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FBLA Healthcare Administration

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The primary role of a healthcare administrator is to:

a)

Diagnose and treat patients

b)

Code medical records

c)

Coordinate operations and resources to deliver safe, efficient care

d)

Dispense medications

2.

Medicare Part A primarily covers:

a)

Inpatient hospital, SNF, hospice, and some home health

b)

Outpatient physician services and preventive care

c)

Prescription drugs

d)

Medicare Advantage plans

3.

The HIPAA Privacy Rule primarily protects:

a)

Financial information only

b)

Individually identifiable health information in any form (PHI)

c)

Only electronic health information

d)

Facility safety reports

4.

The HIPAA Security Rule focuses on safeguards for:

a)

Paper PHI

b)

Verbal PHI

c)

Electronic PHI (ePHI)

d)

De-identified data

5.

EMTALA requires hospital EDs to:

a)

Collect copays before any service

b)

Offer only telehealth screenings

c)

Provide a medical screening exam and stabilize/appropriately transfer regardless of ability to pay

d)

Admit all patients who arrive

6.

ICD-10-CM codes are used to report:

a)

Inpatient facility procedures

b)

Medical supplies and DME

c)

Professional services

d)

Diagnoses

7.

CPT codes are used to report:

a)

Diagnoses

b)

Inpatient facility procedures

c)

Professional/outpatient services and procedures

d)

Lab catalog numbers

8.

ICD-10-PCS codes are used to report:

a)

Physician office visits

b)

Inpatient facility procedures

c)

Dental services

d)

Ambulance transport

9.

HCPCS Level II codes primarily describe:

a)

Diagnoses

b)

Physician E/M services

c)

Supplies, DME, ambulance, certain drugs

d)

Inpatient procedures

10.

The UB-04 (CMS-1450) form is used for:

a)

Pharmacy claims

b)

Institutional (facility) claims

c)

Professional claims

d)

Dental claims

11.

The CMS-1500 form is used for:

a)

Institutional claims

b)

Professional claims

c)

Prescription claims

d)

Appeals only

12.

MS-DRGs are primarily used to pay for:

a)

Ambulatory surgery center services

b)

Inpatient hospital stays

c)

Physician office visits

d)

Home health

13.

APCs are used for payment under Medicare’s:

a)

Inpatient Prospective Payment System (IPPS)

b)

Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS)

c)

Skilled nursing facility PPS

d)

Hospice per diem

14.

HCAHPS is a standardized survey that measures:

a)

Staff satisfaction

b)

Patient experience of care

c)

Facility safety compliance

d)

Physician productivity

15.

The correct order of the PDSA cycle is:

a)

Do–Plan–Study–Act

b)

Plan–Study–Act–Do

c)

Plan–Do–Study–Act

d)

Prepare–Develop–Standardize–Apply

16.

Root cause analysis (RCA) is best described as:

a)

A prospective hazard analysis

b)

A retrospective investigation after a serious event

c)

A staffing model

d)

A billing audit

17.

Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is:

a)

Used after an event occurs

b)

Used to forecast and prevent failures proactively

c)

Used to assign staff schedules

d)

A method to calculate DRGs

18.

Six Sigma’s DMAIC approach focuses on:

a)

Increasing inventory

b)

Reducing variation and defects

c)

Eliminating communication

d)

Maximizing overtime

19.

Lean process improvement primarily targets:

a)

Additional documentation

b)

Eliminating waste to increase value

c)

Raising prices

d)

Increasing downtime

20.

SBAR stands for:

a)

Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation

b)

Status, Baseline, Action, Result

c)

Scope, Budget, Accountability, Review

d)

Safety, Briefing, Analysis, Response

21.

OSHA’s Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires employers to:

a)

Prohibit HBV vaccines

b)

Maintain an exposure control plan and offer HBV vaccination to at-risk staff

c)

Use only cloth gloves

d)

Report all needle sticks to CMS

22.

In fire response, RACE stands for:

a)

Run, Alert, Call, Exit

b)

Rescue, Alarm/Activate, Contain, Extinguish/Evacuate

c)

React, Assess, Control, Evacuate

d)

Remove, Alert, Close, Egress

23.

Using a fire extinguisher, PASS stands for:

a)

Position, Align, Spray, Stop

b)

Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

c)

Push, Alert, Spray, Sweep

d)

Pull, Attack, Squeeze, Spray

24.

Which item belongs in a red biohazard bag (regulated medical waste) in most facilities?

a)

Empty IV bag without blood

b)

Urine specimen container (no blood)

c)

Gauze saturated with blood

d)

Paper packaging

25.

Preferred hand hygiene method when hands are not visibly soiled is:

a)

Alcohol-based hand rub

b)

Water only

c)

Bar soap only

d)

No need if gloves were worn

26.

Recommended PPE donning order is generally:

a)

Gloves → Gown → Goggles → Mask

b)

Gown → Mask/Respirator → Goggles/Face Shield → Gloves

27.

A Business Associate Agreement (BAA) is required when a vendor:

a)

Sells food in the cafeteria

b)

May create, receive, maintain, or transmit PHI on behalf of a covered entity

c)

Park-cars in employee lots

d)

Provides volunteer services

28.

The HIPAA “minimum necessary” standard does NOT apply to disclosures for:

a)

Treatment

b)

Payment

c)

Operations

d)

Fundraising

29.

HIPAA’s Safe Harbor de-identification method requires removing:

a)

Two identifiers

b)

Five identifiers

c)

18 types of identifiers

d)

All clinical data

30.

Under HIPAA, breach notification to affected individuals must occur:

a)

Within 7 calendar days

b)

Within 30 business days

c)

Without unreasonable delay and no later than 60 calendar days

d)

Only if media asks

31.

Role-based access control supports the principle of:

a)

Open access

b)

Maximum convenience

c)

Least privilege

d)

Random assignment

32.

Two-factor authentication requires:

a)

Two passwords

b)

Two employees to log in

c)

Two of: something you know, have, or are

d)

Two network connections

33.

FHIR is a standard primarily used for:

a)

Financial audits

b)

Clinical data exchange and interoperability

c)

Supply chain barcoding

d)

HR payroll

34.

HL7 messaging is commonly used for:

a)

Music streaming

b)

Clinical system-to-system communication (e.g., lab results)

c)

Construction management

d)

Facility maintenance

35.

For telehealth, licensure requirements are typically determined by the state where the:

a)

Provider lives

b)

Provider is licensed only

c)

Patient is located at the time of service

d)

Health system HQ resides

36.

A key benefit of clinical decision support (CDS) in EHRs is:

a)

Longer documentation time

b)

Automatic denial of claims

c)

Alerts that can reduce adverse drug events (e.g., allergy interactions)

d)

Removal of all privacy controls

37.

An NPI is:

a)

A hospital accreditation

b)

A 10-digit identifier for covered healthcare providers

c)

A billing platform license

d)

A patient account number

38.

Incident reports should:

a)

Include opinions and blame

b)

Be part of the medical record

c)

Document objective facts and be routed per policy (not part of the medical record)

d)

Be shared on social media

39.

The primary purpose of Joint Commission accreditation is to:

a)

Set drug prices

b)

Evaluate and improve organizational quality and patient safety

c)

Enforce local zoning laws

d)

Manage insurance exchanges

40.

A sentinel event is best defined as:

a)

A billing denial

b)

An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical/psychological injury

c)

A near miss

d)

A minor paperwork error

41.

Under HIPAA, patients generally have the right to:

a)

Edit the physician’s note

b)

Access and obtain a copy of their PHI with limited exceptions

c)

Delete the entire record

d)

Force providers to use paper charts

42.

An advance directive may include:

a)

Tax withholdings

b)

Durable power of attorney for healthcare

c)

Driver’s license restrictions

d)

Jury duty excuses

43.

Valid informed consent generally requires:

a)

Coercion

b)

Disclosure, comprehension, voluntariness, and competence

c)

Secrecy

d)

A notary public

44.

Minor consent rules generally:

a)

Are identical in all states

b)

Disallow all minor consent

c)

Vary by state, with certain services allowing minors to consent

d)

Require court approval for all care

45.

The Stark Law primarily prohibits:

a)

Refusing ED care

b)

Physician self-referrals for designated health services to entities with a financial relationship (unless an exception applies)

c)

Nurse overtime

d)

Retail clinic expansion

46.

The Anti-Kickback Statute prohibits:

a)

Free patient education

b)

Any remuneration to induce or reward referrals for items/services reimbursable by federal programs

c)

Posting prices online

d)

Offering charity care

47.

The False Claims Act imposes liability for:

a)

Overstaffing nursing units

b)

Knowingly submitting false or fraudulent claims to the government

c)

Under-communicating with staff

d)

HIPAA violations only

48.

An element of an effective OIG compliance program is:

a)

Eliminating training to save time

b)

Written policies, a compliance officer, training, monitoring, enforcement, and corrective action

c)

Rewarding noncompliance

d)

Hiding hotline numbers

49.

Utilization review (UR) primarily evaluates:

a)

Gift shop inventory

b)

Medical necessity and appropriate level of care

c)

Social media engagement

d)

Facility landscaping

50.

Case management focuses on:

a)

Medical imaging

b)

Coordinating care, discharge planning, and resource use

c)

Parking assignments

d)

Lab specimen handling

51.

The revenue cycle typically begins with:

a)

Denial management

b)

Patient scheduling and registration

c)

Claim submission to the payer

d)

Collections after write-offs

52.

A deductible is:

a)

A fixed fee paid per visit

b)

The percentage of cost a patient pays after the deductible

c)

The amount a patient must pay before the plan starts sharing costs

d)

The annual premium

53.

Coinsurance is:

a)

A fixed dollar copay

b)

A percentage of allowed charges the patient pays after meeting the deductible

c)

A premium subsidy

d)

A provider discount

54.

A copayment (copay) is:

a)

A percentage of cost

b)

A fixed dollar amount paid at time of service

c)

A monthly premium

d)

A tax credit

55.

An out-of-pocket maximum generally:

a)

Excludes coinsurance

b)

Caps the patient’s annual cost-sharing (excluding premiums)

c)

Is illegal

d)

Applies only to dental care

56.

A document that explains payer adjudication and adjustments to providers is the:

a)

Explanation of Benefits (EOB)

b)

Remittance Advice (RA) / ERA

c)

Superbill

d)

Itemized bill

57.

A common reason for claim denial is:

a)

Legible documentation

b)

Lack of preauthorization when required

c)

Accurate coding

d)

Eligibility verified

58.

Modifier -25 indicates:

a)

Bilateral procedure

b)

Distinct procedural service

c)

Significant, separately identifiable E/M service on the same day as a procedure by the same provider

d)

Multiple procedures

59.

Modifier -59 indicates:

a)

Distinct procedural service (separate session/site)

b)

Unrelated E/M

c)

Telehealth

d)

Postoperative care only

60.

A “clean claim” is one that:

a)

Was mailed with a stamp

b)

Is free of errors and can be processed without additional information

c)

Requires multiple appeals

d)

Has no CPT codes

61.

Capitation is a payment model where:

a)

Providers are paid per test

b)

Providers are paid a fixed amount per member per month

c)

Patients pay cash only

d)

Payers pay after appeals only

62.

Bundled payments are best described as:

a)

Multiple invoices per service

b)

One payment for all services in an episode of care

c)

A capitation alternative for primary care only

d)

A pharmacy-only method

63.

An Accountable Care Organization (ACO) typically:

a)

Operates only emergency departments

b)

Is accountable for cost and quality for a defined population, sharing in savings

c)

Sets national medical licensing rules

d)

Manages dental plans only

64.

Value-Based Purchasing (VBP) links payment to:

a)

Only patient complaints

b)

Quality measures and outcomes

c)

Hospital size

d)

Number of beds

65.

Break-even occurs when:

a)

Profit is maximized

b)

Total revenues equal total costs

c)

Variable costs are zero

d)

Fixed costs are negative

66.

Straight-line depreciation is calculated by:

a)

(Cost − Salvage Value) ÷ Useful Life

b)

Cost × Useful Life

c)

Cost ÷ 2 each year

d)

Salvage Value × Useful Life

67.

A capital budget typically includes:

a)

Routine supplies

b)

Long-term assets above a threshold with multi-year useful life

c)

Overtime approval forms

d)

Snack bar expenses

68.

Variance analysis compares:

a)

This year’s goals to next year’s goals

b)

Budgeted results to actual results to investigate differences

c)

Competitors’ profits only

d)

Prices to wages only

69.

An example of an indirect (overhead) cost is:

a)

OR nurse wages for a specific case

b)

Medication used for a patient

c)

Hospital CEO salary

d)

Surgical implant used in one procedure

70.

FEFO (First-Expire, First-Out) is most appropriate for:

a)

Office furniture

b)

Pharmaceuticals and perishable supplies

c)

IT licenses

d)

Staff badges

71.

A PAR level is:

a)

Peak allowable reimbursement

b)

The minimum on-hand quantity to meet demand until next reorder

c)

The maximum annual revenue

d)

A staff performance rating

72.

A value analysis committee typically helps organizations:

a)

Increase the number of unique items

b)

Standardize products and reduce unnecessary variation

c)

Eliminate competitive bidding

d)

Replace all vendors annually

73.

A proven strategy to reduce clinic no-show rates is:

a)

Overbooking every slot

b)

Sending appointment reminders (text/email) and easy rescheduling options

c)

Eliminating late policies

d)

Removing waitlists

74.

To address a patient flow bottleneck at triage, an effective step is to:

a)

Close early

b)

Add capacity/staff at the bottleneck and streamline triage protocols

c)

Lengthen each visit time

d)

Reduce active rooms

75.

Transformational leadership is characterized by:

a)

Focus on transactions and punishment

b)

Inspiring a shared vision and empowering staff to change

c)

Avoiding feedback

d)

Micromanagement

76.

In Lewin’s change model, “Unfreeze” means to:

a)

Finalize the new process

b)

Prepare the organization by creating awareness and readiness for change

77.

A RACI chart clarifies:

a)

Salaries

b)

Project roles: Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed

c)

Medical record retention

d)

Insurance eligibility

78.

SMART goals are:

a)

Simple, Mysterious, Agile, Rapid, Tight

b)

Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound

c)

Strategic, Mandatory, Abstract, Realistic, Timely

d)

Short, Medium, Annual, Recurring, Targeted

79.

Effective meeting minutes should capture:

a)

Every spoken word

b)

Jokes and side comments

c)

Decisions, action items, owners, and due dates

d)

Only attendance

80.

Best practice for language access is to:

a)

Use a minor child to interpret

b)

Use untrained staff

c)

Use a qualified medical interpreter

d)

Decline all interpreter services

81.

An example of a Social Determinant of Health (SDOH) is:

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Housing stability

c)

White blood cell count

d)

Pulse oximetry reading

82.

A risk register typically includes:

a)

Staff birthdays

b)

Risks with likelihood, impact, owner, and mitigation plans

c)

Laundry schedules

d)

Patient meal preferences

83.

Professional liability insurance primarily covers:

a)

Retail theft

b)

Medical malpractice claims

c)

Building fires

d)

Cyberattacks only

84.

A “near miss” is an event that:

a)

Caused severe harm

b)

Was reported to the media

c)

Could have caused harm but did not, due to chance or timely intervention

d)

Requires no analysis

85.

When a patient files a grievance, the best first step is to:

a)

Ignore it

b)

Acknowledge, document, and initiate investigation per policy

c)

Post it in the lobby

d)

Blame the patient

86.

Under HIPAA, which generally requires patient authorization (not just TPO)?

a)

Treatment coordination

b)

Payment activities

c)

Marketing communications

d)

Healthcare operations

87.

Data integrity in health information management refers to:

a)

Data volume

b)

Accuracy, consistency, and completeness across the data lifecycle

c)

Data encryption only

d)

Data deletion frequency

88.

An audit log in an EHR typically records:

a)

Lab reference ranges

b)

Who accessed which records and when

c)

Supply purchases

d)

Patient diet orders

89.

During planned EHR downtime, a standard procedure is to:

a)

Stop all patient care

b)

Use paper downtime forms and back-enter data once systems are restored

c)

Cancel all appointments

d)

Disable phone lines

90.

Business continuity vs. disaster recovery:

a)

They are identical

b)

Business continuity maintains critical operations; disaster recovery restores IT systems and data

c)

Both only apply to finance

d)

Only apply to natural disasters

91.

Under HIPAA, public health reporting (e.g., certain infectious diseases) is generally:

a)

Prohibited

b)

Allowed without patient authorization as permitted by law

c)

Allowed only with court order

d)

Allowed only if de-identified

92.

OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard requires:

a)

Removing all labels

b)

Safety Data Sheets (SDS) and proper chemical labeling

c)

Verbal instructions only

d)

No training

93.

In the Incident Command System (ICS), which is NOT a standard section?

a)

Operations

b)

Logistics

c)

Finance/Administration

d)

Procurement Council

94.

In START disaster triage, a patient not breathing who begins breathing after airway repositioning should be tagged:

a)

Green (Minor)

b)

Yellow (Delayed)

c)

Red (Immediate)

d)

Black (Deceased/Expectant)

95.

An appropriate response to escalating aggressive behavior is to:

a)

Move closer and raise your voice

b)

Maintain safe distance, use de-escalation techniques, and summon security per policy

c)

Turn your back

d)

Remove all staff from the unit

96.

To reduce musculoskeletal strain at a workstation, a best practice is to:

a)

Place the monitor well above eye level

b)

Keep feet unsupported

c)

Adjust chair and monitor for neutral posture; use proper keyboard/mouse placement

d)

Type without wrist support on sharp edges

97.

Health equity efforts primarily aim to:

a)

Standardize prices

b)

Eliminate avoidable, unfair differences in health outcomes

c)

Reduce accreditation surveys

d)

Increase wait times

98.

The “teach-back” method is used to:

a)

Test staff only

b)

Confirm patient understanding by having them explain information in their own words

c)

Replace discharge instructions

d)

Eliminate interpreters

99.

A commonly tracked quality KPI is:

a)

Number of parking spaces

b)

30-day hospital readmission rate

c)

Gift shop revenue

d)

Number of social events

100.

Which activity most likely requires IRB review as human subjects research?

a)

Internal audit for billing accuracy only

b)

Publicly presenting a systematic study of patient survey data to generate generalizable knowledge

c)

Scheduling refresher training

d)

Updating the staff directory