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Marketing Concepts Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 128

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

is a group of people with sufficient purchasing power, authority, and willingness to buy.

a)

Target market

b)

Customers

c)

Market

d)

Consumers

2.

Tennis balls were originally designed and marketed for tennis players. In order to increase sales they started expanding to new markets such as dog toys and chair leg sliders. This is an example of which product development strategy?

a)

expansion

b)

market penetration

c)

product development

d)

market development

3.

The segment of consumers that are most likely to purchase a particular item.

a)

Customer Market

b)

Consumer Market

c)

Target Market

d)

Market

4.

When we are discussing things like weather patterns and temperature ranges we are referring to which part of geographic segmentation?

a)

Region

b)

Segment

c)

Climate

d)

Seasons

5.

When we are segmenting people based on variables such as gender, age, and income we are engaging in what type of segmentation?

a)

Demographic

b)

Targeting

c)

Psychographic

d)

Behavioral

6.

Differentiating groups based on values and lifestyles is known as which type of segmentation?

a)

Psychographic segmentation

b)

Behavioral segmentation

c)

Demographic segmentation

d)

Physiological segmentation

7.

Which of the following are strategies associated with the opportunity matrix?

a)

Market Penetration

b)

Implementation

c)

Innovation

d)

Diversification

8.

Marketing myopia is best described as a company's failure to understand what industry they are truly in and therefore make poor strategic decisions.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

The global mix is comprised of different components than the domestic marketing mix due to it being very different in strategic nature.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Which of the following is something we would consider with behavioral segmentation?

a)

Values

b)

Benefits sought

c)

Income

d)

Attitudes

11.

What are the parts of a SWOT analysis?

a)

Threat

b)

Opportunity

c)

Strength

d)

Weakness

e)

Strategy

12.

What is the term associated with companies being profitable, obeying laws, being ethical, and being philanthropic?

a)

Altruism

b)

Utilitarianism

c)

Capitalism

d)

Corporate Social Responsibility

13.

America focusing on soybean production and Brazil focusing on coffee bean production because it is what they are most efficient at is an example of what?

a)

supply advantage

b)

absolute advantage

c)

trading advantage

d)

comparative advantage

14.

What is the term for the market value of goods produced over a certain amount of time?

a)

Gross Domestic Product

b)

National revenue

c)

Production Value

d)

Market Cap

15.

A company has identified one of their business units as a dog product on the BCG matrix. They are therefore deciding to shut down this business unit. This is most likely a good strategy.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Which of the following are parts of the marketing mix?

a)

Price

b)

People

c)

Promotion

d)

Personality

17.

Which of the following are examples of demographics?

a)

Income

b)

Age

c)

Attitudes

d)

Climate

e)

Benefits sought

18.

Which marketing philosophy believes that pushy salespeople can sell products for a profit and therefore be successful?

a)

Market orientation

b)

Production orientation

c)

Demand orientation

d)

Sales orientation

19.

Which components of the SWOT analysis are considered to be internal?

a)

Weakness

b)

Strength

c)

Strategy

d)

Threat

20.

Cash cow products are considered to be high in market share but low in market growth.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

A market development strategy involves a company launch a new product in a new market.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

A good example of a target market identification for Disney is children because they are the ones who enjoy the products and services.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

A student identifying an opportunity for Toyota is further investment in electric and hybrid vehicles is an example of opportunity.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating, delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners, and society at large

a)

target market

b)

myopia

c)

marketing

d)

business

25.

Understanding another country's religion, languages, and tastes is important to understand as what part of the external environment?

a)

culture

b)

technology

c)

politics

d)

relations

26.

Which of the following would be considerations with the external environment?

a)

technology

b)

politics

c)

competition

d)

laws and regulations

27.

Postpurchase behavior focuses on customer satisfaction and future repurchase intent.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

What type of involvement is characterized by routine decision-making and low perceived risk?

a)

Automatic response involvement

b)

High involvement

c)

Medium involvement

d)

Low involvement

29.

Which buying decision style involves the most time and effort?

a)

Extensive

b)

Habitual

c)

Limited

d)

Routine

30.

Which factors influence consumer behavior?

a)

Cultural

b)

Social

c)

Individual

d)

Psychological

31.

Reference groups, family, and opinion leaders are part of which factor influencing behavior?

a)

Social

b)

Environmental

c)

Psychological

d)

External perception

32.

Business-to-business (B2B) marketing involves the marketing of goods for:

a)

Personal use

b)

Retail stores only

c)

Household use

d)

Purposes other than personal consumption

33.

Which of the following are examples of business customer categories? End-use consumers

a)

End use consumers

b)

Institutions

c)

Government

d)

Resellers

34.

The group involved in a business purchase decision is called the:

a)

Decision group

b)

Consumerism circle

c)

Procurement department

d)

The buying center

35.

Retailers and wholesalers fall under which category of business customers?

a)

Producers

b)

Resellers

c)

Government

d)

Manufacturers

36.

Dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers with similar needs or characteristics is called:

a)

Differentiation

b)

Targeting

c)

Market segmentation

d)

Positioning

37.

Psychographic segmentation divides markets by age, gender, and income.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Behavioral segmentation looks at how consumers use or respond to a product.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Concentrated (niche) marketing focuses on:

a)

Mass audiences

b)

One small specific segment

c)

All possible segments

d)

The largest segment

40.

Cannibalization occurs when a company's new product eats into sales of its existing products.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

A perceptual map is used to:

a)

Measure advertising reach

b)

Visualize how consumers perceive brands

c)

Track sales performance

d)

Identify geographic areas

42.

Repositioning involves changing the place a product occupies in consumers' minds.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Differentiated (multisegment) marketing means:

a)

Selling to one small group

b)

Ignoring segmentation

c)

Offering the same product to all consumers

d)

Targeting several segments with different marketing mixes

44.

Data collected for the first time for a specific research purpose is called:

a)

Primary

b)

Intentional

c)

Secondary

d)

Initial

45.

Secondary data is typically more expensive and time-consuming to collect than primary data.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Which of the following is an advantage of secondary data?

a)

It is specific to your study

b)

It is always reliable

c)

It is gathered directly from respondents

d)

It is cheaper and faster to obtain

47.

Customer Relationship Management (CRM) focuses on building and maintaining profitable customer relationships.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Marketing research can help managers:

a)

Identify opportunities

b)

Monitor performance

c)

Evaluate marketing actions

49.

The goal of marketing research is to improve decision-making and reduce risk.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Routine response behavior involves extensive research before purchase.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

The consumer loyalty loop encourages repeat purchases and advocacy.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Hospitals and universities buying supplies for operations are classified as:

a)

Government

b)

Installations

c)

Institutions

d)

Resellers

53.

When a company markets the same product to everyone with no changes, it's practicing:

a)

Niche marketing

b)

Concentrated marketing

c)

Undifferentiated marketing

d)

Differentiated marketing

54.

Positioning can be reinforced through consistent messaging across all elements of the marketing mix.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Which of the following most influences high-involvement decisions?

a)

Habit and convenience

b)

Significant financial and personal risk

c)

Loyalty

d)

Social factors

56.

Which of the following are examples of psychological influences on consumer behavior?

a)

Family

b)

Values

c)

Attitudes

d)

Learning

e)

Usage rate

57.

A product is defined as:

a)

Only the brand and packaging

b)

Everything, both favorable and unfavorable, a person receives in an exchange

c)

The marketing mix element involving price

d)

Only the physical goods received in exchange

58.

Which of the following is not a type of consumer product?

a)

Specialty

b)

Convenience

c)

Competitive

d)

Shopping

59.

Convenience products require extensive comparison before purchase.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

A product line is best described as:

a)

All the brands owned by a company

b)

All products offered to a specific target market

c)

A single product sold by a company

d)

A group of closely related product items

61.

The product mix width refers to:

a)

The number of product lines offered by an organization

b)

The number of variations within a single product line

c)

The total number of product items in a company

d)

The overall product lifecycle

62.

The product line depth refers to:

a)

The number of product lines

b)

The average price range

c)

The number of product items in a product line

d)

The variety of brands offered

63.

Product modification means adding new product lines to the existing mix.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

The practice of modifying products so older versions become obsolete is known as:

a)

Brand dilution

b)

Planned obsolescence

c)

Product repositioning

d)

Product extension

65.

A product line extension occurs when:

a)

A company discontinues a line

b)

Additional products are added to an existing line

c)

A brand is sold to another firm

d)

A new category is introduced

66.

The brand name refers to:

a)

The logo

b)

The spoken part of a brand

c)

A visual symbol

d)

The overall identity

67.

Brand loyalty describes:

a)

Brand awareness campaigns

b)

A short-term promotion

c)

Trademark protection

d)

Consistent preference for one brand over all others

68.

Product development is a marketing strategy that involves:

a)

Creating new products for the market

b)

Improving distribution

c)

Pricing strategy

d)

Expanding into foreign markets

69.

Diffusion of innovation refers to:

a)

Market segmentation strategy

b)

Sales forecasting

c)

The stages of the product life cycle

d)

The spread of new products through society

70.

The first group to adopt a new product is called:

a)

Early adopters

b)

Innovators

c)

Laggards

d)

Early majority

71.

The early majority tends to adopt a new product:

a)

Last

b)

Before most people

c)

After innovators and early adopters

d)

Only after it is obsolete

72.

Laggards are typically skeptical and adopt new products last.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

The product life cycle includes which four stages?

a)

Introduction, growth, maturity, and decline

b)

Planning, production, pricing, and promotion

c)

Testing, diffusion, maturity, and pricing

d)

Research, development, distribution, and decline

74.

The growth stage is characterized by:

a)

Increasing sales and profits

b)

High competition and falling demand

c)

Market saturation

d)

Product withdrawal

75.

During the maturity stage, which statement is accurate?

a)

Sales peak and profits begin to decline

b)

The product is discontinued

c)

Competitors leave the market

d)

Sales grow rapidly

76.

A service is defined as which of the following?

a)

The result of applying human or mechanical efforts to people or objects

b)

A tangible product

c)

A product that can be inventoried

d)

A physical good that can be stored

77.

Services are tangible and can be stored like goods.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Intangibility means which of the following?

a)

Consumers can sample before buying

b)

Services are always digital

c)

Services require physical delivery

d)

Services cannot be touched, seen, or stored like goods

79.

Inseparability refers to which concept?

a)

The ability to automate service delivery

b)

Customer control over the process

c)

Service perishability

d)

The inability to separate production and consumption of a service

80.

Heterogeneity means which of the following?

a)

The quality of goods is identical

b)

Services vary due to human involvement

c)

Services are uniform and predictable

d)

All services are automated

81.

Assurance relates to conveying trust and confidence to customers.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Which of the following best defines Supply Chain Management?

a)

Integrating supply chain activities into one seamless process

b)

Outsourcing distribution only

c)

Managing only transportation functions

d)

Reducing marketing expenses

83.

Which SCM process focuses on building and maintaining interactions with customers?

a)

Demand management

b)

Order fulfillment

c)

Manufacturing flow management

d)

Customer relationship management

84.

Offshoring refers to which action?

a)

Moving business processes to another country far away

b)

Eliminating intermediaries

c)

Contracting another firm domestically

d)

Moving business processes closer to home markets

85.

A direct marketing channel is one in which what occurs?

a)

Products pass through wholesalers first

b)

The producer sells directly to consumers

c)

Retailers negotiate distribution rights

d)

Intermediaries coordinate delivery

86.

The manufacturing flow management process ensures that products move smoothly through the production cycle.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

Channel conflict occurs when supply chain members disagree on goals or roles.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Selective distribution involves selling a product through every available outlet.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Direct channels eliminate which of the following?

a)

Intermediaries

b)

Agent/Brokers

c)

Retailers

d)

Wholesalers

90.

Which of the following are recognized distribution intensity options? Select all that apply.

a)

Exclusive

b)

Intensive

c)

Selective

d)

Differentiated

91.

Retailing refers to which activity?

a)

Sales directly to consumers for personal use

b)

Selling to supply chain partners

c)

Selling to other businesses

d)

Sales from manufacturers to wholesalers

92.

A franchise includes which characteristic?

a)

Independent brand ownership

b)

License to operate under a larger brand name

c)

No operational support

d)

Free choice of product lines

93.

Which of the following is not a nonstore retailing method?

a)

Warehouse clubs

b)

Telemarketing

c)

Direct retailing

d)

Automatic vending

94.

The "presentation" element in retail strategy includes:

a)

Atmosphere

b)

Personnel

c)

Pricing

d)

Geographic targeting

95.

Chain stores operate independently from each other.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Online retailing is considered a form of nonstore retailing.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Exclusive retailers typically offer wide product assortments.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Retail presentation includes which elements?

a)

Sound

b)

Type and density

c)

Odor

d)

MSRP

99.

Showrooming is when customers shop online to learn about a company's product offerings before they go into a physical store to make their purchases.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

Trends in retailing include:

a)

Click-and-collect

b)

Showrooming

c)

Artificial intelligence

d)

Telemarketing

101.

Which of the following is not part of the promotional mix?

a)

Product design

b)

Personal selling

c)

Advertising

d)

Sales promotion

102.

Marketing communications aim to:

a)

Replace personal selling

b)

Increase production efficiency

c)

Inform, persuade, or remind buyers

d)

Lower distribution costs

103.

The "I" in AIDA stands for:

a)

Influence

b)

Involvement

c)

Interest

d)

Information

104.

IMC (Integrated Marketing Communication) focuses on:

a)

Reducing promotional costs

b)

Ensuring message consistency across all touchpoints

c)

Eliminating traditional media

d)

Sharing messages only via social media

105.

A push strategy is directed primarily toward:

a)

Government agencies

b)

Competitors

c)

Consumers

d)

Retailers and wholesalers

106.

A pull strategy encourages:

a)

Consumers to request the product

b)

Salespeople to discount prices

c)

Manufacturers to increase production

d)

Retailers to stock the product

107.

The promotional mix tends to include more personal selling when:

a)

The product is technical or customized

b)

The product is low value

c)

The product is standardized

d)

The customers are geographically dispersed

108.

The advertising response function states that advertising eventually produces diminishing returns.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

Institutional advertising promotes a specific product

a)

True

b)

False

110.

Which of the following are common advertising appeals?

a)

Profit

b)

Health

c)

Convenience

d)

Fear

111.

Public relations is part of the promotional mix.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

Advertising is typically:

a)

Non Personal and paid

b)

Personal and interactive

c)

Free and spontaneous

113.

Personal selling is most appropriate when:

a)

The product is simple and standardized

b)

Customers are widespread

c)

There are many customers

d)

The product has high value

114.

The first step of the sales process is:

a)

Follow-up

b)

Closing the sale

c)

Handling objections

d)

Generating leads

115.

Social media allows salespeople to:

a)

Avoid customer feedback

b)

Eliminate the need for selling

c)

Disconnect from customers

d)

Build deeper relationships

116.

A salesperson following up after a sale helps ensure:

a)

Faster production times

b)

Lower product prices

c)

Reduced advertising costs

d)

Customer satisfaction

117.

Which step finalizes the sale?

a)

Approach

b)

Lead generation

c)

Close

d)

Follow-up

118.

Social media helps customers by allowing them to:

a)

Review products before meeting salespeople

b)

Eliminate the need for buying

c)

Prevent direct communication

d)

Hide product information

119.

Inside sales typically occur:

a)

In customer homes

b)

Door-to-door

c)

At trade shows

d)

Via phone or online

120.

Social media is defined as any internet tool that facilitates conversation.

a)

True

b)

False

121.

Companies fully control the content posted about them on social media.

a)

True

b)

False

122.

Social media enables marketers to listen to consumers more effectively.

a)

True

b)

False

123.

Examples of social media platforms include:

a)

Facebook

b)

Excell

c)

YouTube

d)

Reddit

e)

CoPilot

124.

Consumer usage of social media examples include:

a)

Grocery loyalty cards

b)

Online dating apps

c)

Blogs

d)

Virtual worlds

125.

Apps and social platforms evolve slowly over time.

a)

True

b)

False

126.

Online reviews have little impact on consumer behavior.

a)

True

b)

False

127.

Social media ROI can be measured using metrics like shares and followers.

a)

True

b)

False

128.

Social media objectives include:

a)

Listening and learning

b)

Managing reputation

c)

Promoting products

d)

Building relationships