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1st MOCK PCT EXAM

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 8hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient is unable to get out of bed. Which position should the PCT place the patient in for eating?

a)

Supine

b)

Fowler’s

c)

Prone

d)

Trendelenburg

2.

When transferring a patient from bed to wheelchair, the PCT should:

a)

Place the wheelchair on the opposite side of the bed

b)

Lock the wheels of the wheelchair

c)

Leave the footrests down

d)

Position the wheelchair at the foot of the bed

3.

Which of the following would indicate intake?

a)

IV fluids

b)

Vomit

c)

Urine output

d)

Stool

4.

A patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. What is the PCT’s first action?

a)

Administer medication

b)

Activate the emergency response system

c)

Document and wait

d)

Call the family

5.

Which action demonstrates active listening?

a)

Interrupting the patient

b)

Maintaining eye contact and nodding

c)

Looking at your watch

d)

Changing the topic

6.

A patient ordered strict intake and output needs documentation of:

a)

Amount of IV fluids

b)

Number of visitors

c)

Position in bed

d)

Temperature of the room

7.

Which is the correct order for giving a bed bath?

a)

A. Eyes, face, arms, chest, abdomen, legs, perineal

b)

B. Legs, perineal, chest, arms, face

c)

C. Face, chest, perineal, legs, arms

d)

D. Chest, arms, eyes, perineal, legs

8.

A patient has redness on the sacral area. This could indicate:

a)

Early pressure injury

b)

Infection

c)

Normal skin

d)

Rash

9.

Which device helps prevent blood clots in a patient with limited mobility?

a)

Sequential compression device (SCD)

b)

Oxygen nasal cannula

c)

Foley catheter

d)

Incentive spirometer

10.

Normal adult respiratory rate is:

a)

8–12

b)

12–20

c)

20–28

d)

28–32

11.

A patient is recovering from surgery. How should the PCT prevent falls?

a)

Keep call light out of reach

b)

Lock bed wheels

c)

Leave the bed high

d)

Remove non-skid socks

12.

A patient reports dizziness when standing. The PCT should:

a)

Tell the patient to walk faster

b)

Assist patient to sit or lie down

c)

Ignore the complaint

d)

Call security

13.

Which vital sign indicates a possible emergency?

a)

BP 120/80

b)

Pulse 100

c)

SpO2 85%

d)

Temp 98.6°F

14.

When helping a patient use a walker, the PCT should:

a)

Stand behind the patient

b)

Stand on the patient’s weaker side

c)

Push from behind

d)

Hold the patient’s arm tightly

15.

A patient is vomiting bright red blood. The PCT should:

a)

Give water

b)

Notify the nurse immediately

c)

Document and continue care

d)

Call the family

16.

Which is an appropriate way to communicate with a hearing-impaired patient?

a)

Speak slowly, face the patient

b)

Shout

c)

Talk while turning away

d)

Use medical jargon

17.

The PCT notices swelling and redness around an IV site. This likely indicates:

a)

Infiltration

b)

Phlebitis

c)

Infection

d)

Hematoma

18.

Patient confidentiality is important because:

a)

It protects patient privacy

b)

It is optional

c)

It applies only to nurses

d)

It is only needed for adults

19.

Which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia?

a)

Sweating

b)

Flushed dry skin

c)

Hypertension

d)

Bradycardia

20.

What is the first step when a patient falls?

a)

Move the patient

b)

Assess for injuries

c)

Call family

d)

Document the fall later

21.

The best method to prevent skin breakdown is:

a)

Frequent repositioning

b)

Keeping the patient in one position

c)

Using powder only

d)

Avoiding hygiene

22.

A patient has a Foley catheter. Which is important for care?

a)

Kinking the tubing

b)

Keep the bag below bladder level

c)

Drain into patient’s bed

d)

Leave tubing loose

23.

Which is appropriate for a patient on a clear liquid diet?

a)

Coffee

b)

Salad

c)

Chicken

d)

Mashed potatoes

24.

A patient’s BP is 145/92. This indicates:

a)

Normal

b)

Hypotension

c)

Hypertension

d)

Bradycardia

25.

How often should a patient in restraints be monitored?

a)

Every 15 minutes

b)

Every hour

26.

A patient is confused. How should the PCT communicate?

a)

Speak clearly, slowly, use simple words

b)

Talk quickly

c)

Ignore patient

d)

Ask family only

27.

Which shows proper hand hygiene?

a)

Rub hands with water only

b)

Wash hands for 20 seconds

c)

Quick rinse

d)

Use only gloves

28.

Which technique is used to prevent aspiration while feeding a patient?

a)

Raise head of bed 30–45°

b)

Lay patient flat

c)

Tilt head back

d)

Give food quickly

29.

Which is a sign of respiratory distress?

a)

Slow, deep breathing

b)

Wheezing

c)

Normal saturation

d)

Calm appearance

30.

When assisting a patient to ambulate, the PCT should:

a)

Leave patient unassisted

b)

Use gait belt

c)

Grab patient forcefully

d)

Only guide with hand

31.

A patient has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. What should the PCT do?

a)

Document and report

b)

Ignore

c)

Massage the area

d)

Apply powder only

32.

When applying anti-embolism stockings, the PCT should:

a)

Roll the stocking inside out

b)

Pull quickly

c)

Stretch forcibly

d)

Apply while patient is standing

33.

A patient has a nasogastric (NG) tube. What is essential for safety?

a)

Ensure tube is patent

b)

Clamp without orders

c)

Pull tube slightly

d)

Ignore discomfort

34.

When helping a patient with dentures:

a)

Use force to fit

b)

Handle carefully

c)

Leave in tissue

d)

Boil water to clean

35.

Which is an appropriate way to reduce patient anxiety before a procedure?

a)

Explain the procedure

b)

Ignore concerns

c)

Use medical jargon

d)

Rush through

36.

A patient complains of pain. First step:

a)

Give pain med immediately

b)

Assess pain using scale

c)

Ignore

d)

Document only

37.

Patient refuses care. PCT should:

a)

Force care

b)

Notify nurse

c)

Ignore

d)

Call security

38.

A patient is diaphoretic and weak. Likely condition:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Hypertension

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Fever

39.

When assisting with range-of-motion exercises:

a)

Move joints past resistance

b)

Support extremity

c)

Ignore pain

d)

Force movement

40.

Which shows proper use of a gait belt?

a)

Loosely around waist

b)

Securely around patient’s waist

c)

Over clothing only

d)

Around chest

41.

Patient has difficulty swallowing. What should PCT do?

a)

Thin liquids

b)

Provide thickened liquids

c)

Give ice chips only

d)

Feed quickly

42.

How often should PCT reposition bedridden patient?

(a)  

43.

When measuring temperature rectally:

a)

Use lubricant

b)

Use thermometer without prep

c)

Insert deeply

d)

Leave in for 10 minutes

44.

Patient with oxygen tubing complains of irritation behind ears. PCT should:

a)

Ignore

b)

Use padding

c)

Remove tubing

d)

Tighten tubing

45.

Before ambulating a patient who uses a walker, PCT should:

a)

Lock bed wheels

b)

Remove gait belt

c)

Walk behind bed

d)

Encourage patient to go alone

46.

HIPAA protects:

a)

Patient privacy

b)

Staff break times

c)

Equipment

d)

Visitor logs

47.

If PCT witnesses unsafe practice, first step:

a)

Ignore

b)

Report to supervisor

c)

Document only

d)

Correct immediately without help

48.

Accepting gifts from patients is:

a)

Always acceptable

b)

Never acceptable

c)

Allowed if small

d)

Encouraged

49.

Which demonstrates professionalism?

a)

Arriving on time

b)

Gossiping

50.

Patient refuses care. PCT must:

a)

Document and notify nurse

b)

Force care

c)

Ignore

d)

Call security

51.

Safety protocols include:

a)

Following proper body mechanics

b)

Ignoring wet floors

c)

Lifting without help

d)

Leaving equipment in hall

52.

Which action violates patient rights?

a)

Discussing patient info in hallway

b)

Washing hands

c)

Labeling specimen

d)

Reporting abuse

53.

What is the best way to prevent workplace injury?

a)

Proper lifting techniques

b)

Work quickly

c)

Ignore alarms

d)

Skip PPE

54.

Incident reports are required for:

a)

Patient falls

b)

Routine vitals

c)

Meal delivery

d)

Visitor questions

55.

A patient is verbally abusive. PCT should:

a)

Respond aggressively

b)

Remain calm

c)

Ignore

d)

Retaliate

56.

Confidential patient info can be shared with:

a)

Friends

b)

Nurses involved in care

c)

Family without consent

d)

Public

57.

A PCT fails to follow protocols. This is:

a)

Professional

b)

Negligence

c)

Encouraged

d)

Optional

58.

Safety audits ensure:

a)

Proper care and environment

b)

Faster patient care

c)

Fewer breaks

d)

Staff gossip

59.

Cultural sensitivity includes:

a)

Judging patient beliefs

b)

Respecting beliefs

c)

Ignoring patient wishes

d)

Forcing treatment

60.

Chain of command starts with:

a)

Physician

b)

Nurse

c)

PCT

d)

Family

61.

PCT scope of practice includes:

a)

Administering IV meds without training

b)

Performing assigned tasks

c)

Diagnosing

d)

Prescribing meds

62.

Fire safety protocol includes:

a)

Using elevators

b)

Evacuating calmly

c)

Ignoring alarms

d)

Locking patients in

63.

PPE is required when:

a)

Handling blood or body fluids

b)

Making rounds

c)

Reading charts

d)

Eating

64.

Reporting abuse immediately is:

a)

Optional

b)

Mandatory

c)

Discouraged

d)

Only if serious

65.

Hand-off reports ensure:

a)

Continuity of care

b)

Gossip

c)

Ignoring details

d)

Confusion

66.

Professional behavior includes:

(a)  

67.

OSHA standards regulate:

a)

Patient privacy

b)

Workplace safety

c)

Medication dosage

d)

Meal service

68.

Correct response to a chemical spill:

a)

Leave area and report

b)

Ignore

c)

Clean without PPE

d)

Continue work

69.

Patient rights include:

a)

Refusal of treatment

b)

Forced treatment

c)

Being ignored

d)

Uninformed decisions

70.

PCT documents care to:

a)

Protect patient safety

b)

Punish staff

c)

Skip shifts

d)

Share with public

71.

Most effective infection prevention:

a)

Hand hygiene

b)

Gloves only

c)

Mask only

d)

Isolation only

72.

Contact precautions required for:

a)

MRSA wound

b)

Influenza

c)

TB

d)

Chickenpox

73.

Droplet precautions include:

a)

Gloves

b)

Mask

c)

Gown only

d)

None

74.

Standard precautions include all EXCEPT:

a)

A. Hand hygiene

b)

B. PPE

c)

C. Cleaning equipment

d)

D. Ignoring spills

75.

Isolation signs alert:

a)

Staff

b)

Visitors

c)

Food service

d)

Security

76.

Correct disposal of sharps:

a)

In trash

b)

Sharps container

c)

Sink

d)

Bag

77.

PPE removal order:

a)

Gloves → gown → mask

b)

Mask → gloves → gown

c)

Gown → gloves → mask

d)

Gloves → mask → gown

78.

Blood spill clean-up requires:

a)

Soap and water

b)

Disinfectant

c)

Wipe with towel only

d)

Ignore

79.

Handwashing duration:

a)

5 sec

b)

10 sec

c)

20 sec

d)

40 sec

80.

Airborne precautions include:

a)

N95 mask

b)

Gloves only

c)

Standard mask

d)

Gown only

81.

PCT exposed to patient blood should:

a)

Ignore

b)

Wash hands & report

c)

Continue work

d)

Hide exposure

82.

First step in venipuncture:

a)

Insert needle

b)

Identify patient

c)

Apply tourniquet

d)

Clean site

83.

Correct order of draw:

a)

Light blue → red → green

b)

Red → blue → green

c)

Green → red → blue

d)

Red → green → blue

84.

Correct angle for venipuncture:

a)

15–30°

b)

45–60°

c)

5°

d)

90°

85.

Capillary puncture site:

a)

Fingertip

b)

Earlobe

c)

Forearm

d)

Toe

86.

Blood tube for CBC:

a)

Red

b)

Lavender

c)

Light blue

d)

Green

87.

Complication of tourniquet:

a)

Hematoma

b)

Infection

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hypoxia

88.

Patient ID verification:

a)

Ask name & DOB

b)

Only ask nurse

c)

Assume correct

d)

Label tube later

89.

Specimen labeling:

a)

After sending

b)

Before leaving room

c)

Anytime

d)

At lab

90.

If vein collapses:

a)

Keep needle

b)

Reposition

c)

Use syringe

d)

Pull hard

91.

Phlebotomy safety includes:

a)

Gloves & hand hygiene

b)

Skip PPE

c)

Eat in lab

d)

Ignore spills

92.

Needle stick prevention:

a)

Recap needle

b)

Use safety devices

c)

Use sharps container

d)

Ignore

93.

Proper mixing:

a)

Shake tubes

b)

Invert gently

c)

Leave upright

d)

Tap hard

94.

Patient refuses venipuncture:

a)

Force

b)

Notify nurse

c)

Ignore

d)

Reschedule without note

95.

Tube order for coagulation study:

a)

Light blue

b)

Red

c)

Green

d)

Lavender

96.

Ground lead in EKG:

a)

RA

b)

LL

c)

RL

d)

V1

97.

Somatic tremor artifact caused by:

a)

Electrical interference

b)

Patient movement

98.

Correct placement of V4:

a)

4th ICS RSB

b)

5th ICS LMCL

c)

6th ICS AAL

d)

5th ICS midaxillary

99.

Normal PR interval:

a)

0.04–0.10

b)

0.12–0.20

c)

0.30–0.40

d)

1.0

100.

Patient prep for EKG includes:

a)

Shaving hair if needed

b)

Removing jewelry

c)

Clean skin

d)

All of the above

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