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Worksheets

First Semester

Total questions: 44

Worksheet time: 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The item pictured here is found in each science classroom. How are these devices used?

a)

Used to wash harmful materials out of eyes or off body

b)

Used to clean up after the lab is completed

c)

Used for correct hand washing after experiments

d)

Used only in the event of a laboratory fire

2.

A scientist observes that a chemical reaction rates increase when exposed to high‑energy, small‑wavelength light. What would be an appropriate scientific inference?

a)

Infrared light most probably induces reaction progress

b)

The reaction occurs quickly with orange and yellow light

c)

Radio waves would be a good choice to increase the reaction rate

d)

Ultraviolet light could be used to make a reaction happen faster

3.

How do scientists use observations to form inferences?

a)

They use intuition and feelings

b)

They only record data without interpretation

c)

They guess based on past experiences

d)

They apply reasoning to interpret observations and propose explanations

4.

A scientist's conclusion supports their company's product. What is a potential concern?

a)

The data is likely to be free of error

b)

The scientist may be biased due to a conflict of interest

c)

The results must be correct because they benefit the company

d)

Scientists never have personal beliefs

5.

How can personal bias affect scientific research?

a)

It improves the accuracy of measurements

b)

It may influence data interpretation or the design of experiments

c)

It leads to stronger conclusions

d)

It ensures objectivity

6.

From the graph of mass vs. volume for pennies, estimate the density of the metal in g/cm^3 if a straight line through the points has slope near 77 . Use density = slope (mass/volume).

a)

7 g/cc

b)

21 g/cc

c)

12 g/cc

d)

5.9 g/cc

7.

How many milliliters are in4.5 liters? Use 1 liter = 1000 milliliters.

a)

0.0045 mL

b)

45,000 mL

c)

450 mL

d)

4,500 mL

8.

A metal sample has mass 0.015 kg and displaces 2.00 mL of water. What is its density in g/mL? Use 1000 g = 1 kg.

a)

50 g/mL

b)

7.5 g/mL

c)

.25 g/mL

d)

.005 g/mL

9.

A wave travels at 90.0 km/h. What is the speed in m/s? Use 1 km = 1000 m and 1 hour = 3600 s.

a)

15 m/s

b)

45 m/s

c)

30 m/s

d)

25 m/s

10.

The diagrams show particles in ice and in liquid water. Which explanation best accounts for why ice floats on liquid water?

a)

Ice is less dense because particles form an open lattice

b)

Ice is more dense because particles pack into rigid layers

c)

Liquid water is less dense because particles spread farther apart

d)

Density of ice and water is equal so floating is random

11.

Which statement correctly distinguishes a liquid from a solid at the particle level?

a)

Solid particles move faster than liquid particles

b)

Particles are fixed in place and cannot move

c)

Liquids have definite shape while solids do not

d)

Particles are close together but move past each other

12.

During evaporation of water, what change in particle behavior occurs?

a)

Particles slow down and move closer together at surface

b)

Particles stop moving and are knocked off by others

c)

Particles gain energy and escape from the surface

d)

Particles lose energy and form rigid surface structures

13.

As time increases of this graph, what is happening to the molecules of water?

a)

Gain kinetic energy and move faster

b)

Lose kinetic energy and move close together

c)

Distance between molecules remains constant

d)

Distance between molecules decreases

14.

Which phase change releases heat energy to the surroundings?

a)

Sublimation of solid to gas

b)

Condensation of gas to liquid

c)

Evaporation of liquid to gas

d)

Melting of a solid to liquid

15.

A heating curve shows temperature rising, leveling during a plateau, then rising again. As time increases on this graph, what happens to water molecules overall?

a)

Lose kinetic energy and cluster closer

b)

Gain kinetic energy and move faster

c)

Distance between molecules remains constant

d)

Distance between molecules decreases

16.

Nails are often composed of iron due to iron’s chemical and physical properties. Which of the following is a chemical property of iron?

a)

Iron can be hammered into sheets

b)

Iron is magnetic in bar form

c)

Iron rusts when exposed to oxygen and moisture

d)

Iron has a density of 7.87 g/cm³

17.

A student places sugar in hot tea. The sugar dissolves completely, and the tea tastes sweet. Which best describes the change?

a)

Chemical change, because added heat provided energy

b)

Chemical change, because the sugar’s identity is destroyed

c)

Physical change, because the tea became a new substance

d)

Physical change, because the sugar molecules are present

18.

Which observation best indicates that a chemical change has occurred?

a)

A solid melts into a liquid state

b)

A gas is produced and bubbles form

c)

A substance is broken into pieces

d)

A liquid freezes into a solid

19.

Refer to the two containers in the diagram showing mixtures of particles. One shows evenly distributed particles, while the other shows clumps or clustering. Using evidence from the diagrams, which definition BEST describes these two containers?

a)

Both containers have heterogeneous mixtures

b)

Container A is heterogeneous, B is homogeneous

c)

Container A is homogeneous, B is heterogeneous

d)

Both containers are homogeneous mixtures

20.

Which of the following is an example of a homogeneous mixture?

a)

Soil with leaves and composted materials

b)

Saltwater containing dissolved sodium chloride and water

c)

A salad with lettuce, tomatoes, cucumbers, cheese

d)

A beaker with nails, staples, paperclips of iron

21.

Which conclusion from Rutherford’s gold foil experiment is most accurate?

a)

Protons and neutrons fill space evenly throughout atoms

b)

The nucleus is large, diffuse, and negatively charged

c)

Atoms are mostly empty space with a small, dense, positive nucleus

d)

Electrons orbit in fixed planet-like circular paths

22.

Which conclusion from Rutherford’s gold foil experiment is most accurate?

a)

Protons and neutrons fill space evenly throughout atoms

b)

The nucleus is large, diffuse, and negatively charged

c)

Atoms are mostly empty space with a small, dense, positive nucleus

d)

Electrons orbit in fixed planet-like circular paths

23.

Which statement correctly compares subatomic particles?

a)

Protons are negative and have the largest mass

b)

Neutrons are lighter than electrons and neutral

c)

Electrons and protons have same mass but opposite charge

d)

Protons and neutrons have similar mass; electrons have much less

24.

Two atoms each have 10 protons and 10 electrons. Atom A has 13 neutrons; Atom B has 15 neutrons. What best describes their relationship?

a)

Same element because total particles differ

b)

Ions of same element due to equal neutrons

c)

Different elements because neutrons differ

d)

Isotopes of same element with different neutrons

25.

The table shows subatomic counts. Which statement BEST explains the relationship among the elements?

a)

All different elements due to different neutrons

b)

A and C are isotopes; B is different

c)

A, B, and C are different forms of same element

d)

A and B are isotopes; C is a negatively charged anion

26.

What is the primary role of electrons in an atom?

a)

Define mass of atom

b)

Stored in nucleus to balance charge

c)

Give atom its color

d)

Orbit nucleus and participate in bonding

27.

What determines an element’s position in the periodic table?

a)

Number of protons

b)

Physical state at room conditions

c)

Atomic mass value

d)

Number of neutrons

28.

Which group contains elements least likely to react with others?

a)

Alkali metals

b)

Halogens

c)

Noble gases

d)

Transition metals

29.

Two elements are in the same group. Why do they have similar chemical properties?

a)

Same total electrons

b)

Same number of protons

c)

Same neutrons in common isotope

d)

Same valence electron count

30.

Which element is more electronegative: oxygen (O), sulfur (S), or selenium (Se)?

a)

Sulfur (S)

b)

Selenium (Se)

c)

Oxygen (O)

d)

All have equal electronegativity

31.

Sodium (Na) and chlorine (Cl) are in the same period. Which statement BEST explains which atom has the larger atomic radius?

a)

Chlorine larger: more protons makes it heavier

b)

Sodium larger: outer electrons farther, less effective nuclear pull

c)

Chlorine larger: nonmetal expands outward

d)

Sodium larger: more protons pull electrons inward

32.

Which type of electromagnetic wave has the longest wavelength and lowest frequency?

a)

Gamma rays

b)

Ultraviolet rays

c)

X-rays

d)

Radio waves

33.

In which section of the spectrum would you expect the waves to have the highest frequency and highest energy?

a)

Left side

b)

Right side

c)

All sections have equal energy, only wavelength changes

d)

Center (area around visible light)

34.

Cell phones and radios use specific radio frequencies to transmit information. Why are radio waves suited for this purpose?

a)

Radio waves are shorter in wavelength than gamma rays, making phones safer

b)

Radio waves have long wavelengths that travel far and penetrate obstacles

c)

Radio waves have more energy than visible light or ultraviolet

d)

High-energy radio waves are absorbed by the atmosphere and cannot travel far

35.

In the chemical equation 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O, what do the numbers in front of the molecules represent?

a)

The identifier shows the rate of the reaction

b)

The coefficients show the number of molecules involved

c)

The exponent shows the number of atoms in a molecule

d)

The subscript shows the number of molecules in the reaction

36.

Which of the following is a balanced chemical equation?

a)

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

b)

Na + Cl2 → NaCl

c)

H2 + O2 → H2O

d)

C + O2 → CO

37.

What does it mean for a chemical reaction to be balanced?

a)

The phase of each item is represented

b)

The same number of each type of atom appears on both sides

c)

The same amount and types of energy are equal on both sides

d)

The products are equal in volume to the reactants

38.

What does the formula H2O represent?

a)

Two hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms

b)

Two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom

c)

One hydrogen and two oxygen atoms

d)

Two hydrogen molecules and one oxygen atom

39.

Which formula shows a properly written compound made of two aluminum atoms and three oxygen atoms?

a)

AlO

b)

Al2O3

c)

Al3O2

d)

Al2O

40.

Which statement best describes an ionic bond?

a)

Equal sharing of electrons between two nonmetals

b)

Transfer of electrons from a metal to a nonmetal

c)

Weak attraction within a single molecule

d)

Overlap of electron clouds in metallic atoms

41.

What distinguishes a covalent bond from an ionic bond?

a)

Formed between metals and nonmetals

b)

Weaker than hydrogen bonds

c)

Involves a transfer of electrons

d)

Involves the sharing of electrons between atoms

42.

In the diagram of two water molecules, what type of bond is represented by the dotted line between the molecules?

a)

Oxygen bond

b)

Covalent bond

c)

Ionic bond

d)

Hydrogen bond

43.

Water has a high specific heat capacity. Which effect best explains why this property supports life on Earth?

a)

Enables upward movement of water in plant stems

b)

Helps maintain stable temperatures in oceans and on land

c)

Allows organisms to dissolve nutrients for survival

d)

Allows ice to float, insulating aquatic organisms

44.

Why is water often called the universal solvent?

a)

Its ionic bonding dissolves many substances

b)

Its polarity lets it dissolve many substances

c)

Its covalent bonding dissolves only gases

d)

It dissolves all heterogeneous substances