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Human Body and Scientific Concepts Quiz

Total questions: 244

Worksheet time: 2hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the study of structure in the human body called?

a)

Physiology

b)

Anatomy

c)

Metabolism

d)

Homeostasis

2.

Which term refers to all the chemical reactions in the body?

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Metabolism

c)

Physiology

d)

Anatomy

3.

What is the tendency of the body to maintain a stable internal environment called?

a)

Negative Feedback

b)

Positive Feedback

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Metabolism

4.

Which type of feedback triggers changes that take the body further from homeostasis?

a)

Negative Feedback

b)

Positive Feedback

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Metabolism

5.

What is the first step in the scientific process?

a)

Formulate hypothesis to explain the pattern

b)

Observe a pattern

c)

Run experiments

d)

Evaluate results

6.

What is a tentative explanation for a pattern called?

a)

Theory

b)

Hypothesis

c)

Experiment

d)

Observation

7.

Which of the following is an example of an acid?

a)

NaOH

b)

H2SO4

c)

Buffer

d)

OH-

8.

What is the pH range for bases?

a)

0-6.9

b)

7.1-14

c)

6-7

d)

1-7

9.

What is the function of a buffer in the body?

a)

To donate hydrogen ions

b)

To donate hydroxyl ions

c)

To help maintain the body's pH balance

d)

To increase acidity

10.

What is the role of a buffer in maintaining the body's pH level?

a)

Buffers donate OH- ions to increase acidity.

b)

Buffers donate H+ ions to increase acidity.

c)

Buffers donate OH- ions to neutralize excess H+ ions.

d)

Buffers donate H+ ions to neutralize excess OH- ions.

11.

What is the difference between an ion and an isotope?

a)

An ion has lost or gained neutrons, while an isotope has lost or gained electrons.

b)

An ion has lost or gained electrons, while an isotope has lost or gained neutrons.

c)

Both ions and isotopes involve changes in the number of protons.

d)

An isotope has lost or gained electrons, while an ion has lost or gained neutrons.

12.

Which of the following best describes covalent bonding?

a)

A pair of electrons is shared by two atoms to fill their outer shells evenly.

b)

An atom takes one or more electrons from another atom to fill its outer shell.

c)

A weak bond formed between polar molecules.

d)

A bond formed due to the attraction between positive and negative ions.

13.

What is the molecular ratio of carbohydrates?

a)

C:H:O = 1:2:1

b)

C:H:O = 1:1:2

c)

C:H:O = 2:1:1

d)

C:H:O = 1:2:2

14.

Which of the following is a characteristic of lipids?

a)

Lipids are water-soluble.

b)

Lipids contain a high concentration of energy.

c)

Lipids have little or no oxygen.

d)

Lipids are commonly stored in glycogen form.

15.

What is the primary function of phospholipids in the body?

a)

They store fats in the body.

b)

They form the membrane around cells.

c)

They provide the highest concentration of energy.

d)

They are water-soluble molecules.

16.

What elements are found in proteins?

a)

Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen only.

b)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, and Nitrogen.

c)

Carbon, Hydrogen, and Nitrogen only.

d)

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, and Phosphorus.

17.

What type of bond connects the carboxyl group of one amino acid to the amine group of another amino acid?

a)

Ionic bond

b)

Hydrogen bond

c)

Peptide bond

d)

Covalent bond

18.

Which of the following is a characteristic of saturated lipids?

a)

At least one carbon is double bonded

b)

No double bonds for carbons, full of hydrogen

c)

Missing hydrogen atoms

d)

Contains peptide bonds

19.

What is the primary structure of a protein?

a)

The sequence of amino acids in the protein connected via peptide bonds

b)

Hydrogen bonds causing a coil effect

c)

Disulfide bonds causing folding

d)

Two or more amino acid chains bonded together

20.

What is the significance of enzyme shape to its function?

a)

Enzymes can function regardless of their shape

b)

Enzymes must match the shape of their substrate to function

c)

Enzymes are unaffected by substrate shape

d)

Enzymes only work in acidic environments

21.

Which factor can cause enzymes to change shape?

a)

Temperature

b)

pH

c)

Ion concentration

d)

All of the above

22.

Which organelle is responsible for holding DNA in a cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Lysosome

23.

What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

a)

Makes carbohydrates and lipids

b)

Modifies and repackages proteins

c)

Makes proteins

d)

Holds DNA

24.

Which organelle modifies and repackages carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins for export?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Lysosome

d)

Mitochondria

25.

What is the powerhouse of the cell that produces ATP?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Vacuoles

d)

Flagella

26.

What is the high energy form of the energy currency of the cell?

a)

ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate)

b)

ADP

c)

NADH

d)

FADH2

27.

Which organelle stores water, salts, sugars, or waste products in the cell?

a)

Vacuoles

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Flagella

28.

What is diffusion?

a)

A movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to low concentration due to the random movement of molecules.

b)

Diffusion does not require energy.

c)

All molecules in liquids and gases have rotational spin.

d)

Diffusion is the movement of molecules against the concentration gradient.

29.

Which factor increases the rate of diffusion?

a)

Higher temperature

b)

Larger molecular size

c)

Lower concentration gradient

d)

Decreased temperature

30.

What type of cell transport involves protein carriers that change shape when binding to molecules?

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Solubility diffusion

c)

Pore diffusion

d)

Active transport

31.

Which type of diffusion allows ions to cross the membrane through protein pores?

a)

Pore diffusion

b)

Solubility diffusion

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Active transport

32.

What is the difference in concentration between the inside and outside of the cell called?

a)

Concentration gradient

b)

Molecular size

c)

Temperature gradient

d)

Diffusion rate

33.

Which type of cell transport requires energy?

a)

Active transport

b)

Solubility diffusion

c)

Pore diffusion

d)

Facilitated diffusion

34.

What is the process called where energy is used to move chemicals across the membrane against the concentration gradient?

a)

Passive Transport

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active Transport

d)

Diffusion

35.

Which term describes a solution with equal salt/sugar concentration on each side of the membrane?

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

d)

Osmotic

36.

What happens to a cell in a hypertonic solution?

a)

Water moves into the cell, causing it to swell.

b)

Water moves out of the cell, causing it to shrink.

c)

Water concentration remains unchanged.

d)

The cell bursts due to excess water.

37.

What is the movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane from an area of high water concentration to an area of low water concentration called?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active Transport

d)

Endocytosis

38.

What is the process called where materials are moved into the cell by wrapping the membrane around them and budding it off into the cell?

a)

Exocytosis

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Osmosis

d)

Passive Transport

39.

Which process involves the movement of materials out of the cell by fusing membrane-bound units in the cell membrane and dumping the contents outside the cell?

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Osmosis

d)

Active Transport

40.

If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, what will happen to the cell?

a)

The cell will shrink as water moves out.

b)

The cell will swell as water moves in.

c)

The cell will remain unchanged.

d)

The cell will burst immediately.

41.

What is the structure of DNA primarily composed of?

a)

Proteins and lipids

b)

Nucleotides

c)

Sugars and salts

d)

Amino acids

42.

What is the process called where DNA representing one gene is replicated into m-RNA?

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Mutation

43.

Where does transcription occur in the cell?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Ribosome

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

44.

What is the role of the ribosome during translation?

a)

It separates the DNA strands.

b)

It locks onto the m-RNA molecule and reads three base sequences at a time.

c)

It creates the double helix structure of DNA.

d)

It transports amino acids to the nucleus.

45.

What is the number of homologous sets of chromosomes in a haploid cell?

a)

One set

b)

Two sets

c)

Three sets

d)

Four sets

46.

How many cells does mitosis produce and what is their ploidy?

a)

Two diploid cells

b)

Four haploid cells

c)

Two haploid cells

d)

Four diploid cells

47.

How many cells does meiosis produce and what is their ploidy?

a)

Two diploid cells

b)

Four haploid cells

c)

Two haploid cells

d)

Four diploid cells

48.

What term is used to describe cells with two sets of chromosomes that are homologous?

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

c)

Anaplasia

d)

Hyperplasia

49.

Which term refers to the spread of malignant cells to other parts of the body?

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Metastasis

c)

Benign

d)

Anaplasia

50.

What is hyperplasia?

a)

Uncontrolled cell division

b)

Cells that do not specialize the way they should

c)

A tumor that is not metastatic

d)

A tumor that is metastatic

51.

What is the term for cells that do not specialize the way they should and resemble undifferentiated cells?

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Anaplasia

c)

Benign

d)

Malignant

52.

Which type of tumor is not metastatic?

a)

Benign

b)

Malignant

c)

Metastatic

d)

Hyperplasia

53.

What is oxygen debt?

a)

The accumulation of oxygen in the bloodstream

b)

The buildup of lactic acid due to anaerobic respiration

c)

The process of breaking down compounds in the body

d)

The process of building up compounds in the body

54.

Which type of tissue lines the outside of the body and organs that receive input from outside the body?

a)

Connective tissue

b)

Epithelial tissue

c)

Muscle tissue

d)

Nervous tissue

55.

Which type of tissue holds the body together?

a)

Epithelial tissue

b)

Connective tissue

c)

Muscle tissue

d)

Nervous tissue

56.

Which type of tissue is responsible for carrying nerve signals?

a)

Epithelial tissue

b)

Connective tissue

c)

Muscle tissue

d)

Nervous tissue

57.

What is a characteristic of the epidermis?

a)

Contains blood vessels

b)

Dense, irregular connective tissue

c)

Prevents water loss

d)

Mostly fat under the dermis

58.

What do melanocytes produce, and what is their function?

a)

Collagen; provides structural support to the skin

b)

Melanin; responsible for pigmentation and UV protection

c)

Keratin; prevents water loss

d)

Fat; provides insulation and energy storage

59.

Which type of gland secretes substances inside the body and does not have ducts?

a)

Exocrine glands

b)

Endocrine glands

c)

Sebaceous glands

d)

Apocrine glands

60.

What is the primary function of eccrine glands?

a)

Producing oily secretion for skin protection

b)

Cooling the body by producing sweat

c)

Producing pheromones for sex attraction

d)

Producing sebum for waterproofing the skin

61.

Which type of secretion involves whole cells breaking off and dumping their contents?

a)

Merocrine

b)

Apocrine

c)

Holocrine

d)

Eccrine

62.

Which type of sweat gland is located in the groin and arm pits and is associated with stress, salts, and pheromones?

a)

Eccrine glands

b)

Sebaceous glands

c)

Apocrine sweat glands

d)

Endocrine glands

63.

What are three responses of the body when it is too cold?

a)

Sweating increases, blood vessels move away from skin, shivering

b)

No sweating, blood vessels move away from skin, shivering

c)

Sweating increases, increased blood flow to extremities, reduce metabolism

d)

No sweating, increased blood flow to extremities, reduce metabolism

64.

Which type of gland produces sebum to keep the skin soft, pliable, and waterproof?

a)

Eccrine glands

b)

Apocrine glands

c)

Sebaceous glands

d)

Endocrine glands

65.

What type of secretion involves moving material out of the cells by osmosis or exocytosis?

a)

Holocrine

b)

Merocrine

c)

Apocrine

d)

Sebaceous

66.

Which type of gland is active from puberty onward and is associated with hair follicles?

a)

Eccrine glands

b)

Apocrine glands

c)

Sebaceous glands

d)

Endocrine glands

67.

What happens to blood vessels when the body is too cold?

a)

They move closer to the skin to increase heat loss

b)

They move away from the skin to conserve heat

c)

They dilate to increase blood flow to extremities

d)

They constrict to increase sweating

68.

Which type of gland is not associated with hair follicles and is found all over the body?

a)

Apocrine glands

b)

Sebaceous glands

c)

Eccrine glands

d)

Endocrine glands

69.

What is the function of the epiphyseal plate in long bones?

a)

It provides a site for muscle attachment.

b)

It allows for interstitial growth in length and appositional growth in width.

c)

It stores calcium and phosphate.

d)

It protects the bone from external damage.

70.

What is ossification?

a)

The process of bone resorption by osteoclasts.

b)

The precipitation of calcium phosphate within the cartilage matrix, making bones hard and stone-like.

c)

The process of blood cell production in the bone marrow.

d)

The formation of cartilage in the joints.

71.

Where is spongy bone found in long bones?

a)

In the shaft of the bone.

b)

At the ends of the bones beyond the epiphyseal plates.

c)

Surrounding the central canal of the haversian system.

d)

In the periosteum.

72.

What is the function of the haversian system in compact bone?

a)

It provides a site for muscle attachment.

b)

It stores fat and energy.

c)

It provides the structure for osteocytes and contains blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves.

d)

It allows for the growth of the bone in length.

73.

What are lamellae in the haversian system?

a)

Canals in the center of the haversian system that contain blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves.

b)

Concentric layers of bone that surround the central canal.

c)

The outermost layer of the bone.

d)

The cartilage found at the ends of long bones.

74.

What is the function of osteocytes?

a)

They reabsorb bone using lysosomes.

b)

They lay down and maintain bone.

c)

They connect the lacunae to allow plasma circulation.

d)

They increase blood calcium levels.

75.

What is the role of canaliculi in bone structure?

a)

They connect the lacunae and allow plasma circulation around osteocytes.

b)

They produce lysosomes for bone remodeling.

c)

They increase osteoclast activity.

d)

They form compact bone during ossification.

76.

Which type of growth occurs longitudinally in bones?

a)

Appositional growth.

b)

Interstitial growth.

c)

Secondary ossification.

d)

Medullary cavity expansion.

77.

What is the primary difference between interstitial growth and appositional growth?

a)

Interstitial growth increases bone diameter, while appositional growth increases bone length.

b)

Interstitial growth occurs at the epiphyseal plate, while appositional growth occurs on the bone's outer surface.

c)

Interstitial growth involves osteoclast activity, while appositional growth involves osteocyte activity.

d)

Interstitial growth occurs after birth, while appositional growth occurs before birth.

78.

Which hormone is responsible for increasing blood calcium levels?

a)

Calcitonin.

b)

Parathyroid hormone.

c)

Thyroid hormone.

d)

Vitamin D.

79.

What is the function of calcitonin?

a)

It increases blood calcium levels.

b)

It decreases osteocyte activity.

c)

It builds bones and decreases blood calcium levels.

d)

It increases osteoclast activity.

80.

Which movement involves decreasing the angle between two bones?

a)

Extension.

b)

Flexion.

c)

Circumduction.

d)

Rotation.

81.

What type of movement involves moving a limb away from the midline of the body?

a)

Abduction.

b)

Adduction.

c)

Rotation.

d)

Circumduction.

82.

Which movement involves a circular motion combining flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction?

a)

Rotation.

b)

Circumduction.

c)

Extension.

d)

Flexion.

83.

What does flexion refer to in terms of movement?

a)

Movement of a bone away from the body midline

b)

Decreases the angle between two articulating bones in anterior/posterior plane

c)

Increases the angle between two articulating bones in anterior/posterior plane

d)

Movement of the distal end of a body part in a circle

84.

Which type of muscle is striated, myogenic, and has intercalated disks?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Smooth muscle

c)

Cardiac muscle

d)

None of the above

85.

What is the primary function of ligaments?

a)

Connect muscle to bones

b)

Hold bone to bone and provide some stretch

c)

Surround joints and alleviate friction

d)

Store calcium ions

86.

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum and what does it store?

a)

A type of tissue that connects muscle to bones and stores calcium ions

b)

A special type of endoplasmic reticulum that stores calcium ions

c)

A structure near the joint that alleviates friction and stores calcium ions

d)

A repair tissue that forms scars and stores calcium ions

87.

What is the difference between regeneration and replacement in tissue repair?

a)

Regeneration involves repair with a different type of tissue, while replacement uses the same type of tissue

b)

Regeneration involves repair with the same type of tissue, while replacement uses a different type of tissue

c)

Regeneration produces scars, while replacement does not

d)

Regeneration is slower than replacement

88.

What is the term for where a muscle attaches to a bone that does not move when the muscle contracts?

a)

Insertion

b)

Origin

c)

Action

d)

Flexion

89.

Which movement involves the distal end of a body part moving in a circle?

a)

Flexion

b)

Circumduction

c)

Abduction

d)

Rotation

90.

What is the function of bursae?

a)

Hold bone to bone and provide stretch

b)

Connect muscle to bones

c)

Alleviate friction near joints and are filled with synovial fluid

d)

Store calcium ions

91.

What is the sarcolemma, and what is its function in a muscle cell?

a)

The sarcolemma is the plasma membrane that surrounds a nerve cell and carries neurotransmitters.

b)

The sarcolemma is the plasma membrane that surrounds a muscle cell and carries contraction signals to the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

c)

The sarcolemma is the cytoplasm of a muscle cell and stores calcium ions.

d)

The sarcolemma is the nucleus of a muscle cell and controls cell division.

92.

What happens when a nerve signal reaches a muscle cell?

a)

The sarcolemma releases calcium ions into the cytoplasm.

b)

Acetylcholine opens Na+ gates on the muscle cell, allowing Na+ to diffuse into the cell.

c)

K+ gates open, allowing potassium ions to diffuse into the cell.

d)

The muscle cell immediately returns to resting potential (-90mv).

93.

What occurs during the action potential phase (+40mv) in a muscle cell?

a)

Na+ gates close, and K+ gates open, allowing K+ to diffuse out of the cell.

b)

Ca++ gates on the sarcoplasmic reticulum close, stopping calcium diffusion.

c)

The cell returns to resting potential (-90mv).

d)

Na+ gates open, allowing sodium ions to diffuse into the cell.

94.

What happens during the repolarization phase of a muscle cell?

a)

K+ gates close, and Na+/K+ pump starts active transport of ions, returning the cell to resting potential (-90mv).

b)

Ca++ gates open, allowing calcium ions to diffuse into the cytoplasm.

c)

Na+ gates open, allowing sodium ions to diffuse into the cell.

d)

The cell reaches action potential (+40mv).

95.

What is the role of Ca++ ions during muscle contraction?

a)

Ca++ ions diffuse into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, causing muscle relaxation.

b)

Ca++ ions diffuse out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytoplasm, causing muscle contraction.

c)

Ca++ ions are actively transported into the sarcolemma, stopping muscle contraction.

d)

Ca++ ions open Na+ gates, allowing sodium ions to diffuse into the cell.

96.

Which muscle proteins are involved in skeletal muscle contraction?

a)

Myosin, actin, troponin, and tropomyosin

b)

Myosin, actin, calmodulin, and tropomyosin

c)

Myosin, actin, ATP, and calcium ions

d)

Myosin, actin, sarcoplasmic reticulum, and troponin

97.

Where does most of the calcium that causes muscle contraction in smooth muscle come from?

a)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

Outside the cell

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Nucleus

98.

What is the role of Ca++ ions in smooth muscle contraction?

a)

They bind with troponin to expose myosin binding sites

b)

They bind with calmodulin to activate light chain kinase

c)

They directly catalyze the addition of ATP to myosin heads

d)

They block the actin-myosin interaction

99.

How is smooth muscle contraction different from skeletal muscle contraction?

a)

Smooth muscle uses troponin and tropomyosin to block myosin binding sites

b)

Smooth muscle relies on calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum only

c)

Smooth muscle does not use troponin/tropomyosin to block myosin binding sites

d)

Smooth muscle contraction is initiated by ATP only

100.

What terms are used to describe the parts of a neuron involved in transmitting a nerve signal?

a)

Axonal tree, dendritic axon, and synapse

b)

Dendritic tree, axonal tree, and axon

c)

Dendritic tree, axonal tree, and nucleus

d)

Axonal tree, dendritic axon, and mitochondria

101.

All muscles work by

a)

Relaxing

b)

Contracting

c)

Twisting

d)

Getting longer

102.

___are regulatory proteins that cover the myosin binding site on the actin.

a)

troponin-tropomyosin

b)

sarcomere

c)

sarcolemma

d)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

103.

When a muscle contracts, it ____________

a)

gets longer

b)

gets shorter

c)

gets thinner

d)

grows hair

104.

During a muscle contraction, cross-bridges from between what two structures?

a)

Actin and myosin fibers

b)

neuron and muscle

c)

mitochondria and actin

105.
The neurotransmitter that signals muscle contraction is called...
a)
Ach
b)
Myosin
c)
Actin
d)
Calcium
106.

Place the following events in sequence:

A) Your arm moves

B) An impulse travels along a nerve

C) You decide you want to move your arm.

a)

A B C

b)

C B A

c)

C A B

d)

A C B

107.

explanation for how muscles contract to produce force

a)

expansion contraction theory

b)

sliding filament theory

c)

muscular contraction theory

d)

evolution

108.

ability of muscle to shorten and produce tensions at its ends

a)

contractibility

b)

excitability

c)

elasticity

d)

extensibility

109.

When you bend your arm which muscle is contracting, or shortening?

a)

Bicep

b)

Tricep

110.

Which muscle contraction results from a high amount of Ca still remaining in the muscle

a)

Treppe

b)

Tetanus

c)

Muscle Energy

d)

Metabolism

111.

Which muscle contraction results from a high amount of Ca still remaining in the muscle

a)

Treppe

b)

Tetanus

c)

Muscle Energy

d)

Metabolism

112.

Which muscle contraction results from a high amount of Ca still remaining in the muscle

a)

Treppe

b)

Tetanus

c)

Muscle Energy

d)

Metabolism

113.
Muscle contraction can only take place in the presence of ___________.
a)
calcium
b)
potassium
c)
magnesium
d)
selenium
114.

What happens when a muscle CONTRACTS?

a)

The muscle pushes on another bone.

b)

The muscle shortens.

c)

The muscle pushes on another muscle.

d)

The muscle gets longer.

115.

The enzyme cholinesterase causes acetylcholine to

a)

be secreted from the motor end plate.

b)

form cross bridges.

c)

bind to actin.

d)

decompose.

116.
What two chemicals are necessary for muscle contraction to occur?
a)
Niacin and Potassium
b)
Calcium and ATP
c)
Sodium and Potassium
d)
Ach and Potassium
117.

When recruitment occurs, the number of motor units being activated

a)

increases

b)

decreases

118.

When Dr. Jeff bends his arms to lift the weight, what is happening to his bicep muscle?

a)

it is twisting up

b)

it is getting longer

c)

it is contracting

d)

it is relaxing

119.

What do all muscle types require for contraction?

a)

Na+

b)

Ca2+

c)

K+

d)

Mg2+

120.

What happens to the H zone when the sarcomere contracts?

a)

it gets smaller

b)

it gets wider

c)

it stays the same

121.

A person who has a disease that inhibits the production of cholinesterase would have what kind of symptoms?

a)

prolonged muscle contraction

b)

flacid muscles

c)

inability to speak

d)

paralyzed

122.

The all-or-none principle of muscle contraction states what?

a)
Muscle contraction can be controlled and adjusted to different levels of intensity.
b)
Muscle fibers can contract independently of each other.
c)
When a muscle fiber is stimulated to contract, it will contract to its fullest extent or not at all.
d)
When a muscle fiber is stimulated to contract, it will contract partially.
123.

What do all muscle types require for contraction?

a)

Na+

b)

Ca2+

c)

K+

d)

Mg2+

124.

When Dr. Jeff bends his arms to lift the weight, what is happening to his bicep muscle?

a)

it is twisting up

b)

it is getting longer

c)

it is contracting

d)

it is relaxing

125.

What happens to the A band when the sarcomere contracts?

a)

it gets smaller

b)

it gets wider

c)

it stays the same

126.

Functional contractile unit of muscle fiber

a)

Z disc

b)

Sarcolemma

c)

Sarcomere

d)

Actin

127.

What is the role of ATP in muscle contraction?

a)

It binds to actin

b)

It provides energy for the power stroke

c)

It transports calcium ions

d)

It breaks down lactic acid

128.

Which bone is highlighted here?

(a)  

129.

Which bone is highlighted here?

(a)  

130.

What is the name of this bone?

(a)  

131.

What is the highlighted bone?

(a)  

132.

What is the collective name for these bones?

(a)  

133.

Name these highlighted bones.

(a)  

134.

These bones are collectively called

(a)  

135.

Name this bone.

(a)  

136.

Name this bone.

(a)  

137.

Name this bone here.

(a)  

138.

The blue bone(s) on the posterior end of the skull are called

a)

maxillary bones

b)

parietal bones

c)

nasal bones

d)

temporal bones

139.

The green bone(s) inferior to the parietal bones are called

a)

temporal bones

b)

frontal bones

c)

ethmoid bones

d)

sphenoid bones

140.

The large pink bone anterior to the parietal bones is called

a)

the nasal bone

b)

the temporal bone

c)

the vomer

d)

the frontal bone

141.

The parietal and frontal bones are separated by the

a)

squamous suture

b)

lambdoid suture

c)

coronal suture

d)

maxillary bones

142.

Which bone contains the mental foramen?

a)

the maxillary bone

b)

the parietal bone

c)

the occipital bone

d)

the mandible

143.

The yellow bone which spans the entire bottom, interior region of the skull is called the

a)

sphenoid bone

b)

the vomer

c)

the nasal bone

d)

the mandilbe

144.

The empty box on the bottom right of the screen is pointing to which small bone?

a)

the nasal bone

b)

the vomer

c)

the ethmoid bone

d)

the lacrimal bone

145.

The orange bone on the anterior side of the skull is termed the

a)

vomer

b)

maxilla

c)

mandible

d)

sphenoid

146.

The paired blue bones are called

a)

the zygomatic bones

b)

the temporal bones

c)

the occipital bones

d)

the parietal bones

147.

What bones surround the orbital cavity (eye)?

a)

the vomer, the occipital & the nasal bones

b)

the vomer, the ethmoid & the lacrimal bones

c)

the vomer, the mandible & the nasal bones

d)

none of the above are correct

148.

Which bone is posterior and inferior on the skull? (hint: it is not pictured in this diagram)

a)

the ethmoid

b)

the sphenoid

c)

the lacrimal

d)

the occipital

149.

Which suture borders the occipital and the parietal bones?

a)

the lamboid suture

b)

the squamous suture

c)

the coronal suture

150.

The mastoid process belongs to which bone?

a)

the parietal

b)

the temporal

c)

the nasal

d)

the mandible

151.

What is the bone labeled 1?

a)

ischium

b)

pubis

c)

ilium

d)

acetabulum

152.

What bone is labeled 2 and is shaded green?

a)

ischium

b)

pubis

c)

ilium

d)

acetabulum

153.

What feature is labeled 6?

a)

obturator foramen

b)

acetabulum

c)

greater sciatic notch

d)

pubis symphysis

154.

The iliac crest is at which number?

a)

7

b)

9

c)

4

d)

5

155.

What feature is pointed out by arrow 8?

a)

acetabulum

b)

pubis symphysis

c)

iliac spine

d)

obturator foramen

156.

Which bones are highlighted

a)

metacarpals

b)

metatarsals

c)

carpals

d)

tarsals

157.

Which bones are highlighted

a)

metacarpals

b)

metatarsals

c)

carpals

d)

tarsals

158.

What bone articulates with the coxal bone at the acetabulum?

a)

Tibia

b)

Fibula

c)

Femur

d)

Humerus

159.

The head of the humerus articulates with the

a)

Tarsals

b)

Acetabulum

c)

Glenoid cavity

d)

Trochlear notch

160.

What bone articulates with the coxal bone at the acetabulum?

a)

Tibia

b)

Fibula

c)

Femur

d)

Humerus

161.

Which bones are highlighted

a)

carpals

b)

tarsals

c)

metacarpals

d)

metatarsals

162.
Name the bone shown in green.
a)
Femur
b)
Tibia
c)
Patella 
d)
Fibula
163.

a)

clavicle

b)

scapula

c)

humerus

d)

radius

e)

ulna

164.

a)

clavicle

b)

scapula

c)

humerus

d)

radius

e)

ulna

165.

a)

clavicle

b)

scapula

c)

humerus

d)

radius

e)

ulna

166.

a)

clavicle

b)

scapula

c)

humerus

d)

radius

e)

ulna

167.

a)

clavicle

b)

scapula

c)

humerus

d)

radius

e)

ulna

168.

a)

carpals

b)

metacarpals

c)

phalanges

d)

ilium

e)

ischium

169.

a)

carpals

b)

metacarpals

c)

phalanges

d)

ilium

e)

ischium

170.

a)

carpals

b)

metacarpals

c)

phalanges

d)

ilium

e)

ischium

171.

a)

carpals

b)

metacarpals

c)

phalanges

d)

ilium

e)

ischium

172.

a)

coxal

b)

femur

c)

patella

d)

fibula

e)

tibia

173.

a)

coxal

b)

femur

c)

patella

d)

fibula

e)

tibia

174.

a)

coxal

b)

femur

c)

patella

d)

fibula

e)

tibia

175.

a)

coxal

b)

femur

c)

patella

d)

fibula

e)

tibia

176.

a)

coxal

b)

femur

c)

patella

d)

fibula

e)

tibia

177.

a)

Tarsals

b)

Metatarsals

c)

phalanges of feet

d)

iliac crest

e)

calcaneus

178.

a)

Tarsals

b)

Metatarsals

c)

phalanges of feet

d)

iliac crest

e)

calcaneus

179.

a)

Tarsals

b)

Metatarsals

c)

phalanges of feet

d)

iliac crest

e)

calcaneus

180.

a)

Tarsals

b)

Metatarsals

c)

phalanges of feet

d)

iliac crest

e)

calcaneus

181.

a)

Tarsals

b)

Metatarsals

c)

phalanges of feet

d)

iliac crest

e)

calcaneus

182.
What is this?
a)
Head of Radius
b)
Head of Humerus
c)
Head of Ulna
d)
Deltoid Tuberosity
183.
What is this?
a)
Olecranon Process
b)
Head of Radius
c)
Styloid Process of Ulna
d)
Trochlea
184.
What is this?
a)
Head of Radius
b)
Olecranon Process
c)
Capitulum
d)
Trochlea
185.
What is this?
a)
Acromion
b)
Glenoid Fossa
c)
Coracoid Process
d)
Head of Scapula
186.
a)

SPINE

b)

ACROMION

c)

CORACOID PROCESS

d)

SUPRAGLENOID TUBERCLE

187.
a)
Acromion Process
b)
Coracoid process
c)
Infraglenoid tubercle
d)
Superior angle of scapula
188.
a)
subscapular fossa
b)
glenoid cavity
c)
medial border
d)
spine of the scapula
189.
Which marking is this?
a)
capitulum
b)
trochlea
c)
olecranon fossa
d)
coronoid fossa
190.
Which marking is this?
a)
capitulum
b)
trochlea
c)
olecranon fossa
d)
coronoid fossa
191.
Which marking is this?
a)
capitulum
b)
trochlea
c)
olecranon fossa
d)
coronoid fossa
192.

a)

lesser tubercle

b)

greater tubercle

193.

1

(a)  

194.

4

(a)  

195.

5

(a)  

196.
Which marking is this?
a)
capitulum
b)
trochlea
c)
medial epicondyle
d)
lateral epicondyle
197.

a)

greater tubercle

b)

lesser tubercle

c)

deltoid tuberosity

d)

coronoid fossa

198.

a)

Intertubercular groove

b)

coronoid process

c)

trochlea

d)

condyle

199.

What is number 1?

a)

humerus

b)

ulna

c)

radius

d)

femur

200.

What is number 3?

a)

humerus

b)

radius

c)

ulna

d)

femur

201.

What is number 4?

a)

Humerus

b)

Radius

c)

Ulna

d)

Femur

202.

What is number 5?

a)

head of the radius

b)

head of the ulna

c)

ulnar styloid process

d)

radial styloid process

203.

Number 4

a)

Posterior Superior Iliac Spine

b)

Greater Sciatic Notch

c)

Lesser Sciatic Notch

d)

Obturator Foramen

e)

Iliac Crest

204.

Number 2

a)

Posterior Superior Iliac Spine

b)

Greater Sciatic Notch

c)

Lesser Sciatic Notch

d)

Obturator Foramen

e)

Iliac Crest

205.

Which bone is labeled A

a)

frontal

b)

parietal

c)

occipital

d)

temporal

206.

Which bone is labeled B

a)

occipital

b)

parietal

c)

frontal

d)

temporal

207.

Which bone is labeled C

a)

occipital

b)

sphenoid

c)

frontal

d)

parietal

208.

Which bone is labeled D

a)

sphenoid

b)

temporal

c)

parietal

d)

occipital

209.

Which bone is labeled E

a)

temporal

b)

sphenoid

c)

frontal

d)

zygomatic

210.

Which bone is labeled F

a)

zygomatic

b)

temporal

c)

sphenoid

d)

occipital

211.

Which bone is bone 1

a)

zygomatic

b)

nasal

c)

vomer

d)

inferior nasal conche

212.

Which is bone 4

a)

maxilla

b)

mandible

c)

zygomatic

d)

nasal

213.

Which is bone 6

a)

mandible

b)

maxilla

c)

sphenoid

d)

nasal

214.

Which ribs are highlighted

a)

true ribs

b)

false ribs

c)

floating ribs

215.

Which ribs are highlighted

a)

true ribs

b)

false ribs

c)

floating ribs

216.

Which section of the rib cage is highlighted

a)

true ribs

b)

false ribs

c)

floating ribs

217.

Which part of the sternum is highlighted

a)

xiphoid procces

b)

body

c)

manubrium

218.

Which section of the sternum is highlighted in green

a)

manubrium

b)

body

c)

xiphoid process

219.

Identify vertebrae in green

a)

Cervical Vertebrae

b)

Thoracic Vertebrae

c)

Lumbar Vertebrae

d)

Sacrum

e)

Coccyx

220.

Identify vertebrae in orange

a)

Cervical Vertebrae

b)

Thoracic Vertebrae

c)

Lumbar Vertebrae

d)

Sacrum

e)

Coccyx

221.

Identify vertebrae in pink

a)

Cervical Vertebrae

b)

Thoracic Vertebrae

c)

Lumbar Vertebrae

d)

Sacrum

e)

Coccyx

222.

Identify vertebrae in blue

a)

Cervical Vertebrae

b)

Thoracic Vertebrae

c)

Lumbar Vertebrae

d)

Sacrum

e)

Coccyx

223.

Identify vertebrae in purple

a)

Cervical Vertebrae

b)

Thoracic Vertebrae

c)

Lumbar Vertebrae

d)

Sacrum

e)

Coccyx

224.

How do true ribs differ from false ribs?

a)

True ribs are attached directly to the sternum but the false ribs are not directly attached.

b)

True ribs are not directly attached to the sternum but the false ribs are attached directly to the sternum

c)

True ribs are not directly attached to the sternum but the false ribs are completely detached.

225.

How many true ribs, false ribs, and floating ribs do humans have?

a)

7, 5, 2

b)

5, 7, 2

c)

2, 5, 7

d)

10, 2

226.

How many ribs do humans have total?

a)

14

b)

10

c)

24

d)

20

227.

How many cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae do humans have?

a)

7, 12, 5

b)

12, 7, 5

c)

5, 12, 7

d)

5, 5, 12

228.

The axial skeleton is made up of.... (Select all that apply)

a)

Bony Thorax

b)

Limbs

c)

Vertebral Column

d)

Skull

e)

Hip Girdle

229.

Identify blue part of the bone

a)

Xiphoid Process

b)

Manubrium

c)

Body

d)

Sternum

230.

What bone is this?

a)

thoracic vertebra

b)

atlas

c)

axis

d)

lumbar vertebra

231.

What bone is this?

a)

axis

b)

sacrum

c)

atlas

d)

lumbar

232.
What does letter A represent ?
a)
body
b)
pedicles
c)
spinous process
d)
vertebral foramen
233.
What does letter B represent?
a)
body
b)
pedicles
c)
spinous process
d)
vertebral foramen
234.
What does letter C represent?
a)
body
b)
pedicles
c)
spinous process
d)
vertebral foramen
235.
How many true ribs are there?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
7
236.
First cervical vertebra.
a)
Axis
b)
Body
c)
Vertebra prominens
d)
Atlas
237.
Weight-bearing region of the vertebrae that makes up bulk of the bone's mass; anterior portion of vertebrae
a)
body 
b)
transverse process
c)
spinous process
d)
vertebral foramen
238.
The first curve of the spine; thinnest most delicate vertebrae in the spine; function to allow flexibility for the neck, to protect the spinal cord
a)
cervical vertebrae
b)
thoracic vertebrae
c)
lumbar vertebrae
d)
vertebral foramen
239.

Which type of vertebrae is circled here?

a)

Thoracic

b)

Cervical

c)

Lumbar

240.

Why would the lumbar vertebrae have the biggest body?

a)

It supports the weight of the torso, head, and arms

b)

The spinal cord is thicker here

c)

This section requires more blood flow

d)

There are more muscles and ligaments that attach here

241.

what are the true ribs?

a)

binds directly to sternum (1st-7th)

b)

binds indirectly to sternum(1st-7th)

c)

does not bind to sternum (11th-12th)

d)

binds indirectly to sternum(8th-10th)

242.

what are the false ribs?

a)

binds directly to sternum (1st-7th)

b)

binds indirectly to sternum(1st-7th)

c)

does not bind to sternum (11th-12th)

d)

binds indirectly to sternum(8th-10th)

243.

what are the floating ribs?

a)

binds directly to sternum (1st-7th)

b)

binds indirectly to sternum(1st-7th)

c)

does not bind to sternum (11th-12th)

d)

binds indirectly to sternum(8th-10th)

244.
What is this?
a)
Foramen Magnum
b)
Jugular Foramen
c)
Carotid Canal
d)
External Acoustic Meatus