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WorksheetsEmergency Medical Responder Quiz
Total questions: 98
Worksheet time: 49mins
As an Emergency Medical Responder, which of the following should you set as your top priority at the scene of an emergency?
CPR
Patient care
Safety
Traffic control
An Emergency Medical Responder possesses all of the following skills EXCEPT:
defibrillation
medication administration
oxygen administration
bleeding control
Emergency Medical Responder care is usually authorized by:
the National Registry
the patient’s physician
state laws
department bylaws
A careful and deliberate walk around a scene, scanning for dangers or hazards, is known as a:
360-degree assessment
180-degree assessment
270-degree assessment
90-degree assessment
The highest level of EMS provider is:
Advanced EMT
Emergency Transport Technician
Emergency Medical Technician
Paramedic
An Emergency Medical Responder who flees a scene because of potential violence and positions himself behind a brick retaining wall is using which technique?
Cover
Concealment
Distraction
Misdirection
A patient with a terminal illness has an outburst where she yells “Why is this happening to me?!” This patient is exhibiting what stage of the grieving process?
Bargaining
Depression
Denial
Anger
Disease-causing agents are called:
Venoms
Toxemias
Pathogens
Amoebas
Practice to prevent exposure to disease during patient contact is called:
Infection Precautions
Disease Control Methods
Universal Isolations
Standard Precautions
Patients of legal age who are competent and who accept your care are giving ________ consent.
implied
expressed
guardian
minor’s
In an emergency in which a patient is so severely injured that a clear decision cannot be made, you have the right to provide care based on ________________ consent.
implied
expressed
guardian
minor’s
A person who is standing erect, with arms at sides and palms forward, is in a(n) ______ position.
prone
supine
anatomical
lateral recumbent
A person who is lying face up on his back is in a(n) ______ position.
prone
supine
anatomical
lateral recumbent
A person who is lying down on her left side is in a(n) ______ position.
prone
supine
anatomical
lateral recumbent
The opposite of anterior, which refers to the front, is ______, which refers to the back.
posterior
inferior
lateral
distal
Proximal means close, or near the point of reference, and ______ means distant, or far away from the point of reference.
posterior
inferior
lateral
distal
A ____________________________ incident can be aimed at injuring emergency responders such as Emergency Medical Responders.
primary
secondary
tertiary
quaternary
The spinal column is divided into how many sections?
4
5
6
7
How many pairs of ribs are attached anteriorly to the sternum?
9
10
11
12
The ____________________ is the longest and strongest bone in the body.
femur
humerus
tibia
ulna
The shoulder girdle consists of:
the clavicle and the humerus
the humerus and the ischium
the scapula and the humerus
the clavicle and the scapula
After _____ minutes without a pulse, irreversible damage occurs to the patient’s brain.
1 to 2
2 to 3
4 to 6
8 to 10
To determine pulselessness in an adult patient, palpate the _____ pulse. In an infant, palpate the _____ pulse.
carotid, brachial
tibial, carotid
pedal, carotid
brachial, tibial
Your patient is a 58-year-old male. He is unresponsive, breathless, and pulseless. You should perform CPR at the rate of _____ compressions per minute.
100
60
80
120
In CPR, the rate of compressions for adult, child, and infant is how many per minute?
60
80
100
120
A patient is receiving CPR and has had an endotracheal tube inserted by an advanced provider. Which of the following is correct?
The compression rate is 80 per minute.
Pause compressions to perform ventilations.
Defibrillations can no longer be performed.
The ventilation rate is 8 to 10 per minute.
Which one of the following is NOT part of scene size-up?
Taking standard precautions
Determining the number of patients
Identifying the mechanism of injury
Establishing an airway and ventilating
Standard Precautions may include:
A personal flotation device.
Gloves, eye protection, and mask.
A rescue helmet with chin strap.
Turnout gear and reflective tape.
If you observe potential signs of violence at a scene, what should your first action be?
Stabilize the patient.
Contact your medical director.
Turn on your vehicle’s siren.
Retreat to a position of safety.
If you find danger from a threatening person at a scene, do all of the following EXCEPT:
Engage.
Distract.
Retreat.
Conceal.
Common mechanisms of injury include all of the following EXCEPT:
A fall from high place.
Infectious diseases.
A penetrating wound (gun/knife).
Vehicular collisions.
The patient’s response to your question about how he is feeling or what is wrong is called the:
General impression.
Rapid check.
Chief complaint.
Subjective evaluation.
The letter “A” of the mnemonic “AVPU,” used for determining responsiveness, stands for:
Alert.
Anxious.
Altered mental status.
Aware.
If a patient is unresponsive and can’t maintain his own airway and you suspect trauma, open the patient’s airway by using a jaw-thrust maneuver. What is the correct maneuver to use in this situation?
TMJ maneuver
Mandible left maneuver
Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver
Jaw-thrust maneuver
Which of the following terms describes occasional and gasping respirations?
Apnea.
Bradypnea.
Tachypnea.
Agonal.
A person in shock oftentimes demonstrates a pulse that is:
Weak and slow.
Weak and rapid.
Strong and irregular.
Strong and slow.
A finding that is relayed from the patient but that cannot be observed or measured is a(n):
Sign.
Symptom.
Suspicion of cause.
Objective discovery.
The "P" in SAMPLE history stands for:
Past Medical History
Pharmaceuticals Used
Present Illnesses
Primary Complaint
Taking multiple vital signs over time is referred to as:
repetitive evaluation
trending
baseline shifting
redundancy
Which of the following senses is usually NOT used when assessing vital signs?
Sight
Hearing
Touch
Smell
The Emergency Medical Responder must balance the need for rapid response to emergencies with the avoidance of becoming part of the incident itself, using the concepts of:
time, retreating, and blockading
time, spacing, and protecting
time, protection, and avoidance
time, distance, and shielding
The general assessment technique that involves feeling patients with one’s hands is called:
auscultating
palpating
observation
scanning
The "T" in the "DOTS" mnemonic stands for:
Tenderness
Tactile
Time of injury
Toxic
Manual ______ is the technique used to keep the head and neck aligned when the patient has a suspected neck injury.
traction
stabilization
repositioning
blocking
The first part of the head-to-toe examination is:
palpate
auscultate
evaluate
inspect
Accessory muscle use in the neck is an indication of:
high blood pressure
neck injury
blood backing up from the heart
difficulty breathing
The personal space around a patient is _____ feet in all directions.
2
3
4
5
Which of the following is a barrier to communication?
Good lighting
Quiet
Being at patient’s eye level
Distractions
A sign of respiratory distress known as _____ occurs when abdominal and neck muscles are used for breathing.
additional muscle use
anterior muscle use
voluntary muscle use
accessory muscle use
ancillary muscle use
The oxygenated blood supply for the heart is provided by which blood vessels?
The inferior and superior vena cava
The coronary arteries
The lymphatic vascular system
The aortic veins
A patient with asthma may make what type of sound when breathing—a sound that sometimes can be heard even without a stethoscope?
Wheezing
Rhonchi
Rales
Stridor
In the condition known as _____, a patient has difficulty breathing because inefficient beating of the heart causes fluid to build up in the lungs.
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
congestive heart failure
asthma
pneumonia
A _____ occurs when one of the coronary arteries is blocked, preventing blood from getting to heart muscle.
cardiac tamponade
myocardial dysplasia
myocardial infarction
cardiac heart block
A substance that causes an abnormal immune response is called an:
antibody
allergen
antihistamine
atopy
A severe, life-threatening allergic reaction is referred to as what type of shock?
Neurogenic
Septic
Anaphylactic
Cardiogenic
Which of the following is a sign of anaphylaxis?
Slow pulse
Wheezing
High blood pressure
Swelling of hands and feet
_____ is a medication that a person can carry in an auto-injector in case of a severe allergic reaction.
Epinephrine
Dopamine
Atropine
Promethazine
What is a side effect of an Epi-Pen®?
A slowing respiratory rate
An increased heart rate
A calming effect
Flushed skin
A(n) ____________________ is a facility that is capable of advanced care on a 24-hour basis and that meets criteria established by the American College of Surgeons.
Trauma center
Special surgical center
Emergency and intensive care center
Accident care and treatment center
Trauma assessment is largely:
Dependent upon online medical control
Based on patient history and scene observations
A highly specialized process
Based on a hands-on physical examination
Which of the following is NOT one of the five decisions in the scene size-up for the Emergency Medical Responder?
How many patients are involved in the incident
Which hospital to transport the patient
What resources will be needed in order to handle
Whether the scene is safe for emergency personnel
The _____ is a general idea of how bad a person’s injuries may be, based upon the mechanism of injury.
Resource determination
Index of suspicion
Scene assessment and evaluation
Kinetic energy of trauma
The primary assessment includes which of the following steps?
Patient disposition
SAMPLE history
ABCs
Vital signs
The consistent delivery of adequate oxygen to the cells is called:
Circulation
Perfusion
Respiration
Ventilation
The type of shock caused by a failure of the heart is referred to as:
Hypovolemic
Blood loss
Distributive
Cardiogenic
Which organ is particularly sensitive to an inadequate supply of oxygen and may, as a result, cause the patient to exhibit such signs as restlessness and anxiety?
The heart
The brain
The lungs
The liver
A sign of the late stages of shock, in which the body can no longer compensate, is:
A drop in blood pressure
A significant rise in pulse
Very rapid respirations
Incontinence
Bright red blood that spurts from a wound is called __________________________ bleeding.
Venous bleeding
Capillary bleeding
Lymphatic bleeding
Arterial bleeding
In the condition known as a ____________________________, air works its way in between the chest wall and the lung, causing the lung to collapse.
Flail chest
Pneumothorax
Thoracic decompression
Negative pressure syndrome
Which type of dressing should be applied to an open chest wound?
Porous
Absorbent
Occlusive
Form-fitting
In a life-threatening condition known as a ____________________________, a pneumothorax puts pressure on the heart and great vessels of the chest, causing profound shock. What is this condition called?
Hemothorax
Spontaneous pneumothorax
Tension pneumothorax
Paradoxical pneumothorax
The grating sound of bone ends rubbing together is called:
Rubbing
Scour
Stridulous
Crepitus
The force of trauma applied over a large area is referred to as:
Blunt trauma
Penetrating trauma
Ecchymotic trauma
Abrasive trauma
A(n) __________________________ is a cut to the skin and/or to the layers of the soft tissue beneath the skin, caused by a sharp object.
puncture
laceration
abrasion
avulsion
The covering for a wound, designed to control bleeding and to protect the wound, is called a(n):
dressing
hemostatic application
bandage
adhesive compress
Which of the following best describes how a dressing and bandage should be applied?
Place the dressing loosely over the bandage.
Place the bandage over the dressing, securing it as tightly as possible.
Place the dressing tightly over the bandage, but don’t restrict the flow of blood.
Place the bandage tightly over the dressing, but don’t restrict the flow of blood.
Impalement objects usually should be secured in place—EXCEPT when the object is impaled in the:
lung
cheek
eye
neck
The fluid that surrounds the brain is called:
aqueous humour fluid
synovial fluid
hemoplasmatic fluid
cerebrospinal fluid
How many bones are in the spinal column?
22
29
33
44
The posturing that occurs with a closed head injury is an involuntary movement of the patient’s limbs, referred to as:
flexion or extension
superior or inferior
tension or relaxation
reflexive or responsive
An Emergency Medical Responder’s obligation to keep patients from getting hurt further is the goal of:
finding them a shelter.
transporting them to safety.
protecting them from harm.
establishing a safety perimeter for them.
Bruising behind the ears, which is a delayed sign of a skull fracture, is called:
battle sign
Cushing’s sign
Trauma to the skeletal system and associated muscles, tendons, and joints is a(n):
neurologic injury
allopathic injury
orthopedic injury
thoracic injury
The skull, rib cage, and spinal column are referred to together as the:
appendicular skeleton
medial skeleton
basal skeleton
axial skeleton
In a(n) __________________________ musculoskeletal injury, the skin overlying the injured bone perforates the skin from the inside out.
closed
comminuted
osteopathic
open
________________________ force causes an injury away from the site of impact because the force is transferred to other parts of the body.
Twisting
Direct
Indirect
Transverse
Which type of injury occurs when muscles and tendons are overworked?
Sprain
Dislocation
Strain
Disruption
Heat loss involving the transfer of heat to an object without physical contact is known as:
convection
conduction
radiation
evaporation
Most body heat is lost through which part of the body?
The chest and back
The arms and legs
The head and neck
The abdomen and pelvis
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for a patient’s response to cold?
Underlying medical condition
Age
Use of alcohol or drugs
Altitude
A sign of mild hypothermia is:
increased blood pressure
decreased pulse rate
decreased breathing rate
absence of shivering
Which of the following is NOT a congenital disease?
Deafness from birth
Black lung disease
Cerebral palsy
Cleft palate
An acquired disease may result from any of the following EXCEPT:
birth defect
trauma
medical condition
virus
Which of the following components is NOT part of the daily safety inspection for a response vehicle?
Communications equipment
Outside of vehicle
Siren and horn
Medical equipment
An Emergency Medical Responder who is ruled at fault in a motor vehicle crash may be held liable for:
traffic infraction and civil liability only
civil liability only
civil and criminal liability
criminal liability only
The EMS vehicle that the Emergency Medical Responder responds in should be inspected:
daily
weekly
monthly
biweekly
When using warning lights and the siren, the driver of an emergency vehicle should exercise:
the right-of-way in emergencies
due regard for the safety of others
warning signal rules for emergency vehicles
rules for emergency response
What is a factor in more than half of motor vehicle crashes involving emergency vehicles?
Weather
Road conditions
Impaired driving
Speed
