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AP Psychology Semester 1 Final Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is confirmation bias and how does it influence the way people process information?

a)

It leads people to pay attention only to information that supports their beliefs and ignore contradicting evidence.

b)

It causes people to accept all information without question.

c)

It encourages people to change their beliefs frequently.

d)

It makes people focus on irrelevant details.

e)

It makes them believe they knew something all along, even if they did not.

2.

How does a theory differ from a hypothesis in explaining scientific phenomena?

a)

A theory explains why or how things work based on a lot of evidence, while a hypothesis is a guess about what would happen.

b)

A theory is always incorrect, while a hypothesis is always correct.

c)

A theory is a single observation, while a hypothesis is a collection of facts.

d)

A theory ignores evidence, while a hypothesis uses only facts.

e)

A theory is a descriptive guess about what would happen in an experiment based on existing evidence.

3.

What does replication in scientific procedures involve?

a)

Repeating a study to see if the results are the same

b)

Changing the variables in a study

c)

Ignoring previous results

d)

Creating a new hypothesis

4.

What is a case study in research?

a)

A detailed examination of an individual or a group

b)

A brief overview of a topic

c)

A random selection of subjects

d)

A statistical analysis of data

e)

A combination of results from multiple studies to find overall trends

5.

How does social desirability bias affect the way people answer surveys?

a)

People answer in a way that makes them look good

b)

People always tell the truth

c)

People ignore the questions

d)

People answer randomly

6.

What is a random sample?

a)

When only specific groups are chosen from the population

b)

When everyone in the population has an equal chance of being chosen

c)

When participants are selected based on convenience

d)

When the sample is larger than the population

e)

When the sample is easier to reach

7.

How does experimental methodology differ from non-experimental methodology in terms of variable manipulation?

a)

Experimental methodology involves manipulating the independent variable, while non-experimental methodology does not.

b)

Both methodologies involve manipulating variables.

c)

Non-experimental methodology involves manipulating the dependent variable, while experimental does not.

d)

Experimental methodology does not involve any variable manipulation.

8.

What does correlation measure?

a)

The relationship between two variables.

b)

The cause of a variable.

c)

The manipulation of variables.

d)

The definition of a variable.

9.

If you are given a number ranging from negative 1 to one, what concept does this number most likely represent in statistics?

a)

Correlation coefficient

b)

Mean

c)

Median

d)

Mode

10.

How does a scatter plot help in understanding data?

a)

It shows the relationships between two variables

b)

It displays the frequency of a single variable

c)

It calculates the mean of a dataset

d)

It organizes data into categories

11.

What is an experimental group in a study?

a)

The group that receives the treatment or variable being tested

b)

The group that remains unchanged

c)

The group used for calculating averages

d)

The group that collects data

12.

In an experiment, what is the purpose of random assignment?

a)

To assign participants to groups randomly

b)

To ensure all participants receive the same treatment

c)

To select only participants who want the treatment

d)

To prevent any participants from receiving a placebo

13.

What distinguishes a double blind procedure from a single blind procedure in experiments?

a)

Neither participants nor researchers know which participants are receiving the treatment

b)

Only participants know which treatment they are receiving

c)

Only researchers know which treatment participants are receiving

d)

Both participants and researchers know which treatment is being given

14.

How does a placebo function in an experiment?

a)

It is a treatment with no real effect used as a control.

b)

It is the main treatment given to all participants.

c)

It is a variable that is always manipulated.

d)

It is a measurement tool for data collection.

15.

What is a confounding variable in an experiment?

a)

An outside factor that might affect the results of an experiment.

b)

The main variable being tested.

c)

The control group in the experiment.

d)

The measurement tool used in the study.

16.

What does validity refer to in the context of an experiment or test?

a)

How well a study or test measures what it’s supposed to.

b)

The number of participants in the study.

c)

The amount of data collected.

d)

The time taken to complete the experiment.

17.

Which type of research relies on non-numerical data such as narratives and experiences?

a)

Quantitative research

b)

Qualitative research

c)

Experimental research

d)

Survey research

18.

What is the main purpose of an institutional review committee in research?

a)

To make sure the research is safe for everyone

b)

To collect data from participants

c)

To publish the research findings

d)

To recruit more participants

19.

What does confidentiality mean in the context of research studies?

a)

Protecting private information of participants by not sharing personal details

b)

Publishing all participant data online

c)

Allowing anyone to access participant information

d)

Ignoring participant privacy

20.

What is the role of "research confederates"?

a)

They secretly work with researchers and pretend to be regular participants to influence others.

b)

They collect data from participants without interacting with them.

c)

They analyze the results after the study is completed.

d)

They are the main subjects of the research.

21.

What is standard deviation a measure of?

a)

How much the data varies from the mean

b)

The center of the data set

c)

The highest value in the data set

d)

The lowest value in the data set

22.

What does statistical significance help determine?

a)

If a result is likely due to chance

b)

The average score of a group

c)

The size of the group

d)

The type of data collected

23.

What does the average normal curve look like, and what is its mean value?

a)

Symmetrical curve with mean 68.26

b)

Asymmetrical curve with mean 100

c)

Flat line with mean 50

d)

Zigzag curve with mean 0

24.

What is a potential issue when Social Darwinism is applied to different groups?

a)

It encourages everyone to work harder.

b)

It can lead to discrimination against those considered less "favorable."

c)

It improves mental health for all.

d)

It eliminates environmental factors.

25.

How did the ideology of eugenics influence policies during World War II?

a)

It was used to justify discrimination against Jews by the Nazis.

b)

It promoted equal rights for all individuals.

c)

It encouraged the development of new technologies.

d)

It led to the abolition of social classes.

26.

What did the Minnesota twin study reveal about identical twins raised in separate environments?

a)

They still show significant similarities in personality and intelligence.

b)

They develop completely different personalities.

c)

They have no genetic similarities.

d)

Their intelligence is solely determined by their environment.

27.

What is the main function of the peripheral nervous system?

a)

To act as a messenger system carrying information in and out of the central nervous system

b)

To house the brain and spinal cord

c)

To control voluntary movements of muscles

d)

To regulate blood sugar levels

28.

Which part of the nervous system controls voluntary movements such as typing or walking?

a)

Somatic nervous system

b)

Autonomic nervous system

c)

Sympathetic nervous system

d)

Central nervous system

29.

What types of functions are regulated by the autonomic nervous system?

a)

Functions like breathing, heartbeat, and digestion

b)

Voluntary muscle movements

c)

Memory and learning

d)

Sensory perception

30.

How does the sympathetic nervous system prepare your body during emergencies?

a)

By calming your body down

b)

By preparing your body for action, stress, or emergencies

c)

By sending pain signals to your brain

d)

By restoring homeostasis

31.

When you stub your toe, which type of neuron sends a pain signal to your central nervous system?

a)

Motor neuron

b)

Sensory neuron

c)

Glial cell

d)

Parasympathetic neuron

32.

Explain the process that occurs when an outside stimulus causes a neuron to fire an action potential.

a)

Positive ions enter the neuron, causing depolarization until a threshold is reached, leading to a full-strength action potential.

b)

Negative ions leave the neuron, causing hyperpolarization and preventing an action potential.

c)

The neuron immediately releases neurotransmitters without any change in ion concentration.

d)

The neuron contracts and releases energy in the form of heat.

33.

Describe the role of the myelin sheath and nodes of Ranvier in the transmission of a neural signal.

a)

The myelin sheath insulates the axon, and the nodes of Ranvier allow the signal to jump, speeding up transmission.

b)

The myelin sheath slows down the signal, and the nodes of Ranvier block the signal.

c)

The myelin sheath absorbs the signal, and the nodes of Ranvier store neurotransmitters.

d)

The myelin sheath produces energy, and the nodes of Ranvier create new neurons.

34.

How does a signal travel from one neuron to another in a chain of neurons?

a)

The signal is sent from the axon terminal into the synaptic cleft and caught by the dendrites of the next neuron.

b)

The signal is transmitted directly through the cell membrane without any gap.

c)

The signal is absorbed by the nucleus and then released into the bloodstream.

d)

The signal is stored in the axon terminal and never leaves the neuron.

35.

Which neurotransmitter is primarily responsible for regulating mood, sleep, and appetite?

a)

Serotonin

b)

Dopamine

c)

Glutamate

d)

Acetylcholine

e)

GABA

36.

Endorphins are known for which effect in the body?

a)

Carrying pain messages to the brain

b)

Reducing pain and boosting pleasure

c)

Regulating sleep-wake cycles

d)

Promoting social connection

e)

Triggering fight or flight by increasing heart rate and energy.

37.

How do hormones differ from neurotransmitters in terms of their travel in the body?

a)

Hormones travel through the bloodstream and are slower and longer-lasting.

b)

Hormones travel through synapses and are faster.

c)

Neurotransmitters travel through the bloodstream and are slower.

d)

Neurotransmitters are longer-lasting than hormones.

38.

Oxytocin promotes which of the following?

a)

Alertness and arousal

b)

Bonding, trust, and social connection

c)

Hunger stimulation

d)

Pain reduction

39.

How do drugs that act as agonists affect neurotransmitters?

a)

They block neurotransmitter activity.

b)

They mimic or boost neurotransmitter activity, encouraging neural firing.

c)

They reduce pain and boost pleasure.

d)

They regulate sleep-wake cycles.

40.

What is the primary function of the medulla in the brain stem?

a)

Regulating breathing and heart rate

b)

Controlling perception and cognition

c)

Coordinating muscle movement

d)

Processing emotions

41.

Which part of the brain is responsible for coordinating muscle movement, balance, and some types of procedural learning?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Cerebral cortex

c)

Medulla

d)

Reticular activating system

42.

What is the function of re-uptake inhibitors in the nervous system?

a)

Block reabsorption of neurotransmitters

b)

Increase neural activity

c)

Decrease perception

d)

Regulate heart rate

43.

How does the hypothalamus contribute to the regulation of bodily functions?

a)

It processes visual information

b)

It regulates hunger, thirst, body temperature, and sexual behavior

c)

It controls voluntary muscle movement

d)

It produces speech

44.

Which part of the brain is responsible for forming new memories?

a)

Amygdala

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Occipital lobe

d)

Temporal lobe

45.

Which lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for processing auditory information and language?

a)

Occipital lobe

b)

Temporal lobe

c)

Parietal lobe

d)

Frontal lobe

46.

What is the role of Broca’s area in the brain?

a)

It comprehends and understands language

b)

It produces speech

c)

It controls voluntary movement

d)

It processes sensory input

e)

It connects the two hemispheres allowing communication

47.

Which brain structure is involved in processing emotions such as fear and aggression?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Amygdala

c)

Prefrontal cortex

d)

Occipital lobe

48.

What function is associated with the prefrontal cortex?

a)

Processing visual information

b)

Executive functioning and voluntary movement

c)

Auditory processing

d)

Releasing hormones

49.

How does brain plasticity contribute to recovery after damage to a specific region of the brain?

a)

It allows other areas to take over the functions of the damaged region.

b)

It prevents any new connections from forming.

c)

It causes permanent loss of function in the damaged area.

d)

It only works in adults and not in children.

50.

Which research method measures electrical activity in the brain?

a)

EEG

b)

fMRI

c)

Case studies

d)

Lesioning

51.

How did the case of Phineas Gage contribute to our understanding of the brain?

a)

It highlighted how damage changes behavior.

b)

It showed that the brain cannot recover from injury.

c)

It proved that all brain regions have the same function.

d)

It demonstrated that metal rods improve brain function.

52.

What is the typical structure of sleep cycles during a full night’s sleep?

a)

Four to six cycles, each lasting about 90 minutes.

b)

One long cycle lasting eight hours.

c)

Ten cycles, each lasting 30 minutes.

d)

Three cycles, each lasting two hours.

53.

Describe the progression of sleep stages within a single 90-minute sleep cycle.

a)

NonREM 1 (light sleep), NonREM 2 (deeper sleep), NonREM 3 (deepest sleep), back to NonREM 2, then REM sleep.

b)

REM sleep, NonREM 3, NonREM 2, NonREM 1, then wakefulness.

c)

NonREM 2, NonREM 1, NonREM 3, REM sleep, then wakefulness.

d)

NonREM 3, NonREM 2, NonREM 1, REM sleep, then wakefulness.

54.

How does REM rebound occur when a person is deprived of REM sleep?

a)

The person spends extra time in REM sleep the next time they sleep.

b)

The person skips REM sleep entirely the next time they sleep.

c)

The person experiences shorter REM cycles the next time they sleep.

d)

The person does not dream the next time they sleep.

55.

What is the main idea of the consolidation theory of dreaming?

a)

Dreaming is tied to organization and storing memories.

b)

Dreaming is the brain's attempt to make sense of random activity.

c)

Dreaming is a way to restore energy.

d)

Dreaming is a result of sleep disorders.

e)

Dreaming is the brain's attempt to make sense of random neural activity.

56.

If a person acts out their dreams because the normal paralysis of REM sleep does not occur, which sleep disorder are they most likely experiencing?

a)

Sleep behavior disorder

b)

Sleep apnea

c)

Insomnia

d)

Narcolepsy

57.

If you are trying to notice a change in the brightness of a light, according to Weber’s law, what must this change be proportional to?

a)

The original stimulus

b)

The time of day

c)

The color of the light

d)

The distance from the light source

58.

What is the function of the retina in the human eye?

a)

It is the photosensitive surface where light is converted into neural messages

b)

It is the muscle that controls the size of the pupil

c)

It is the fluid that maintains eye shape

d)

It is the outer protective layer of the eye

59.

Where does the blind spot occur in the eye?

a)

Where the optic nerve exits but the brain receives no visual messages

b)

Where the lens focuses light

c)

Where the retina meets the cornea

d)

Where the iris controls light entry

60.

What is the function of rods?

a)

Detecting shapes in the periphery and movement in low light

b)

Detecting color and fine detail

c)

Processing sound vibrations

d)

Focusing light through accommodation

61.

What is prosopagnosia?

a)

Face blindness

b)

Color blindness

c)

Hearing loss

d)

Nearsightedness

62.

What is the role of the vestibular sense in the human body?

a)

It helps detect pain and temperature.

b)

It is responsible for taste sensitivity.

c)

It helps with balance using the semicircular canals and brain structures.

d)

It allows us to sense chemical signals.

e)

It monitors movement and position for coordination without constant visual input.

63.

What does the gate control theory suggest about pain signals?

a)

Pain signals are always transmitted directly to the brain.

b)

Pain signals can be blocked or allowed through a spinal gate.

c)

Pain signals are only related to temperature.

d)

Pain signals are not affected by the spinal cord.

64.

What is the difference between sensation and perception?

a)

Sensation is the process of interpreting sensory signals, while perception is the detection of stimuli.

b)

Sensation is a biological process where sensory organs detect stimuli, while perception involves the interpretation and organization of those sensory signals by the brain.

c)

Sensation and perception are both biological processes that detect stimuli.

d)

Sensation is the process of organizing sensory signals, while perception is the process of sending signals to sensory organs.

65.

When reading a sentence with missing letters, which type of processing allows you to comprehend the sentence using context and familiarity with language?

a)

Bottom-up processing

b)

Sensation processing

c)

Top-down processing

d)

Perceptual processing

66.

If you see an ambiguous image that could be either a rabbit or a duck, what factor is most likely to influence which animal you perceive first?

a)

The color of the image

b)

Your past experiences and mental schemas

c)

The brightness of the image

d)

The size of the image

67.

What is the cocktail party effect an example of?

a)

Divided attention

b)

Selective attention and action

c)

Passive listening

d)

Multitasking

68.

What does change blindness demonstrate about our attention?

a)

We always notice changes in our environment.

b)

We can miss changes when our attention is focused elsewhere.

c)

We are never distracted by irrelevant information.

d)

We can only focus on one thing at a time.

69.

What does the closure principle in gestalt psychology help us do?

a)

Ignore incomplete figures

b)

Fill in gaps to create a complete whole object

c)

Focus only on the background

d)

See only the parts of an object

70.

Which Gestalt principle helps us organize visual information by grouping similar elements such as shapes or colors?

a)

Similarity

b)

Proximity

c)

Texture Gradient

d)

Relative Size

e)

Closure

71.

When viewing a road, why do objects with less detail appear farther away?

a)

Because of the texture gradient cue.

b)

Because of the similarity principle.

c)

Because of binocular cues.

d)

Because of convergence.

72.

What does the relative size cue tell us when we see two similar objects in a scene?

a)

The smaller image on our retina is perceived as farther away.

b)

The larger image is always closer.

c)

Objects with more detail are farther away.

d)

Parallel lines appear to meet up.

73.

How does the brain create a three-dimensional image from the slightly different images received by each eye?

a)

By ignoring one image and focusing on the other

b)

By merging the two images together

c)

By reversing the images

d)

By blurring both images

74.

What does shape constancy allow us to do when viewing objects from different angles or distances?

a)

See objects as changing shape constantly

b)

Recognize that objects keep the same shape no matter what angle or distance we view them from

c)

Forget the shape of objects

d)

Only see objects as flat images

75.

What is a prototype in the context of concepts?

a)

The least common example of a concept

b)

The ideal or most typical example of a concept

c)

A random object unrelated to the concept

d)

The first object you see in a store

76.

How do our brains interpret the rapid changes in position when we flash circles on and off quickly?

a)

As random movements

b)

As continuous motion

c)

As static images

d)

As color changes

77.

Which of the following best describes the difference between assimilation and accommodation in cognitive schemas?

a)

Assimilation is when we adjust our schemas to fit new information, while accommodation is when we incorporate new information into existing schemas.

b)

Assimilation is when we incorporate new information into our existing schemas, while accommodation is when we adjust our schemas to fit new information.

c)

Assimilation and accommodation both mean ignoring new information that doesn't fit our schemas.

d)

Assimilation is forgetting old schemas, while accommodation is creating new schemas for every new experience.

78.

What are key characteristic of using algorithms to solve problems?

a)

Algorithms guarantee a solution and are always the fastest way to solve a problem.

b)

Algorithms are step-by-step procedures that guarantee a solution but can be time-consuming.

c)

Algorithms rely on intuition and quick decision-making.

d)

Algorithms are only used for mathematical problems.

79.

How do heuristics differ from algorithms in problem-solving?

a)

Heuristics are always more accurate than algorithms.

b)

Heuristics are shortcuts that speed up decision-making but may lead to errors, while algorithms are systematic and logical.

c)

Heuristics require more time and effort than algorithms.

d)

Heuristics guarantee a solution, while algorithms do not.

80.

How does priming influence our decision-making process?

a)

It subconsciously affects how we respond to new information.

b)

It makes us forget previous experiences.

c)

It prevents us from making any decisions.

d)

It only works when we are asleep.

e)

It can significantly shape decisions and judgments, such as preferring a treatment described as having a 90% survival rate over one with a 10% mortality rate.

81.

What is the gambler’s fallacy?

a)

Believing that if something happens more frequently than normal, it will happen less frequently in the future.

b)

Thinking that luck does not exist.

c)

Assuming that all outcomes are predetermined.

d)

Believing that skill always determines the outcome.

82.

What is the main difference between divergent and convergent thinking?

a)

Divergent thinking explores multiple possible solutions, while convergent thinking narrows ideas into a single best solution.

b)

Divergent thinking is only used in mathematics.

c)

Convergent thinking is about creativity, while divergent thinking is about logic.

d)

Both types of thinking always lead to the same result.

83.

How does semantic memory differ from episodic memory?

a)

Semantic memory involves general knowledge, while episodic memory involves specific events.

b)

Semantic memory involves specific events, while episodic memory involves general knowledge.

c)

Both semantic and episodic memory involve only facts.

d)

Semantic memory is unconscious, while episodic memory is conscious.

84.

What is an example of procedural memory?

a)

Riding a bike

b)

Remembering your birthday

c)

Recalling the capital of France

d)

Memorizing a poem

85.

What is the main function of the central executive in working memory?

a)

Directing attention and coordinating activities

b)

Storing long-term memories

c)

Recalling episodic events

d)

Performing unconscious tasks

86.

What is the difference between iconic memory and echoic memory?

a)

Iconic memory is for auditory information, echoic memory is for visual information

b)

Iconic memory is for visual information, echoic memory is for auditory information

c)

Both are for long-term storage

d)

Both are for emotional experiences

87.

What is the purpose of chunking in memory encoding?

a)

To group individual pieces of information into larger, more manageable units.

b)

To focus on the meaning of information.

c)

To associate information with physical locations.

d)

To repeat information for better recall.

e)

To associate information with specific physical locations in a familiar environment.

88.

Which of the following best describes the process of recall in memory retrieval?

a)

Identifying information after encountering it again

b)

Retrieving information without any prompts or cues

c)

Answering a multiple choice question with provided answers

d)

Triggering memories with environmental cues

89.

How does mood congruent memory affect retrieval?

a)

You remember information better when your mood matches the mood during learning

b)

You remember information better when you are in a different mood than during learning

c)

Mood has no effect on memory retrieval

d)

You only remember sad memories when you are happy

90.

How can testing improve long-term retention of material?

a)

By simply reading the material multiple times

b)

By strengthening the encoding of information while being tested

c)

By memorizing information without retrieval practice

d)

By studying in a different environment each time

91.

What is metacognition in the context of memory retrieval?

a)

The ability to recall information without cues

b)

The ability to think about and understand your own learning processes

c)

The ability to memorize facts quickly

d)

The ability to forget irrelevant information

92.

What does the forgetting curve state about our ability to retain information over time?

a)

It decreases rapidly with the most significant loss occurring soon after learning

b)

It remains constant over time

c)

It increases as we review information

d)

It only decreases after several years

93.

According to the psychodynamic perspective, what is the theory of repression?

a)

The brain unconsciously blocks out stressful or traumatic memories to protect the individual

b)

The brain's memories are lost due to lack of attention

c)

The brain tranposes old memories with new ones

d)

Memories are always consciously forgotten

94.

Why do memory distortions often occur?

a)

Because we build our memories based on perceptions, thoughts, and experiences

b)

Because we always remember everything perfectly

c)

Because memories are stored in only one part of the brain

d)

Because we never review information

95.

What is the process called when our short-term memories are transformed into stable long-term memories?

a)

Memory retrieval

b)

Memory consolidation

c)

Memory distortion

d)

Memory deletion

96.

How is IQ calculated using the mental age and chronological age formula?

a)

Chronological age divided by mental age, multiplied by 100

b)

Mental age divided by chronological age, multiplied by 100

c)

Mental age plus chronological age, multiplied by 10

d)

Chronological age minus mental age, multiplied by 100

97.

Why is it important for intelligence tests to be standardized?

a)

To ensure that everyone takes the test under different conditions

b)

To ensure that the test is administered and scored the same way across different test takers

c)

To make the test more difficult for some students

d)

To allow for random scoring methods

98.

How does construct validity differ from other types of validity when evaluating intelligence tests?

a)

It ensures the test truly measures the concept of intelligence.

b)

It measures consistency over time.

c)

It predicts future performance.

d)

It compares scores across different groups.

99.

How does an achievement test differ from an aptitude test?

a)

Achievement tests measure what a person has learned; aptitude tests assess potential to learn.

b)

Achievement tests predict future performance; aptitude tests measure current knowledge.

c)

Achievement tests are only for adults; aptitude tests are for children.

d)

Achievement tests are less reliable than aptitude tests.

100.

According to psychologists, how do people with a growth mindset typically respond to setbacks?

a)

They persist and see effort as a path to mastery.

b)

They give up easily and avoid further challenges.

c)

They feel threatened by others' success.

d)

They believe their abilities are set in stone.

e)

They may avoid challenges and feel threatened by the success of others.