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Emergency Medical Responder Quiz

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

As an Emergency Medical Responder, which of the following should you set as your top priority at the scene of an emergency?

a)

CPR

b)

Patient care

c)

Safety

d)

Traffic control

2.

An Emergency Medical Responder possesses all of the following skills EXCEPT:

a)

defibrillation

b)

medication administration

c)

oxygen administration

d)

bleeding control

3.

Emergency Medical Responder care is usually authorized by:

a)

the National Registry

b)

the patient’s physician

c)

state laws

d)

department bylaws

4.

A careful and deliberate walk around a scene, scanning for dangers or hazards, is known as a:

a)

360-degree assessment

b)

180-degree assessment

c)

270-degree assessment

d)

90-degree assessment

5.

The highest level of EMS provider is:

a)

Advanced EMT

b)

Emergency Transport Technician

c)

Emergency Medical Technician

d)

Paramedic

6.

An Emergency Medical Responder who flees a scene because of potential violence and positions himself behind a brick retaining wall is using which technique?

a)

Cover

b)

Concealment

c)

Distraction

d)

Misdirection

7.

A patient with a terminal illness has an outburst where she yells “Why is this happening to me?!” This patient is exhibiting what stage of the grieving process?

a)

Bargaining

b)

Depression

c)

Denial

d)

Anger

8.

Disease-causing agents are called:

a)

Venoms

b)

Toxemias

c)

Pathogens

d)

Amoebas

9.

Practice to prevent exposure to disease during patient contact is called:

a)

Infection Precautions

b)

Disease Control Methods

c)

Universal Isolations

d)

Standard Precautions

10.

Patients of legal age who are competent and who accept your care are giving ________ consent.

a)

implied

b)

expressed

c)

guardian

d)

minor’s

11.

In an emergency in which a patient is so severely injured that a clear decision cannot be made, you have the right to provide care based on ________________ consent.

a)

implied

b)

expressed

c)

guardian

d)

minor’s

12.

A person who is standing erect, with arms at sides and palms forward, is in a(n) ______ position.

a)

prone

b)

supine

c)

anatomical

d)

lateral recumbent

13.

A person who is lying face up on his back is in a(n) ______ position.

a)

prone

b)

supine

c)

anatomical

d)

lateral recumbent

14.

A person who is lying down on her left side is in a(n) ______ position.

a)

prone

b)

supine

c)

anatomical

d)

lateral recumbent

15.

The opposite of anterior, which refers to the front, is ______, which refers to the back.

a)

posterior

b)

inferior

c)

lateral

d)

distal

16.

Proximal means close, or near the point of reference, and ______ means distant, or far away from the point of reference.

a)

posterior

b)

inferior

c)

lateral

d)

distal

17.

A ____________________________ incident can be aimed at injuring emergency responders such as Emergency Medical Responders.

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

18.

The spinal column is divided into how many sections?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

19.

How many pairs of ribs are attached anteriorly to the sternum?

a)

9

b)

10

c)

11

d)

12

20.

The ____________________ is the longest and strongest bone in the body.

a)

femur

b)

humerus

c)

tibia

d)

ulna

21.

The shoulder girdle consists of:

a)

the clavicle and the humerus

b)

the humerus and the ischium

c)

the scapula and the humerus

d)

the clavicle and the scapula

22.

After _____ minutes without a pulse, irreversible damage occurs to the patient’s brain.

a)

1 to 2

b)

2 to 3

c)

4 to 6

d)

8 to 10

23.

To determine pulselessness in an adult patient, palpate the _____ pulse. In an infant, palpate the _____ pulse.

a)

carotid, brachial

b)

tibial, carotid

c)

pedal, carotid

d)

brachial, tibial

24.

Your patient is a 58-year-old male. He is unresponsive, breathless, and pulseless. You should perform CPR at the rate of _____ compressions per minute.

a)

100

b)

60

c)

80

d)

120

25.

In CPR, the rate of compressions for adult, child, and infant is how many per minute?

a)

60

b)

80

c)

100

d)

120

26.

A patient is receiving CPR and has had an endotracheal tube inserted by an advanced provider. Which of the following is correct?

a)

The compression rate is 80 per minute.

b)

Pause compressions to perform ventilations.

c)

Defibrillations can no longer be performed.

d)

The ventilation rate is 8 to 10 per minute.

27.

Which one of the following is NOT part of scene size-up?

a)

Taking standard precautions

b)

Determining the number of patients

c)

Identifying the mechanism of injury

d)

Establishing an airway and ventilating

28.

Standard Precautions may include:

a)

A personal flotation device.

b)

Gloves, eye protection, and mask.

c)

A rescue helmet with chin strap.

d)

Turnout gear and reflective tape.

29.

If you observe potential signs of violence at a scene, what should your first action be?

a)

Stabilize the patient.

b)

Contact your medical director.

c)

Turn on your vehicle’s siren.

d)

Retreat to a position of safety.

30.

If you find danger from a threatening person at a scene, do all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Engage.

b)

Distract.

c)

Retreat.

d)

Conceal.

31.

Common mechanisms of injury include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

A fall from high place.

b)

Infectious diseases.

c)

A penetrating wound (gun/knife).

d)

Vehicular collisions.

32.

The patient’s response to your question about how he is feeling or what is wrong is called the:

a)

General impression.

b)

Rapid check.

c)

Chief complaint.

d)

Subjective evaluation.

33.

The letter “A” of the mnemonic “AVPU,” used for determining responsiveness, stands for:

a)

Alert.

b)

Anxious.

c)

Altered mental status.

d)

Aware.

34.

If a patient is unresponsive and can’t maintain his own airway and you suspect trauma, open the patient’s airway by using a jaw-thrust maneuver. What is the correct maneuver to use in this situation?

a)

TMJ maneuver

b)

Mandible left maneuver

c)

Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver

d)

Jaw-thrust maneuver

35.

Which of the following terms describes occasional and gasping respirations?

a)

Apnea.

b)

Bradypnea.

c)

Tachypnea.

d)

Agonal.

36.

A person in shock oftentimes demonstrates a pulse that is:

a)

Weak and slow.

b)

Weak and rapid.

c)

Strong and irregular.

d)

Strong and slow.

37.

A finding that is relayed from the patient but that cannot be observed or measured is a(n):

a)

Sign.

b)

Symptom.

c)

Suspicion of cause.

d)

Objective discovery.

38.

The "P" in SAMPLE history stands for:

a)

Past Medical History

b)

Pharmaceuticals Used

c)

Present Illnesses

d)

Primary Complaint

39.

Taking multiple vital signs over time is referred to as:

a)

repetitive evaluation

b)

trending

c)

baseline shifting

d)

redundancy

40.

Which of the following senses is usually NOT used when assessing vital signs?

a)

Sight

b)

Hearing

c)

Touch

d)

Smell

41.

The Emergency Medical Responder must balance the need for rapid response to emergencies with the avoidance of becoming part of the incident itself, using the concepts of:

a)

time, retreating, and blockading

b)

time, spacing, and protecting

c)

time, protection, and avoidance

d)

time, distance, and shielding

42.

The general assessment technique that involves feeling patients with one’s hands is called:

a)

auscultating

b)

palpating

c)

observation

d)

scanning

43.

The "T" in the "DOTS" mnemonic stands for:

a)

Tenderness

b)

Tactile

c)

Time of injury

d)

Toxic

44.

Manual ______ is the technique used to keep the head and neck aligned when the patient has a suspected neck injury.

a)

traction

b)

stabilization

c)

repositioning

d)

blocking

45.

The first part of the head-to-toe examination is:

a)

palpate

b)

auscultate

c)

evaluate

d)

inspect

46.

Accessory muscle use in the neck is an indication of:

a)

high blood pressure

b)

neck injury

c)

blood backing up from the heart

d)

difficulty breathing

47.

The personal space around a patient is _____ feet in all directions.

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

48.

Which of the following is a barrier to communication?

a)

Good lighting

b)

Quiet

c)

Being at patient’s eye level

d)

Distractions

49.

A sign of respiratory distress known as _____ occurs when abdominal and neck muscles are used for breathing.

a)

additional muscle use

b)

anterior muscle use

c)

voluntary muscle use

d)

accessory muscle use

e)

ancillary muscle use

50.

The oxygenated blood supply for the heart is provided by which blood vessels?

a)

The inferior and superior vena cava

b)

The coronary arteries

c)

The lymphatic vascular system

d)

The aortic veins

51.

A patient with asthma may make what type of sound when breathing—a sound that sometimes can be heard even without a stethoscope?

a)

Wheezing

b)

Rhonchi

c)

Rales

d)

Stridor

52.

In the condition known as _____, a patient has difficulty breathing because inefficient beating of the heart causes fluid to build up in the lungs.

a)

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

b)

congestive heart failure

c)

asthma

d)

pneumonia

53.

A _____ occurs when one of the coronary arteries is blocked, preventing blood from getting to heart muscle.

a)

cardiac tamponade

b)

myocardial dysplasia

c)

myocardial infarction

d)

cardiac heart block

54.

A substance that causes an abnormal immune response is called an:

a)

antibody

b)

allergen

c)

antihistamine

d)

atopy

55.

A severe, life-threatening allergic reaction is referred to as what type of shock?

a)

Neurogenic

b)

Septic

c)

Anaphylactic

d)

Cardiogenic

56.

Which of the following is a sign of anaphylaxis?

a)

Slow pulse

b)

Wheezing

c)

High blood pressure

d)

Swelling of hands and feet

57.

_____ is a medication that a person can carry in an auto-injector in case of a severe allergic reaction.

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Dopamine

c)

Atropine

d)

Promethazine

58.

What is a side effect of an Epi-Pen®?

a)

A slowing respiratory rate

b)

An increased heart rate

c)

A calming effect

d)

Flushed skin

59.

A(n) ____________________ is a facility that is capable of advanced care on a 24-hour basis and that meets criteria established by the American College of Surgeons.

a)

Trauma center

b)

Special surgical center

c)

Emergency and intensive care center

d)

Accident care and treatment center

60.

Trauma assessment is largely:

a)

Dependent upon online medical control

b)

Based on patient history and scene observations

c)

A highly specialized process

d)

Based on a hands-on physical examination

61.

Which of the following is NOT one of the five decisions in the scene size-up for the Emergency Medical Responder?

a)

How many patients are involved in the incident

b)

Which hospital to transport the patient

c)

What resources will be needed in order to handle

d)

Whether the scene is safe for emergency personnel

62.

The _____ is a general idea of how bad a person’s injuries may be, based upon the mechanism of injury.

a)

Resource determination

b)

Index of suspicion

c)

Scene assessment and evaluation

d)

Kinetic energy of trauma

63.

The primary assessment includes which of the following steps?

a)

Patient disposition

b)

SAMPLE history

c)

ABCs

d)

Vital signs

64.

The consistent delivery of adequate oxygen to the cells is called:

a)

Circulation

b)

Perfusion

c)

Respiration

d)

Ventilation

65.

The type of shock caused by a failure of the heart is referred to as:

a)

Hypovolemic

b)

Blood loss

c)

Distributive

d)

Cardiogenic

66.

Which organ is particularly sensitive to an inadequate supply of oxygen and may, as a result, cause the patient to exhibit such signs as restlessness and anxiety?

a)

The heart

b)

The brain

c)

The lungs

d)

The liver

67.

A sign of the late stages of shock, in which the body can no longer compensate, is:

a)

A drop in blood pressure

b)

A significant rise in pulse

c)

Very rapid respirations

d)

Incontinence

68.

Bright red blood that spurts from a wound is called __________________________ bleeding.

a)

Venous bleeding

b)

Capillary bleeding

c)

Lymphatic bleeding

d)

Arterial bleeding

69.

In the condition known as a ____________________________, air works its way in between the chest wall and the lung, causing the lung to collapse.

a)

Flail chest

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Thoracic decompression

d)

Negative pressure syndrome

70.

Which type of dressing should be applied to an open chest wound?

a)

Porous

b)

Absorbent

c)

Occlusive

d)

Form-fitting

71.

In a life-threatening condition known as a ____________________________, a pneumothorax puts pressure on the heart and great vessels of the chest, causing profound shock. What is this condition called?

a)

Hemothorax

b)

Spontaneous pneumothorax

c)

Tension pneumothorax

d)

Paradoxical pneumothorax

72.

The grating sound of bone ends rubbing together is called:

a)

Rubbing

b)

Scour

c)

Stridulous

d)

Crepitus

73.

The force of trauma applied over a large area is referred to as:

a)

Blunt trauma

b)

Penetrating trauma

c)

Ecchymotic trauma

d)

Abrasive trauma

74.

A(n) __________________________ is a cut to the skin and/or to the layers of the soft tissue beneath the skin, caused by a sharp object.

a)

puncture

b)

laceration

c)

abrasion

d)

avulsion

75.

The covering for a wound, designed to control bleeding and to protect the wound, is called a(n):

a)

dressing

b)

hemostatic application

c)

bandage

d)

adhesive compress

76.

Which of the following best describes how a dressing and bandage should be applied?

a)

Place the dressing loosely over the bandage.

b)

Place the bandage over the dressing, securing it as tightly as possible.

c)

Place the dressing tightly over the bandage, but don’t restrict the flow of blood.

d)

Place the bandage tightly over the dressing, but don’t restrict the flow of blood.

77.

Impalement objects usually should be secured in place—EXCEPT when the object is impaled in the:

a)

lung

b)

cheek

c)

eye

d)

neck

78.

The fluid that surrounds the brain is called:

a)

aqueous humour fluid

b)

synovial fluid

c)

hemoplasmatic fluid

d)

cerebrospinal fluid

79.

How many bones are in the spinal column?

a)

22

b)

29

c)

33

d)

44

80.

The posturing that occurs with a closed head injury is an involuntary movement of the patient’s limbs, referred to as:

a)

flexion or extension

b)

superior or inferior

c)

tension or relaxation

d)

reflexive or responsive

81.

An Emergency Medical Responder’s obligation to keep patients from getting hurt further is the goal of:

a)

finding them a shelter.

b)

transporting them to safety.

c)

protecting them from harm.

d)

establishing a safety perimeter for them.

82.

Bruising behind the ears, which is a delayed sign of a skull fracture, is called:

a)

battle sign

b)

Cushing’s sign

83.

Trauma to the skeletal system and associated muscles, tendons, and joints is a(n):

a)

neurologic injury

b)

allopathic injury

c)

orthopedic injury

d)

thoracic injury

84.

The skull, rib cage, and spinal column are referred to together as the:

a)

appendicular skeleton

b)

medial skeleton

c)

basal skeleton

d)

axial skeleton

85.

In a(n) __________________________ musculoskeletal injury, the skin overlying the injured bone perforates the skin from the inside out.

a)

closed

b)

comminuted

c)

osteopathic

d)

open

86.

________________________ force causes an injury away from the site of impact because the force is transferred to other parts of the body.

a)

Twisting

b)

Direct

c)

Indirect

d)

Transverse

87.

Which type of injury occurs when muscles and tendons are overworked?

a)

Sprain

b)

Dislocation

c)

Strain

d)

Disruption

88.

Heat loss involving the transfer of heat to an object without physical contact is known as:

a)

convection

b)

conduction

c)

radiation

d)

evaporation

89.

Most body heat is lost through which part of the body?

a)

The chest and back

b)

The arms and legs

c)

The head and neck

d)

The abdomen and pelvis

90.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for a patient’s response to cold?

a)

Underlying medical condition

b)

Age

c)

Use of alcohol or drugs

d)

Altitude

91.

A sign of mild hypothermia is:

a)

increased blood pressure

b)

decreased pulse rate

c)

decreased breathing rate

d)

absence of shivering

92.

Which of the following is NOT a congenital disease?

a)

Deafness from birth

b)

Black lung disease

c)

Cerebral palsy

d)

Cleft palate

93.

An acquired disease may result from any of the following EXCEPT:

a)

birth defect

b)

trauma

c)

medical condition

d)

virus

94.

Which of the following components is NOT part of the daily safety inspection for a response vehicle?

a)

Communications equipment

b)

Outside of vehicle

c)

Siren and horn

d)

Medical equipment

95.

An Emergency Medical Responder who is ruled at fault in a motor vehicle crash may be held liable for:

a)

traffic infraction and civil liability only

b)

civil liability only

c)

civil and criminal liability

d)

criminal liability only

96.

The EMS vehicle that the Emergency Medical Responder responds in should be inspected:

a)

daily

b)

weekly

c)

monthly

d)

biweekly

97.

When using warning lights and the siren, the driver of an emergency vehicle should exercise:

a)

the right-of-way in emergencies

b)

due regard for the safety of others

c)

warning signal rules for emergency vehicles

d)

rules for emergency response

98.

What is a factor in more than half of motor vehicle crashes involving emergency vehicles?

a)

Weather

b)

Road conditions

c)

Impaired driving

d)

Speed