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Professionalism & Communication and Healthcare Careers MCQs

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Accountability means—

a)

Arriving early for every shift

b)

Taking responsibility for your actions

c)

Avoiding conflict with coworkers

d)

Always agreeing with others

2.

Respect in healthcare involves—

a)

Treating only patients politely

b)

Being kind only to supervisors

c)

Treating everyone with dignity and kindness

d)

Ignoring cultural differences

3.

Punctuality is best described as—

a)

Being early only on important days

b)

Showing up whenever convenient

c)

Being on time and ready to work

d)

Staying late every day

4.

Reliability means—

a)

Being unpredictable

b)

Being consistent in performance and attendance

c)

Doing only what benefits you

d)

Avoiding responsibility

5.

Verbal communication involves—

a)

Eye contact and gestures

b)

Written or spoken words

c)

Touch and posture

d)

Silence

6.

A receiver in communication is—

a)

The person who starts the message

b)

The one interpreting and understanding the message

c)

The method used to deliver the message

d)

The feedback system

7.

Assertive communication involves—

a)

Being forceful and intimidating

b)

Avoiding expression of needs

c)

Expressing feelings clearly and respectfully

d)

Staying silent to prevent conflict

8.

Empathy means—

a)

Feeling sorry for someone

b)

Understanding and sharing someone’s feelings

c)

Avoiding emotional involvement

d)

Telling others what to do

9.

Cultural sensitivity requires—

a)

Ignoring differences in beliefs

b)

Treating everyone identically regardless of needs

c)

Respecting cultural, language, and belief differences

d)

Speaking only your own language

10.

Delegation involves—

a)

Giving all tasks to one person

b)

Assigning tasks to the wrong team member

c)

Assigning tasks to the appropriate team member

d)

Refusing to share responsibilities

11.

Interdependence in healthcare means—

a)

Working alone to avoid mistakes

b)

Relying on one another to complete tasks successfully

c)

Ignoring team input

d)

Delegating everything to others

12.

Self-regulation is the ability to—

a)

React impulsively when stressed

b)

Control emotions and stay calm

c)

Ignore personal mistakes

d)

Blame others for outcomes

13.

Feedback is—

a)

The tone of your voice

b)

The message being delivered

c)

The response showing understanding or confusion

d)

A type of nonverbal communication

14.

Active listening includes—

a)

Thinking about your next response

b)

Giving full attention and responding appropriately

c)

Interrupting to express your opinion

d)

Avoiding eye contact

15.

Team dynamics refer to—

a)

The amount of work each person has

b)

How team members interact and work together

c)

The number of meetings held

d)

The speed of task completion

16.

Constructive feedback should—

a)

Focus on blaming others

b)

Be disrespectful and harsh

c)

Help improve performance and outcomes

d)

Be avoided to prevent hurt feelings

17.

Initiative means—

a)

Waiting to be told what to do

b)

Taking action and helping without being asked

c)

Assigning tasks to others only

d)

Avoiding extra responsibilities

18.

Professionalism includes—

a)

Dressing casually and speaking informally

b)

How you act, dress, speak, and interact at work

c)

Ignoring workplace rules

d)

Only focusing on personal needs

19.

Critical thinking involves—

a)

Using logic and reasoning to make sound decisions

b)

Acting quickly without evaluating

c)

Allowing emotions to guide decisions

d)

Avoiding difficult situations

20.

Ethical behavior in healthcare means—

a)

Doing what benefits you most

b)

Following moral principles and protecting patients

c)

Ignoring safety guidelines

d)

Keeping information secret for personal gain

21.

Which certification is required in Texas to become a Certified Pharmacy Technician (CPhT)?

a)

CEHRS

b)

PTCB Exam

c)

CCMA

d)

CNA

22.

Which healthcare worker draws blood and labels specimens?

a)

Phlebotomy Technician

b)

Radiologic Technologist

c)

Sterile Processing Technician

d)

OTA

23.

A CCMA is allowed to—

a)

Give injections under supervision

b)

Perform X-rays

c)

Manage ventilators

d)

Create rehab plans

24.

A CEHRS is responsible for—

a)

Coding diagnoses

b)

Managing electronic health records

c)

Performing lab tests

d)

Drawing blood

25.

Which technician sterilizes and cleans surgical instruments?

a)

Sterile Processing Technician

b)

MLT

c)

OTA

d)

Dental Office Assistant

26.

The primary role of a Dental Office Assistant is—

a)

Taking dental X-rays

b)

Scheduling, insurance, and intake

c)

Performing oral surgery

d)

Making dentures

27.

A Professional Coder works with—

a)

ICD-10, CPT, and HCPCS codes

b)

MRI and CT machines

c)

Speech therapy tools

d)

Pharmacy dispensing logs

28.

Which healthcare professional performs blood, chemistry, and microbiology tests?

a)

Radiologic Technologist

b)

Medical Laboratory Technician

c)

Respiratory Therapist

d)

Pharmacist

29.

A Radiologic Technologist must follow strict safety rules for—

a)

Oxygen therapy

b)

Surgical sterilization

c)

Radiation exposure

d)

Dental anesthesia

30.

Who assists with heart procedures and echocardiograms?

a)

Occupational Therapy Assistant

b)

Cardiovascular Technologist

c)

Speech-Language Pathologist

d)

Orthodontist

31.

The role of an OTA includes—

a)

Designing braces

b)

Helping patients practice daily living skills

c)

Managing ventilators

d)

Filling prescriptions

32.

A Respiratory Therapist primarily manages—

a)

Immunization schedules

b)

Ventilators and oxygen therapy

c)

Dental restorations

d)

Mental health counseling

33.

Which career requires a Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN)?

a)

Registered Nurse

b)

Radiologic Technologist

c)

Dental Office Assistant

d)

CPhT

34.

A Health Educator typically works in—

a)

Pharmacies

b)

Schools and community programs

c)

Operating rooms

d)

Imaging centers

35.

A Diagnostic Imaging Specialist operates—

a)

Ventilators

b)

CT and MRI scanners

c)

Dental drills

d)

Sterilization equipment

36.

Orthotic & Prosthetic Professionals specialize in—

a)

Athletic training

b)

Building and fitting artificial limbs

c)

Managing medical coding

d)

Performing EKGs

37.

A Speech-Language Pathologist treats—

a)

Vision disorders

b)

Breathing conditions

c)

Speech and swallowing problems

d)

Foot and ankle injuries

38.

A Physician Assistant (PA) is trained to—

a)

Diagnose, treat, and assist in surgery

b)

Design dental braces

c)

Provide anesthesia

d)

Create artificial limbs

39.

A Doctor of Physical Therapy (DPT) specializes in—

a)

Surgery

b)

Rehab and movement treatment

c)

Pharmacy care

d)

Oral health

40.

Nurse Anesthetists (CRNAs) must have—

a)

A dental degree

b)

ICU nursing experience and a doctoral program

c)

Only a high school diploma

d)

A certificate in dental hygiene

41.

Witch doctors or shamans mainly treated illness using—

a)

Surgery and anatomy

b)

Ceremonies, prayers, and magic

c)

Herbal pharmacology

d)

Germ theory

42.

Trepanation was a procedure performed to—

a)

Balance body fluids

b)

Release demons by drilling the skull

c)

Improve hearing

d)

Reduce headaches

43.

The Ancient Egyptians were the first civilization to—

a)

Use microscopes

b)

Develop MRI scans

c)

Keep health records on papyrus

d)

Build aqueducts

44.

Egyptian physicians were unique because they—

a)

Practiced only surgery

b)

Combined religion with healing

c)

Used antibiotics

d)

Performed dissections

45.

Embalming helped Egyptians learn more about—

a)

Psychology

b)

Human anatomy

c)

Vaccines

d)

Chemistry

46.

Egyptian temples served as—

a)

Only places of worship

b)

Homes for soldiers

c)

Hospitals, schools, and worship areas

d)

Factories for medicine

47.

What were leeches used for in ancient medicine?

a)

Stitching wounds

b)

Bloodletting to balance the body

c)

Detecting infections

d)

Cleaning surgical tools

48.

Ancient Chinese medicine focused on—

a)

Human dissection

b)

Balance and philosophy

c)

DNA and heredity

d)

Surgery and antibiotics

49.

Yin and Yang represent—

a)

Strength and weakness

b)

Light and darkness

c)

Body and spirit balance

d)

Growth and development

50.

Acupuncture was developed to—

a)

Replace blood transfusions

b)

Balance the body's energy

c)

Treat broken bones

d)

Fight infections

51.

Who is known as the “Father of Medicine”?

a)

Alexander Fleming

b)

Hippocrates

c)

Joseph Lister

d)

Edward Jenner

52.

Roman aqueducts and sewers helped improve—

a)

Anatomy studies

b)

Sanitation and clean water

c)

Surgical anesthesia

d)

Blood transfusion safety

53.

The first hospitals in Rome were originally created for—

a)

Women and children

b)

Prisoners

c)

Soldiers

d)

Royal families

54.

The Four Humors theory stated that illness was caused by—

a)

Evil spirits

b)

Imbalance of body fluids

c)

Poor hygiene

d)

Viruses in the blood

55.

During the Dark Ages, medicine was—

a)

Focused on science and research

b)

Centered around religion only

c)

Highly advanced

d)

Based on germ theory

56.

Who invented the first microscope and discovered bacteria?

a)

Louis Pasteur

b)

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

c)

Wilhelm Roentgen

d)

Ambroise Paré

57.

Andreas Vesalius is known for—

a)

Finding penicillin

b)

Publishing the first accurate anatomy book

c)

Designing artificial limbs

d)

Discovering DNA structure

58.

Wilhelm Roentgen made medical history by—

a)

Creating vaccines

b)

Inventing the CT scanner

c)

Discovering X-rays

d)

Establishing antiseptic surgery

59.

Who discovered penicillin, the first antibiotic?

a)

Edward Jenner

b)

Alexander Fleming

c)

Marie Curie

d)

Florence Nightingale

60.

Godfrey Hounsfield is best known for inventing—

a)

MRI

b)

Ultrasound

c)

CT scanner

d)

PET scan

61.

Which level of Maslow’s Hierarchy must be met first before all others?

a)

Esteem Needs

b)

Safety and Security

c)

Self-Actualization

d)

Physiological Needs

62.

Which need includes order, routine, and protection from harm?

a)

Safety and Security Needs

b)

Esteem Needs

c)

Love and Belonging

d)

Self-Actualization

63.

Self-actualization occurs when a person—

a)

Has basic survival needs met

b)

Meets a need for love and intimacy

c)

Reaches full potential and helps others

d)

Gains confidence through achievement

64.

Which behavior is an example of regression?

a)

Blaming another student for your mistake

b)

Imagining success instead of studying

c)

Acting childlike when stressed

d)

Redirecting anger into exercise

65.

What is projection?

a)

Blaming someone else for your own faults

b)

Making excuses to avoid responsibility

c)

Redirecting negative impulses into positive acts

d)

Substituting one goal for another

66.

Which option describes primary aging?

a)

Stress-related illness

b)

Natural changes like gray hair

c)

Disease caused by lifestyle

d)

Premature aging from smoking

67.

Which life stage focuses on building trust when needs are met?

a)

Adolescence

b)

Infancy

c)

Early Adulthood

d)

Late Childhood

68.

In Erikson’s stage for adolescence, the major task is—

a)

Building independence

b)

Finding self-identity

c)

Developing initiative

d)

Gaining competence in school

69.

A healthy relationship is built on—

a)

Control and obedience

b)

Avoiding communication

c)

Respect and honesty

d)

Emotional dependency

70.

Emotional intelligence (EQ) means—

a)

Ignoring emotions to stay strong

b)

Controlling other people’s feelings

c)

Recognizing and managing emotions

d)

Avoiding conflict at all costs

71.

What is the purpose of hospice care?

a)

Cure chronic illness

b)

Provide comfort and dignity at end of life

c)

Teach patients independence

d)

Prevent aging effects

72.

Which is an example of displacement?

a)

Getting angry and kicking a chair

b)

Blaming the teacher for your poor grade

c)

Pushing a memory out of awareness

d)

Pretending nothing is wrong

73.

Indirect methods of meeting needs are also called—

a)

Life stages

b)

Growth patterns

c)

Defense mechanisms

d)

Motivation strategies

74.

Which describes secondary aging?

a)

Natural aging processes

b)

Slower reaction time with age

c)

Changes caused by illness or lifestyle

d)

Healthy physical development

75.

Which aging stage reflects on life with fulfillment or regret?

a)

Early Adulthood

b)

Middle Adulthood

c)

Late Adulthood

d)

Adolescence

76.

Bargaining in the grieving process includes statements like—

a)

“Why is this happening to me?”

b)

“This can’t be real.”

c)

“If I can just live long enough to…”

d)

“What’s the point of trying now?”

77.

Acceptance (Stage 5) is best described as—

a)

Anger about unfairness

b)

Depression and withdrawal

c)

Peace and saying goodbye

d)

Arguing for more time

78.

What is the main goal of end-of-life care?

a)

Restore strength

b)

Relieve pain and provide peace

c)

Increase physical activity

d)

Teach coping skills

79.

Which term describes substituting one goal for another to overcome failure?

a)

Rationalization

b)

Compensation

c)

Sublimation

d)

Projection

80.

Cultural sensitivity in healthcare means—

a)

Treating all patients exactly the same way

b)

Avoiding conversations about beliefs

c)

Respecting different cultures and languages

d)

Expecting patients to adapt to your culture

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