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econ eoy post test q's

Total questions: 145

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The system of markets and trade that links the countries of the world is called the

a)

balance of trade.

b)

foreign exchange.

c)

global economy.

d)

import/export ratio.

2.

Which of these developments has been the most essential factor in the growth of international trade?

a)

widespread use of cell phones

b)

rising demand for bulk commodities

c)

proliferation of container ports serving large ships

d)

increase in passenger jets carrying wealthy tourists

3.

Which service is counted as a U.S. export?

a)

A U.S. business traveler stays at a hotel in Australia.

b)

A French movie attracts large crowds at U.S. theaters.

c)

A Dutch family hosts a high school student from the United States.

d)

A German student pays tuition to attend college in the United States.

4.

An attempt to influence another country's politics is the most common motive for which form of protectionism?

a)

embargo

b)

protective tariff

c)

quota

d)

voluntary restraint

5.

The majority of economists support

a)

free trade.

b)

import quotas.

c)

trade embargoes.

d)

trade restrictions.

6.

What was a central goal of the formation of the European Union and the World Trade Organization?

a)

to ensure fair wages

b)

to regulate investment

c)

to reduce trade barriers

d)

to protect national security

7.

What determines floating rates of foreign exchange?

a)

the black market

b)

government decree

c)

supply and demand

d)

multinational treaties

8.

The United States borrows dollars from foreign investors by

a)

printing dollars abroad.

b)

negotiating agreements.

c)

lending money in return.

d)

selling government bonds.

9.

The United States borrows from foreign investors in order to

a)

finance a trade deficit.

b)

gain influence overseas.

c)

help the dollar appreciate.

d)

obey the terms of NAFTA.

10.

Which of the following concepts explains why a country would both import and export a particular type of good?

a)

comparative advantage

b)

import quotas

c)

product differentiation

d)

voluntary restraints

11.

Which of these supports large infrastructure projects, such as dams, in developing countries?

a)

International Monetary Fund

b)

United Nations

c)

World Bank

d)

World Trade Organization

12.

Why is foreign debt a serious problem for poor countries?

a)

Governments that borrow for day-to-day operations lose elections.

b)

Officials feel pressured to support military policies they cannot afford.

c)

Paying off principal and interest takes a large part of the national budget.

d)

Currency from other powerful countries lowers the value of local currency.

13.

Which of these are examples of nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)?

a)

Sierra Club, CARE, Save the Children

b)

Hong Kong, Central African Republic

c)

Exxon/Mobil, General Motors, McDonald's

d)

United Nations, International Monetary Fund

14.

Movement of money and investments from one country to another is called

a)

capital flow.

b)

debt forgiveness.

c)

goods and services.

d)

industrial commerce.

15.

Economic development is defined as the process by which nations

a)

participate in trade agreements.

b)

strengthen their military capacity.

c)

increase output and improve lives.

d)

provide enough food to meet needs.

16.

Why are stable legal institutions necessary for the economy of a developed country?

a)

Schools provide an educated workforce.

b)

Courts enforce property laws and contracts.

c)

Judicial appointments are rewards for success.

d)

Power and transportation fuel industrial growth.

17.

Why did per capita gross domestic product (GDP) of some least developed countries fall in 2012?

a)

Exports grew faster than imports.

b)

Manufacturers quit hiring children.

c)

Workers began working shorter hours.

d)

Populations grew faster than economic output.

18.

Which aspect of economic development has had the greatest impact on climate change?

a)

use of the Internet

b)

burning of fossil fuels

c)

construction of highways

d)

reforestation of cleared areas

19.

How do high U.S. or European tariffs on agricultural products and clothing hurt least developed countries (LDCs)?

a)

weakening of LDCs' local traditions

b)

smaller market for LDCs' exports

c)

decrease in food for people in LDCs

d)

less incentive for workers in LDCs to migrate

20.

The concept of sustainable development draws particular attention to the well-being of

a)

senior citizens.

b)

other countries.

c)

future generations.

d)

endangered species.

21.

The market value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a given time period is the

a)

wage-price spiral.

b)

consumer price index.

c)

gross domestic product.

d)

net of exports minus imports.

22.

The difference between real and nominal GDP is that real GDP is adjusted for

a)

inflation.

b)

entitlements.

c)

unemployment.

d)

international trade.

23.

Keith lost his job at his company’s telephone switchboard when the company installed an automated phone system. Which type of unemployment did Keith experience?

a)

cyclical

b)

frictional

c)

seasonal

d)

structural

24.

Why is the unemployment rate above zero when the economy reaches full employment?

a)

Most jobs lay off workers when the economy slows.

b)

There are always some people in transition between jobs.

c)

There are never enough jobs for everyone who wants one.

d)

Most workers do not have enough training for the best jobs.

25.

The official unemployment rate may be overstated because it ignores

a)

discouraged workers who have given up looking for a job.

b)

involuntary part-time workers who would prefer to work full time.

c)

workers in the illegal or informal economy who do not report their jobs.

d)

parents who do not want jobs because they are caring for young children.

26.

Which condition is considered normal in the United States?

a)

deflation

b)

stagflation

c)

hyperinflation

d)

creeping inflation

27.

One cause of inflation is

a)

a rise in the cost of production.

b)

a decrease in consumer demand.

c)

a tightening of the money supply.

d)

a growth in the size of inventories.

28.

Business investment is most likely to increase during which phase of the business cycle?

a)

contraction

b)

expansion

c)

peak

d)

trough

29.

A decline in economic activity over a period of at least six months is called a

a)

contraction.

b)

depression.

c)

panic.

d)

recession.

30.

Why is consumer confidence important to the business cycle?

a)

Consumers who lack confidence work longer hours, increasing productivity.

b)

Confident consumers purchase more, increasing business profits and employment.

c)

Consumers who lack confidence spend recklessly, triggering a speculative bubble.

d)

Confident consumers are content with what they have, reducing demand and inflation.

31.

Why did the U.S. government initiate a policy of more frequent intervention during the Great Depression?

a)

to dominate global trade

b)

to stabilize the economy

c)

to prepare for a possible war

d)

to strengthen local governments

32.

What is the primary goal of supply-side economic policies?

a)

to stimulate production

b)

to increase top tax rates

c)

to slow the multiplier effect

d)

to fund new federal programs

33.

Why did Paul Volcker, Federal Reserve chairman during the Carter administration, adopt a tight-money policy?

a)

to stimulate exports to Japan and Europe

b)

to promote investment in new technology

c)

to reduce inflation caused by the oil crisis

d)

to increase employment in manufacturing

34.

What is the principal economic argument for deficit spending?

a)

to cut inflation

b)

to lower the national debt

c)

to increase overall demand

d)

to limit the size of government

35.

Which of these is the best example of fiscal policy?

a)

deregulate airlines so they have to compete

b)

lower interest rates so mortgages are cheaper

c)

create federal jobs so workers can spend more

d)

insure savings accounts so depositors feel safe

36.

Which of these has the most responsibility for monetary policy?

a)

Federal Reserve Board

b)

United States Congress

c)

New York Stock Exchange

d)

Department of the Treasury

37.

When the Federal Open Market Committee decides to use open-market operations, what is it deciding to do?

a)

adjust the reserve requirement

b)

deregulate the stock exchanges

c)

buy or sell government securities

d)

change the terms for lending to banks

38.

Why do fiscal policy measures rarely have an immediate impact on the economy?

a)

Policies are poorly publicized.

b)

The multiplier effect takes time.

c)

People are slow to accept change.

d)

The misery index can be misleading.

39.

The crowding-out effect occurs when

a)

a growing national debt transfers the burden to future generations.

b)

banks with large reserves drive many community banks out of business.

c)

mandatory spending leaves fewer federal funds for discretionary spending.

d)

high government borrowing drives up interest rates, making business investment more expensive.

40.

Why is it not fully accurate to describe the national debt as money we owe only to ourselves?

a)

Government bankruptcy is unlikely.

b)

Most individuals are in debt as well.

c)

The debt will have to be paid off in the future.

d)

About one-third of the debt is held by foreigners.

41.

Which of these sources of government revenue best illustrates the benefits-received approach to tax equity?

a)

A corporation pays taxes on its income.

b)

A driver deposits coins in a parking meter.

c)

A percentage of a large inheritance is paid to the government.

d)

Funds for Medicare are withheld from a paycheck.

42.

Which historical period brought the greatest increase in government involvement in the economy?

a)

Reconstruction (after Civil War)

b)

Gilded Age (late 1800s)

c)

Progressive Era (early 1900s)

d)

Great Depression (1930s)

43.

How do state and local governments typically generate revenue to pay for education, law enforcement, and fire protection services?

a)

payroll and insurance taxes

b)

corporate and business taxes

c)

property and sales taxes

d)

lotteries and municipal bonds

44.

Which of these taxes is the leading source of revenue for the federal government?

a)

corporate income taxes

b)

individual income taxes

c)

inheritance taxes

d)

payroll taxes

45.

How do economists think private ownership most affects property maintenance?

a)

It is helpful because owners have to pay taxes on the property, which the government uses for maintenance.

b)

It is harmful because owners must pay property tax and usually don't have enough money for upkeep.

c)

It is harmful because owners save money by letting property get run down.

d)

It is helpful because owners have an incentive to care for the property.

46.

The U.S. Patent and Trademark Office was established to protect

a)

corporate property.

b)

inherited property.

c)

intellectual property.

d)

public use property.

47.

Most sales taxes are regressive because

a)

taxable purchases are capped at $50,000 a year.

b)

wealthier people pay less tax on a purchase than poorer people would pay on the same item

c)

most people cannot afford to buy such luxury goods as yachts, furs, and diamonds.

d)

poorer taxpayers spend a larger proportion of their income on taxable goods and services than do wealthier taxpayers

48.

Establishment of which regulatory agency is associated with a 60 percent drop in workplace fatalities since 1971?

a)

Consumer Product Safety Commission

b)

Environmental Protection Agency

c)

National Highway Traffic Safety Administration

d)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

49.

To calculate the amount of tax due, multiply the tax base by the tax

a)

rate.

b)

assessment.

c)

return.

d)

referendum.

50.

When a tax becomes a disincentive to work, the resulting reduction in productivity is a form of

a)

deadweight loss.

b)

marginal tax rate.

c)

entitlement.

d)

tax incidence.

51.

When federal expenditures exceed federal tax revenues, how does the government fund the deficit?

a)

by printing additional paper money

b)

by asking not-for-profit corporations for help

c)

by taking a loan from the Federal Reserve Bank

d)

by borrowing money through the sales of bonds

52.

The Internal Revenue Service routinely collects taxes from employees through a system of

a)

withholding.

b)

audits.

c)

assessments.

d)

entitlement.

53.

Food stamps, the Earned Income Tax Credit, and unemployment insurance are examples of

a)

income redistribution.

b)

natural monopolies.

c)

negative externalities.

d)

regulatory capture.

54.

Which of the following best explains why the market is an inefficient way to allocate immunization against infectious diseases?

a)

In a market, too much vaccine is likely to be produced, taking resources from other needs

b)

In a market, competition among manufacturers may result in the production of vaccines that nobody wants.

c)

The revolving door between government and industry gives drug companies too much power to be left to the market alone.

d)

Markets do not take into account that preventing the spread of disease affects people in addition to the producer and the consumer

55.

What is the economic purpose of market regulation?

a)

to assert federal economic power over the states

b)

to translate widely accepted economic traditions into law

c)

to influence the economic behavior of individuals and firms

d)

to improve the United States' comparative advantage in foreign trade

56.

Which of these agencies has primary responsibility for preventing price fixing and bid rigging?

a)

Antitrust Division of the Department of Justice

b)

Consumer Protection Agency

c)

Department of Labor

d)

Securities and Exchange Commission

57.

Which of these is a progressive tax?

a)

excise tax

b)

luxury tax

c)

property tax

d)

Social Security tax

58.

Which of these is a common resource?

a)

bread

b)

pencils

c)

roads

d)

shoes

59.

Which of these questions measures the efficiency of a tax system?

a)

How simple is the tax code to understand and obey?

b)

How fairly are the taxes distributed between rich and poor?

c)

How much of the tax gets into the public treasury?

d)

How well does the system fund the expenses of government?

60.

What was a main contributor to the end of the Great Depression?

a)

World War I

b)

Korean War

c)

World War II

d)

none Parsons D none of the above

61.

Why are U.S. dollars considered money?

a)

They are printed on paper or minted as coins.

b)

They are backed by government-owned gold or silver held in vaults.

c)

Their value rises and falls with the economy.

d)

By law, they must be accepted as a means of payment.

62.

Which of these best explains why gold and silver came to be regarded as money?

a)

They were rare and did not decay.

b)

They could be shaped into jewelry.

c)

They were easy to store in bank vaults.

d)

They came from mines owned by rulers.

63.

The main function of a bank is to bring together

a)

risk and reward.

b)

cash and currency.

c)

savers and borrowers.

d)

officers and customers.

64.

Who are the primary customers of the Federal Reserve?

a)

businesses

b)

governments

c)

individuals

d)

private banks

65.

How does personal saving help the economy grow?

a)

It results in individuals spending less.

b)

It motivates families to make a budget.

c)

It provides funds for business investment.

d)

It causes manufacturers to lower their prices.

66.

What institution determines what fraction of deposits a bank must set aside to be available for customer withdrawals?

a)

Federal Reserve System

b)

New York Stock Exchange

c)

Securities and Exchange Commission

d)

Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation

67.

Which form of business organization is most common?

a)

partnership

b)

corporation

c)

business franchise

d)

sole proprietorship

68.

What is the role of silent partners in a limited partnership?

a)

They work for the company but do not make any investment.

b)

They take an active role in operations but have limited liability.

c)

They have unlimited liability but do not have a voice in decisions.

d)

They contribute capital but are not involved in day-to-day operations.

69.

One advantage of a partnership over a sole proprietorship is that a partnership

a)

faces less regulation.

b)

avoids double taxation.

c)

can get credit more easily.

d)

has easier decision making.

70.

Venture capitalists invest in new businesses in exchange for

a)

broad publicity.

b)

ownership shares.

c)

interest payments.

d)

management jobs.

71.

What is the main goal of a cooperative?

a)

to earn its members a profit on investment

b)

to offer its members low-cost goods or services

c)

to expand by receiving royalties from its members

d)

to provide guaranteed employment for its members

72.

Which of these is a disadvantage of turning a partnership into a corporation?

a)

loss of control

b)

continuity issues

c)

expanded liability

d)

less management skill

73.

Which of these people is part of the labor force?

a)

a career soldier stationed overseas

b)

a laid-off carpenter looking for a job

c)

a retiree who worked 40 years in one place

d)

a mother choosing to stay home with her kids

74.

Which sentence best explains why the number of manufacturing jobs has declined?

a)

Fewer products are now made in the United States.

b)

More jobs are being taken by women and minorities.

c)

Older employees no longer have to retire at a certain age.

d)

Training and technology have increased worker productivity.

75.

Outsourcing is the practice of

a)

letting employees work from home.

b)

setting up factories in other countries.

c)

using outside contractors instead of staff.

d)

hiring temporary workers without benefits.

76.

Which of these principles determines wage rates in a labor market?

a)

collective bargaining

b)

globalization

c)

risk and reward

d)

supply and demand

77.

Which of these is one reason young workers seek entry-level positions?

a)

to receive high pay right away

b)

to avoid expectations of hard work

c)

to start building experience in a field

d)

to enjoy more leisure with other workers

78.

Which period of U.S. history brought legislation most supportive to collective bargaining?

a)

Industrial Revolution

b)

post–Civil War

c)

New Deal

d)

post–World War II

79.

Right-to-work laws in many states prohibit employers from

a)

requiring workers to join a labor union.

b)

promoting only high-performing employees.

c)

laying off workers when business slows down.

d)

making prior experience a condition of employment.

80.

One major reason women earn less than men on average is that women

a)

more often lose experiences by interrupting their careers for family

b)

have become a majority of all paid workers

c)

have less opportunity to learn basic job skills in entry-level jobs

d)

are more likely to look for manufacturing jobs

81.

Select the best answer. The law of demand states that as price decreases

a)

wages decrease.

b)

production increases.

c)

demand increases.

d)

quality decreases.

82.

Select the best answer. Quantity demanded moves along the demand curve in response to changes in

a)

price.

b)

income.

c)

preferences.

d)

expectations.

83.

Select the best answer. Supply depends on the willingness and ability of

a)

donors to contribute.

b)

producers to produce.

c)

advertisers to promote.

d)

consumers to purchase.

84.

Select the best answer. According to the law of supply, what happens as price increases?

a)

The demand decreases.

b)

The quantity supplied increases.

c)

The supply curve becomes flat.

d)

The supply curve shifts to the left.

85.

Select the best answer. The degree to which the quantity demanded responds to changes in price is called

a)

elasticity.

b)

revenue.

c)

schedule.

d)

utility.

86.

Select the best answer. Which of these is the best example of diminishing marginal utility?

a)

A shortage of bike paths makes bicycles less useful.

b)

Bicycles become less useful as they get old and start to rust.

c)

Someone who has one bicycle will have less use for another.

d)

People with cars have less use for bicycles than people without cars have.

87.

Select the best answer. Which of these situations best illustrates market equilibrium?

a)

The price of soap does not vary much from week to week.

b)

Soap production ensures a good profit for the manufacturer.

c)

Everyone who wants or needs soap can easily afford to buy it.

d)

The amount of soap made matches the amount of soap that people want to buy.

88.

Select the best answer. How is the market-clearing price determined?

a)

It is fixed by each manufacturer.

b)

It is reached through trial and error.

c)

It is calculated by economic analysts.

d)

It is set by a government commission.

89.

Select the best answer. The equilibrium price is the price at which

a)

consumers start reducing demand.

b)

producers' total revenue is highest.

c)

demand and supply curves intersect.

d)

neither demand nor supply will shift.

90.

Select the best answer. Which of these might best signal furniture makers to cut back production?

a)

a fall in the cost of essential raw materials

b)

an increase in availability of skilled workers

c)

an introduction of competitors into the market

d)

a drop in the price consumers are willing to pay

91.

Select the best answer. What is the usual result of setting a price ceiling on rents?

a)

People can find apartments but cannot afford to rent them.

b)

Houses are broken up into apartments to meet the demand.

c)

More people want to rent apartments than are available to rent.

d)

Construction jobs increase with the building of new apartment buildings.

92.

Select the best answer. The purpose of rationing during World War II was to ensure that

a)

manufacturers could make a profit.

b)

everyone could get essential scarce goods.

c)

workers would have an incentive to get jobs.

d)

products would go to those who valued them most.

93.

Select the best answer. The most important argument many economists make against price controls is that they are

a)

unfair.

b)

unstable.

c)

insecure.

d)

inefficient.

94.

Select the best answer. As it becomes easier to start a new business in a market, that market

a)

attracts more consumers.

b)

increases transaction costs.

c)

becomes more competitive.

d)

offers higher-quality products.

95.

Select the best answer. In a market with perfect competition, how are prices determined?

a)

by supply and demand

b)

by government regulation

c)

by cultural ideals of fairness

d)

by agreement among producers

96.

Select the best answer. In which market structure do producers have the most market power?

a)

monopolistic competition

b)

monopoly

c)

oligopoly

d)

perfect competition

97.

Select the best answer. Why is competition among restaurants in a big city an example of monopolistic competition?

a)

Starting a restaurant is expensive.

b)

Restaurants often go out of business.

c)

All restaurants serve food, and each restaurant is distinctive.

d)

All restaurants serve people, and one restaurant serves the most people.

98.

Select the best answer. Which of these is the best example of an externality?

a)

You decide to stop snacking between meals.

b)

You enjoy looking at your neighbor's garden.

c)

Your shoe store stops selling your favorite style.

d)

Your new bicycle goes faster than you expected.

99.

Select the best answer. Why do goods made in factories that cause pollution tend to be overproduced?

a)

Some stores stock more than they can sell.

b)

Some costs are not charged to the producer.

c)

Some benefits are wanted by the community.

d)

Some people may refuse to purchase the items.

100.

Select the best answer. Why doesn’t the market system work to provide street lighting and other public goods?

a)

Too few of these services are available.

b)

Important needs cannot be left to chance.

c)

Voters put pressure on local governments.

d)

There is no easy way to charge individual users.

101.

Why might some historians consider Adam Smith one of the most influential people in history?

a)

He taught that all people should be economic equals.

b)

He introduced a way of thinking about economic ideas.

c)

He argued for a larger role for the government in the economy.

d)

He wrote the economic argument for American independence.

102.

Which of these statements is an example of normative economics?

a)

"Taxes ought to be lowered."

b)

"Inflation is higher this year."

c)

"The bond market is in decline."

d)

"Speculation caused a recession."

103.

A limitation of using graphs to represent relationships is that they

a)

must be presented in a small space.

b)

typically show the less important variables.

c)

omit factors other than those being graphed.

d)

are hard for anyone but economists to interpret.

104.

Which statement is the best example of thinking at the margin?

a)

John has six shirts and is trying to decide whether to buy a seventh.

b)

Mary observes that the average cost of shoes is higher than last year.

c)

David decides to volunteer this summer instead of working for pay.

d)

Jane wants to buy a car but decides she cannot afford the insurance.

105.

What are the factors of production?

a)

goods and services

b)

risk and opportunity

c)

land, labor, and capital

d)

wages, salaries, and profits

106.

Ocean waves can be used to generate energy. Ocean waves are considered which type of resource?

a)

capital

b)

nonrenewable

c)

perpetual

d)

renewable

107.

Which of these items is a measure of productivity?

a)

years of education

b)

bushels of corn per acre

c)

number of workers employed

d)

dollars invested in new equipment

108.

Why are tradeoffs necessary?

a)

Resources are limited.

b)

Every product has flaws.

c)

People want different things.

d)

Advertisers promote products.

109.

Which scenario best illustrates the law of diminishing marginal utility?

a)

A car breaks down more often as it gets older.

b)

A collector of china figurines is eager to get a new one.

c)

Someone who doesn't listen to music does not care about getting a new CD.

d)

A new toy is less exciting to a child with many toys than to a child with just a few.

110.

Choose the best word to fill in the blank. The three fundamental economic questions are what to produce, ____________, and for whom.

a)

why

b)

how

c)

when

d)

where

111.

Which of these economic goals is most important in a traditional economy?

a)

growth

b)

stability

c)

freedom

d)

efficiency

112.

Why are economies most efficient when they have full employment?

a)

No one person has to work too hard.

b)

Wages are spent for consumer goods.

c)

Unemployment offices can be closed.

d)

No productive resources are left unused.

113.

Which kind of economy is most common today?

a)

command

b)

market

c)

mixed

d)

traditional

114.

What would government do in a model free enterprise system?

a)

ensure that prices remain reasonable

b)

stay out of economic activity altogether

c)

protect property rights and enforce contracts

d)

support entrepreneurs to encourage innovation

115.

Which is the best example of specialization?

a)

A surf shop lowers the price on swimsuits.

b)

A dry cleaner spends extra time on grease spots.

c)

An assistant in a tailoring shop only replaces zippers.

d)

An online clothing outlet offers customized monograms.

116.

How does division of labor increase productivity?

a)

Workers require minimal training.

b)

Workers can be paid a lower wage.

c)

Workers become expert at one task.

d)

Workers move often from job to job.

117.

In a voluntary exchange, why do people give something up?

a)

to increase their self-sufficiency

b)

to get something they want more

c)

to allocate scarce resources fairly

d)

to comply with state requirements

118.

What does it mean to say that Jen has a comparative advantage over Julian for weeding people's gardens?

a)

Jen weeds more quickly than Julian does.

b)

Jen's expertise at weeding is greater than Julian's.

c)

Jen can charge more for weeding than Julian can.

d)

Jen's opportunity cost for weeding is lower than Julian's.

119.

Why has much clothing manufacturing moved from the United States to other countries?

a)

Most of the market for textile products has shifted overseas.

b)

American workers have a weaker work ethic today than in the past.

c)

Education in this country has not kept up with the needs of the 21st-century economy.

d)

Nations with large, low-skilled workforces have a comparative advantage for assembly-line production.

120.

How does trade increase the value of an item?

a)

It makes the item more expensive to buy.

b)

It puts more different goods into competition.

c)

It provides work for storekeepers and truckers.

d)

It transfers the item to someone who values it more.

121.

Why might some historians consider Adam Smith one of the most influential people in history?

a)

He argued for a larger role for the government in the economy.

b)

He introduced a way of thinking about economic ideas.

c)

He wrote the economic argument for American independence.

d)

He taught that all people should be economic equals.

122.

What are the factors of production?

a)

risk and opportunity

b)

land, labor, and capital

c)

goods and services

d)

wages, salaries, and profits

123.

What would government do in a model free enterprise system?

a)

protect property rights and enforce contracts

b)

ensure that prices remain reasonable

c)

stay out of economic activity altogether

d)

support entrepreneurs to encourage innovation

124.

The law of demand states that as price decreases

a)

quality decreases.

b)

demand increases.

c)

production increases.

d)

wages decrease.

125.

The degree to which the quantity demanded responds to changes in price is called

a)

utility.

b)

revenue.

c)

schedule.

d)

elasticity.

126.

Which of these is the best example of diminishing marginal utility?

a)

People with cars have less use for bicycles than people without cars have.

b)

Someone who has one bicycle will have less use for another

c)

Bicycles become less useful as they get old and start to rust

d)

A shortage of bike paths makes bicycles less useful.

127.

What institution determines what fraction of deposits a bank must set aside to be available for customer withdrawals?

a)

Federal Reserve System

b)

Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation

c)

Securities and Exchange Commission

d)

New York Stock Exchange

128.

Which of these principles determines wage rates in a labor market?

a)

supply and demand

b)

risk and reward

c)

collective bargaining

d)

globalization

129.

Food stamps, the Earned Income Tax Credit, and unemployment insurance are examples of

a)

income redistribution.

b)

regulatory capture.

c)

negative externalities.

d)

natural monopolies.

130.

When a tax becomes a disincentive to work, the resulting reduction in productivity is a form of

a)

entitlement.

b)

tax incidence.

c)

deadweight loss.

d)

marginal tax rate.

131.

The market value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a given time period is the

a)

consumer price index.

b)

net of exports minus imports.

c)

gross domestic product.

d)

wage‑price spiral.

132.

The difference between real and nominal GDP is that real GDP is adjusted for

a)

international trade.

b)

entitlements.

c)

inflation.

d)

unemployment.

133.

Which of these is the best example of fiscal policy?

a)

create federal jobs so workers can spend more

b)

lower interest rates so mortgages are cheaper

c)

deregulate airlines so they have to compete

d)

insure savings accounts so depositors feel safe

134.

An attempt to influence another country's politics is the most common motive for which form of protectionism?

a)

protective tariff

b)

voluntary restraint

c)

embargo

d)

quota

135.

What was a central goal of the formation of the European Union and the World Trade Organization?

a)

to protect national security

b)

to ensure fair wages

c)

to regulate investment

d)

to reduce trade barriers

136.

Which of the following concepts explains why a country would both import and export a particular type of good?

a)

product differentiation

b)

import quotas

c)

comparative advantage

d)

voluntary restraints

137.

Why did per capita gross domestic product (GDP) of some least developed countries fall in 2012?

a)

Manufacturers quit hiring children.

b)

Populations grew faster than economic output.

c)

Exports grew faster than imports.

d)

Workers began working shorter hours.

138.

Which kind of economy is most common today?

a)

command

b)

traditional

c)

market

d)

mixed

139.

Which scenario best illustrates the law of diminishing marginal utility?

a)

A new toy is less exciting to a child with many toys than to a child with just a few

b)

A collector of china figurines is eager to get a new one

c)

A car breaks down more often as it gets older

d)

Someone who doesn't listen to music does not care about getting a new CD

140.

Why are tradeoffs necessary?

a)

Resources are limited

b)

Advertisers promote products

c)

Every product has flaws

d)

People want different things

141.

How does trade increase the value of an item?

a)

It provides work for storekeepers and truckers

b)

It makes the item more expensive to buy

c)

It puts more different goods into competition

d)

It transfers the item to someone who values it more

142.

In which market structure do producers have the most market power?

a)

perfect competition

b)

oligopoly

c)

monopoly

d)

monopolistic competition

143.

One advantage of a partnership over a sole proprietorship is that a partnership

a)

can get credit more easily

b)

has easier decision making

c)

avoids double taxation

d)

faces less regulation

144.

Which of these is a progressive tax?

a)

excise tax

b)

luxury tax

c)

property tax

d)

Social Security tax

145.

A decline in economic activity over a period of at least six months is called a

a)

recession

b)

panic

c)

depression

d)

contraction