptic ulcer.

b)

constipation.

c)

cirrhosis.

d)

diarrhea.

19.

Eating a diet high in calcium will improve the health of one's bones, teeth, and nervous system as well as:

a)

heal damaged tissue.

b)

aid in blood clotting.

c)

produce energy.

d)

store fat.

20.

The teeth and tongue contribute to which function of the digestive system?

a)

elimination of waste products

b)

physical breakdown of food

c)

chemical digestion of food

d)

absorption of nutrients

21.

The medical prefix enter means:

a)

esophagus.

b)

intestine.

c)

sphincter.

d)

stomach.

22.

Which are the primary structures of the gastrointestinal tract that food passes through during the digestion process?

a)

larynx, stomach, gallbladder, small intestine, rectum

b)

pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, colon

c)

esophagus, stomach, liver, small intestine, rectum

23.

Enzymes are necessary to break down carbohydrates, fats, and proteins to be used by the body. The feather-shaped organ that produces digestive enzymes and empties them into the duodenum to continue the chemical breakdown of food is the:

a)

salivary gland.

b)

gallbladder.

c)

pancreas.

d)

liver.

24.

Which is a primary structure of the digestive system?

a)

salivary gland

b)

gall bladder

c)

esophagus

d)

tongue

25.

Which structure is an accessory organ of the digestive system?

a)

esophagus

b)

gallbladder

c)

mouth

d)

rectum

26.

Water absorption, bacterial action, fecal formation, and defecation are all functions of the:

a)

small intestine.

b)

large intestine.

c)

stomach.

d)

liver.

27.

The digestive organ responsible for absorption of nutrients is the:

a)

large intestine.

b)

small intestine.

c)

pancreas.

d)

stomach.

28.

How is chyme different from a bolus?

a)

A. A bolus moves through the digestive tract by peristalsis.

b)

B. A bolus is produced by chemical digestion.

c)

C. Chyme is acted on by enzymes.

d)

D. Chyme is a liquid.

29.

People who contract this viral infection are often unaware of symptoms and may become chronic carriers. What is the name of this asymptomatic disorder?

a)

gastroesophageal reflux

b)

gastroenteritis

c)

cholelithiasis

d)

hepatitis C

30.

The medical term for excessive urination is:

a)

incontinence.

b)

nocturia.

c)

oliguria.

d)

polyuria.

31.

Which step of the urine formation process transports creatinine, hydrogen ions, potassium ions and some drugs from the blood to the collecting tubules?

a)

elimination

b)

filtration

c)

reabsorption

d)

secretion

32.

When a patient has problems with urinary incontinence, he/she may worry about which urinary function?

a)

maintaining fluid balance in the body

b)

passing urine through the ureters

c)

filtering impurities from the urine

d)

storing and eliminating urine

33.

As filtrate passes through the descending loop of Henle, which substance is reabsorbed in the largest amount?

a)

chloride

b)

potassium

c)

sodium

d)

water

34.

Which structure is a hollow muscular sac?

a)

bladder

b)

kidney

c)

ureter

d)

urethra

35.

The Bowman's capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, and loop of Henle are all parts of the:

a)

adrenal gland.

b)

nephron.

c)

bladder.

d)

ureter.

36.

Jack takes his blood pressure medicine every morning. After taking his medicine, he experiences urinary frequency. What type of blood pressure medicine is Jack taking?

a)

ADH

b)

antibiotic

c)

diuretic

d)

renin

37.

What renal function does hemodialysis replace?

a)

urgency to urinate

b)

urine production

c)

hormones

d)

filtration

38.

Mr. Gavin has a disorder that affects the release of ADH. Which function of the urinary system is affected?

a)

elimination

b)

filtration

c)

reabsorption

d)

secretion

39.

Mr. Burns had a stroke and has been urinating involuntarily. What is this condition called?

a)

cystitis

b)

glomerulonephritis

c)

incontinence

d)

pyuria

40.

Which urinary process is impaired during dehydration if the proximal convoluted tubules are unable to correct water imbalances?

a)

A. diffusion

b)

B. filtration

c)

C. reabsorption

d)

D. secretion

41.

Which part of the kidney contains the functional units known as nephrons?

a)

renal medulla

b)

renal capsule

c)

renal cortex

d)

renal pelvis

42.

Casey has a history of frequent urinary tract infections and is noncompliant with taking her medicine. She developed acute glomerulonephritis, with symptoms of severe flank pain and fever. Which process of urine formation was damaged by this condition?

a)

excretion

b)

filtration

c)

reabsorption

d)

secretion

43.

For a person who drinks large quantities of water, which symptom is normal to experience?

a)

anuria

b)

glycosuria

c)

hematuria

d)

polyuria

44.

Which component of the urinary system may be blocked by a large kidney stone causing severe flank pain and hydronephrosis?

a)

bladder

b)

nephron

c)

ureter

d)

urethra

45.

Urine leaves the kidney by way of the:

a)

glomerulus.

b)

nephron.

c)

ureter.

d)

urethra.

46.

The outer layer of the kidney that contains nephrons is the:

a)

capsule.

b)

cortex.

c)

medulla.

d)

renin.

47.

Which function of the urinary system leads to the elimination of excessive substances in the urine, such as sodium and potassium?

a)

diffusion

b)

filtration

c)

reabsorption

d)

secretion

48.

A fifty-year-old patient was recently diagnosed with diabetes. The urinalysis revealed glycosuria, indicating that the patient’s kidney exceeded its threshold. Which process of urine formation was ineffective?

a)

excretion

b)

filtration

c)

reabsorption

d)

secretion

49.

Jessica is experiencing hematuria. Which process of urine formation is ineffective for Jessica?

a)

excretion

b)

filtration

c)

reabsorption

d)

secretion

50.

A fifty-year-old patient was recently diagnosed with diabetes. The urinalysis revealed glycosuria, indicating that the patient’s kidney exceeded its threshold. Which process of urine formation was ineffective?

a)

excretion

b)

filtration

c)

reabsorption

d)

secretion

51.

A patient sustained an electric shock when she accidentally touched live wires following a severe storm. The shock affected her urinary function and resulted in oliguria and uremia. How will the patient’s symptoms be treated if she develops anuria?

a)

antibiotics

b)

catheterization

c)

hemodialysis

d)

lithotripsy

52.

Dialysis involves the use of a device that rids the body of harmful wastes as blood passes through:

a)

an electrolyte gel.

b)

a biological sponge.

c)

a semipermeable membrane.

d)

chemical neutralizers in a filter system.

53.

A student presented at her doctor’s office with complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and lower abdominal discomfort. Upon examination, the doctor discovered that the student’s hygiene was inadequate. Which organism most likely caused the student’s symptoms?

a)

Clostridium difficile

b)

Staphylococcus

c)

Streptococcus

d)

E. coli

54.

Caleb is on the cross-country team at school. He notices that after practice his urine is dark amber in color, and he is only able to void very small amounts. Caleb is experiencing:

a)

cystitis.

b)

dehydration.

c)

enuresis.

d)

polyuria.

55.

Which organ stores urine prior to being released from the body?

a)

bladder

b)

kidney

c)

scrotum

d)

urethra

56.

The part of the brain located below the cerebrum is the:

a)

cerebellum.

b)

diencephalon.

c)

hypothalamus.

d)

thalamus.

57.

Anna is recovering from a fight with Arianne. Anna’s breathing is slowing down, her pulse is slowing, and she is fatigued. What part of the nervous system is responsible for these changes?

(a)  

58.

Michael got into a fight with Andre over his girlfriend. Michael’s heart rate increased, his palms got sweaty, and he felt a surge of energy. What part of the nervous system was responsible for these changes?

a)

parasympathetic

b)

cranial nerves

c)

spinal nerves

d)

sympathetic

59.

Dr. Brown is checking Ashley’s patellar tendon reflex. What part of the nervous system is Dr. Brown assessing?

a)

parasympathetic

b)

cranial nerves

c)

spinal nerves

d)

sympathetic

60.

Trey has symptoms of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. At the doctor’s office, Trey had a lumbar puncture. His doctor is concerned Trey may have which disorder?

a)

hydroencephalitis

b)

cerebral palsy

c)

meningitis

d)

epilepsy

61.

Maria is a 25-year-old female and is experiencing numbness and weakness in her legs. She also feels tingling in her hands. She is always extremely tired and often feels dizzy. The doctor is certain that she has a chronic inflammatory disease of the central nervous system. What is her probable diagnosis?

a)

multiple sclerosis

b)

hydrocephalus

c)

meningitis

d)

epilepsy

62.

The brain and the spinal cord are part of the:

a)

autonomic nervous system.

b)

peripheral nervous system.

c)

central nervous system.

d)

cranial nerve.

63.

The membrane covering of the brain is known as the:

a)

cerebral aqueduct.

b)

choroid plexus.

c)

meninges.

d)

ventricles.

64.

Which lobe of the brain coordinates voluntary muscle movement?

(a)  

65.

Jim sustained significant brain damage to the middle meningeal layer. Which layer of the brain was damaged?

a)

A. arachnoid

b)

B. pia mater

c)

C. ventricles

d)

D. dura mater

66.

A patient sustains a fall while getting out of the shower. Tests reveal damage to the inner most meningeal layer. What structure was damaged?

a)

dura mater

b)

arachnoid

c)

ventricles

d)

pia mater

67.

Mr. Smith is 78-years-old and has begun having tremors and gait shuffling. His family is worried that he may be developing:

a)

Alzheimer’s disease.

b)

Parkinson’s disease.

c)

multiple sclerosis.

d)

cerebral palsy.

68.

A diver sustained a spinal cord injury just below the tenth thoracic vertebra and is now unable to use his legs. This condition is known as:

a)

hemiplegia.

b)

paraplegia.

c)

paresthesia.

d)

quadraplegia.

69.

Joe experienced hallucinations, seizures, and temporary loss of consciousness. An EEG test showed uncontrolled electrical activity of neurons in Joe’s brain. Which disorder was Joe most likely diagnosed with?

a)

epilepsy

b)

hydrocephalus

c)

meningitis

d)

neuritis

70.

Petey has a below-the-knee amputation. He reaches to scratch his removed foot. Petey is experiencing:

a)

phantom pain.

b)

dermal pain.

c)

psoriasis.

d)

urticaria.

71.

Cranial nerves and spinal nerves are part of the:

4 lines
72.

A patient is seen in an urgent care office for an insect bite he suffered one week ago. The patient is experiencing a headache and stiff neck. The doctor immediately sent him for laboratory testing. Which disorder is the doctor concerned about?

a)

multiple sclerosis

b)

West Nile virus

c)

malaria

d)

polio

73.

Melissa fell off a horse and was paralyzed as a result of significant injury to her spinal cord. Which component of Melissa's nervous system is damaged?

a)

autonomic

b)

central

c)

peripheral

d)

sympathetic

74.

In a nerve impulse, messages travel from one neuron to another by way of which sequence?

a)

axon - myelin sheath - dendrite

b)

dendrite - myelin sheath - axon

c)

axon - synapse - dendrite

d)

dendrite - synapse - axon

75.

Kaleb was involved in an ATV accident and sustained a severe injury to the brain and spinal cord. The medical staff at the trauma center understands this injury may cause which substance to leak into surrounding tissues?

a)

cerebrospinal fluid

b)

synovial fluid

c)

chyme

d)

bile

76.

Luke is driving home one evening when two deer run out of the woods in front of his car. Luke slams on the brakes to avoid hitting the deer. Luke feels his heart rate increase and his hands become very sweaty. Which part of the autonomic nervous system has been activated?

a)

central

b)

parasympathetic

c)

peripheral

d)

sympathetic

77.

Jamie experienced tachycardia and dry mouth while getting off a fast roller-coaster ride. Which nervous system structures were most likely activated?

a)

autonomic nervous system

b)

peripheral nervous system

c)

central nervous system

d)

cerebral ventricles

78.

Melissa sustained an injury while riding her horse. She experienced tingling and burning sensations on her lower extremities. What part of her nervous system was damaged?

a)

autonomic

b)

central

c)

peripheral

d)

sympathetic

79.

Liz has trouble with appetite control, temperature regulation, and maintaining a healthy weight. Which area of the brain is affected?

a)

hypothalamus

b)

cerebellum

c)

brain stem

d)

cerebrum

80.

Sarah fell while rock climbing and struck the ground. She is experiencing respiratory distress and is unable to move. Sarah's doctor will most likely diagnose her with which condition?

a)

myasthenia gravis

b)

spinal cord injury

c)

multiple sclerosis

d)

poliomyelitis

81.

A 35-year-old female patient sees her doctor with complaints of weakness in the extremities, double vision, and difficulty speaking. She states that some days the symptoms are worse than others. Which disorder may the doctor suspect?

a)

poliomyelitis

b)

West Nile virus

c)

multiple sclerosis

d)

spinal cord injury

82.

Which area of the brain contains the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata?

a)

diencephalon

b)

cerebellum

c)

brain stem

d)

cerebrum

83.

Which phrase best describes the dura mater meningeal layer?

a)

cerebrospinal fluid that acts as a liquid shock absorber

b)

delicate innermost layer that clings to the brain

c)

tough, durable outer membrane

d)

cobweb-like middle membrane

84.

Impulses enter the neuron by way of the:

a)

myelin sheath.

b)

dendrite.

c)

synapse.

d)

axon.

85.

Which neurons carry messages from the brain and spinal cord to muscles and glands?

a)

nerve impulse neurons

b)

associative neurons

c)

sensory neurons

d)

motor neurons

86.

Impulses travel from one neuron to another by way of the:

a)

myelin sheath

b)

dendrite

c)

synapse

d)

axon

87.

Laura is upset with the progression of her mother’s memory loss. The family first noticed that she was very confused and often made poor decisions. They slowly watched these symptoms progress to an inability to recognize people. What is the most likely diagnosis for Laura’s mother?

a)

Alzheimer’s disease

b)

multiple sclerosis

c)

meningitis

d)

epilepsy

88.

What portion of the brain stem controls heartbeat and respiration?

a)

diencephalon

b)

hypothalamus

c)

medulla

d)

pons

89.

Which part of the nerve cell is specially constructed to transmit a message from one cell to another nerve cell?

a)

myelin sheath

b)

dendrite

c)

neuron

d)

axon

90.

Planning, recalling information, and decision-making are all functions of the:

a)

hypothalamus.

b)

cerebellum.

c)

brain stem.

d)

cerebrum.

91.

A nerve cell is known as a/an:

a)

neuroblast.

b)

neurocyte.

c)

neuroma.

d)

neuron

92.

Matt has a tumor that is causing difficulty with the transmission of visual messages to the brain. What structure is impaired?

a)

optic nerve

b)

optic disk

c)

cones

d)

rods

93.

What is the window of the eye?

a)

cornea

b)

iris

c)

retina

d)

sclera

94.

Hyperopia is to myopia as:

a)

farsightedness is to nearsightedness.

b)

nearsightedness is to farsightedness.

c)

glaucoma is to conjunctivitis.

d)

presbyopia is to astigmatism.

95.

The structure made of bone and cartilage in the nose that separates the nasal cavity into two nostrils is the:

a)

olfactory bulb.

b)

nasal septum.

c)

frontal bone.

d)

nasal polyp.

96.

Keshia developed white patches on her tongue after taking a long course of antibiotics. Which condition is Keshia most likely experiencing?

a)

strawberry tongue

b)

strep throat

c)

glossitis

d)

thrush

97.

Which parts of the ear does the tympanic membrane separate?

a)

pinna and ear canal

b)

outer and inner ear

c)

middle and inner ear

d)

outer and middle ear

98.

Marshall went to the doctor due to a reddened, swollen, painful area on his eyelid. The doctor explained that he had developed an abscess at the base of an eyelash and recommended placing a warm, wet compress over the eye to promote drainage. What disorder has Marshall been diagnosed with?

a)

detached retina

b)

conjunctivitis

c)

hordeolum

d)

glaucoma

99.

Joe has impacted ear wax in his right ear. What sensory disorder does he have?

a)

Conductive hearing loss

b)

Sensorineural hearing loss

c)

Tinnitus

d)

Color blindness

100.

Anna has difficulty driving at night. What structure is impaired?

a)

optic nerve

b)

optic disk

c)

cones

d)

rods