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iCEV Elanco Fundamentals of Animal Science Practice Test

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following pathogens lives in soil, air, water and plants?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Protozoa

c)

Viruses

d)

Fungi

2.

Which of the following diseases is a result of a selenium and/or vitamin E deficiency?

a)

Milk fever

b)

Lactic acidosis

c)

White muscle disease

d)

Enterotoxemia

3.

Zinc sulfate or copper sulfate footbaths are used to treat which of the following diseases?

a)

Johne’s disease

b)

Enterotoxemia

c)

Black leg

d)

Foot rot

4.

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by blood feeding flies and contact with fomites?

a)

Avian influenza

b)

Sore mouth

c)

Blue tongue

d)

Bovine virus diarrhea

5.

Which of the following diseases occurs when two toes are joined together to create only one toe?

a)

Mulefoot

b)

Spider lamb syndrome

c)

HYPP

d)

Hypotrichosis

6.

Nutrient deficiencies are NOT caused by a lack of which of the following?

a)

Liquids

b)

Vitamins

c)

Minerals

d)

Protein

7.

Which disease is caused by a spore forming bacterium?

a)

Blackleg

b)

Lactic acidosis

c)

Foot and mouth disease

d)

Bovine virus diarrhea

8.

Which of the following devices pushes the vaccination solution or medication through the needle and into the animal?

a)

Barrel

b)

Needle

c)

Syringe

d)

Plunger

9.

In which type of injection is it acceptable for blood to appear in the syringe before administering the injection?

a)

Subcutaneous

b)

Intramuscular

c)

Intravenous

d)

Intramammary

10.

Which type of vaccine is created from a new combination of DNA?

a)

Subunit

b)

Modified-live

c)

Inactivated

d)

Killed

11.

Which of the following diseases causes facial malformation?

a)

Tetanus

b)

Atrophic Rhinitis

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis

12.

For which of the following EPD figures is a negative number more desirable?

a)

Days to 250 and Backfat

b)

Days to 250 and Loin Eye Area

c)

Backfat and Pounds of Lean

d)

Pounds of Lean and Days to 250

13.

Which system is the mating of animals of different breeds?

a)

Grading up

b)

Crossbreeding

c)

Inbreeding

d)

Linebreeding

14.

Which crossbreeding system produces replacement females through the rotation and produces crossbred offspring?

a)

Rotational-terminal crossbreeding system

b)

Static crossbreeding system

c)

Rotational crossbreeding system

d)

Modified static crossbreeding system

15.

Pen mating is mostly used by which of the following?

a)

Commercial breeders

b)

Purebred breeders

c)

Inbreeding breeders

d)

Small operations

16.

What type of breeding system is designed to take advantage of both hybrid vigor and breeding value?

a)

Pure breeding

b)

Impure breeding

c)

Crossbreeding

d)

Multi-breeding

17.

If you chose grading up as the method of breeding for your operation, what generation would you see the most evidence of improvement?

a)

Second generation

b)

Third generation

c)

Fourth generation

d)

Fifth generation

18.

Which of the following systems protects and supports the body tissues and organs?

a)

Endocrine

b)

Skeletal

c)

Circulatory

d)

Integumentary

19.

Which of the following parasites are also known as ascarids?

a)

Whipworm

b)

Roundworm

c)

Liver fluke

d)

Lungworm

20.

Which of the following parasites lays eggs on the hair of the rear legs on animals?

a)

Bots

b)

Mites

c)

Lice

d)

Heel flies

21.

Which of the following are also known as cattle grubs?

a)

Lice

b)

Mites

c)

Ticks

d)

Heel flies

22.

Which of the following parasites adults live in the cecum where they lay eggs to be passed with feces then eggs are eaten and hatch?

a)

Pinworms

b)

Whipworms

c)

Tapeworms

d)

Lungworms

23.

What is analgesia?

a)

Inability to be numb

b)

A sedative

c)

Inability to feel pain

d)

A surgical tool

24.

Which of the following terms refers to only one testicle being dropped into the scrotum?

a)

Inguinal hernia

b)

Bilateral cryptorchidism

c)

Unilateral cryptorchidism

d)

Scrotal hernia

25.

What could be a result of docking an animal’s tail too short?

a)

It does not matter how short the tail is

b)

Price reduction at market

c)

Fly strike

d)

Rectal prolapses

26.

Which procedure increases feed efficiency?

a)

Dehorning

b)

Castration

c)

Teeth clipping

d)

Lancing

27.

Which species can only be castrated surgically?

a)

Swine

b)

Cattle

c)

Sheep

d)

Goats

28.

Where is the most common place to put a tag which identifies an animal?

a)

Auricle

b)

Nares

c)

Vibrissae

d)

Skin

29.

Which of the following refers to the region of the body towards the head?

a)

Proximal

b)

Dorsal

c)

Distal

d)

Cranial

30.

Which of the following is the second step in swine hair removal?

a)

Singeing

b)

Scalding

c)

Skinning

d)

Tumbling machine

31.

Which cut of pork meat only has thin layers of lean meat?

a)

Loin

b)

Belly

c)

Ham

d)

Shoulder butt

32.

What does URMIS stand for?

a)

Uniform Reform Meat Identity Standards

b)

United Retail Meat Identity Standards

c)

Uniform Retail Meat Incorporated Study

d)

Uniform Retail Meat Identity Standards

33.

Identification can _________ breed associations in registration.

a)

Aid

b)

Hurt

c)

Complicate

d)

Develop

34.

DNA analysis can be extracted from which of the following?

a)

Nasal swabs

b)

Retina scans

c)

Ear notching

d)

Freeze branding

35.

Which of the following is most commonly used on sheep and cattle when participating in a sale or show?

a)

Hot branding

b)

Freeze branding

c)

Nose prints

d)

Neck chains

36.

CVI is the acronym for which of the following?

a)

Certificate of Veterinary Inspection

b)

Certificate of Varied Identification

c)

Certification for Vet Insurance

d)

Certification and Veterinarian Identification

37.

In freeze branding, the branding iron is chilled with which of the following?

a)

Liquid nitrogen

b)

Ice water

c)

Frozen salt

d)

Cooling compound

38.

What is the purpose of a feedlot?

a)

Feed and fatten cattle

b)

Breed cattle

c)

Calf management

d)

All of the above

39.

__________ is the safety zone of cattle.

a)

Flight zone

b)

Danger zone

c)

Resting zone

d)

Feeding zone

40.

Cattle have a four compartment stomach meaning they are ruminants.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Which is the best body condition score for breeding cattle?

a)

Two

b)

Five

c)

Nine

d)

All of the above

42.

What is an advantage of castration?

a)

Increased performance and gain

b)

Decreased performance and gain

c)

An unhappy steer

d)

None of the above

43.

Which is NOT a segment of the beef cattle industry?

a)

Cow/calf

b)

Farrow to finish

c)

Stocker

d)

Seedstock

44.

Which breed classification produces wool fibers with a small fiber diameter and are known for their flocking instincts?

a)

Fine wool breeds

b)

Medium wool breeds

c)

Long wool breeds

d)

Prolific breeds

45.

What is the average live weight for a slaughter lamb?

a)

100 lbs.

b)

120 lbs.

c)

140 lbs.

d)

200 lbs.

46.

What is the first limiting nutrient of animals?

a)

Protein

b)

Water

c)

Vitamins

d)

Minerals

47.

Which is the most important when evaluating a wool fleece?

a)

Grease fleece weight

b)

Yield

c)

Staple length

d)

Fiber diameter

48.

Which type of operation is aimed toward maximizing production and market value of offspring?

a)

Seedstock

b)

Purebred

c)

Commercial

d)

All of the above

49.

Which breed is solid white in color and has drooped ears?

a)

Berkshire

b)

Chester White

c)

Duroc

d)

Hampshire

50.

Which type of operation produces purebred breeding stock for purebred and commercial operations?

a)

Farrow-to-Finish

b)

Farrow-to-Nursery

c)

Seedstock

d)

Show pigs

51.

What is the proper term for the period of time in a sow’s cycle when she is receptive to a boar for breeding purposes and the vulva is swollen and red?

a)

Gestation

b)

Farrowing

c)

Colostrum

d)

Estrus

52.

What are the USDA grades for pork?

a)

One, Two, Three, Four

b)

A, B, C, D

c)

Prime, Choice, Grade, Standard

d)

Acceptable, Utility

53.

Which breed is red with white faces, feet and underline?

a)

Hampshire

b)

Duroc

c)

Hereford

d)

Tamworth

54.

_______________ is the mother’s first milk and contains the antibodies necessary for the piglets’ health.

a)

Gestation

b)

Castration

c)

Farrowing

d)

Colostrum

55.

According to the presentation, which of the following is the leading state in the milk goat industry?

a)

Texas

b)

Oklahoma

c)

California

d)

New Mexico

56.

Which of the following goat breeds are seasonal breeders and tend to have single kid crops?

a)

Angora goats

b)

Boer goats

c)

Tennessee Fainting goats

d)

Nubian goats

57.

Which instrument is used to perform bloodless dehorning?

a)

Burdizzo

b)

Barnes dehorner

c)

Heated iron

d)

Clippers

58.

Which of the following is the most prevalent disease in goat operations?

a)

Foot rot

b)

Enterotoxemia

c)

Soremouth

d)

Ketosis

59.

Sheep and goats have similar reproductive tracts, therefore breeding methods are similar for both species.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Which of the following breeding methods are used in the cattle industry?

a)

Artificial insemination

b)

All of the choices are used

c)

Natural breeding

d)

Embryo transfer

61.

Which of the following is a technique producers use for collecting semen in cattle?

a)

Gloved-hand technique

b)

Electroejaculation

c)

All of the answer choices are correct

d)

Artificial insemination

62.

What is the significance of corpora lutea (CL)?

a)

CLs indicate the female is a good candidate for artificial semination

b)

CLs indicate the female has ovulated

c)

CLs indicate the recipient female is pregnant

d)

CLs indicate the female is prepared to receive an embryo

63.

Ideally, a sow or gilt will stop standing within 12 hours after being artificially inseminated.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Which is a technique producers use for collecting semen in cattle?

a)

Gloved-hand technique

b)

Artificial insemination

c)

Electroejaculation

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

65.

What should newborn mammals consume immediately after birth?

a)

water

b)

feed

c)

colostrum

d)

both a and b

66.

A castrated bull is called a

a)

heifer

b)

steer

c)

calf

d)

cow

67.

A castrated male horse is called a

a)

stallion

b)

gelding

c)

filly

d)

colt

68.

A goat known for its meat production is the

a)

Boer goat

b)

Nubian goat

c)

Angora goat

d)

Kashmir goat

69.

A female pig that has not had a litter of piglets is a

a)

sow

b)

barrow

c)

gilt

d)

hog

70.

A chicken between the ages of six and eight weeks is a

a)

pullet

b)

broiler or fryer

c)

hen

d)

chick

71.

Genetics has a much greater effect on animals than their environment.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Which of the following is a complex solution outside the cell nucleus contained by a cell membrane?

a)

Allele

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Gametes

d)

Chromatin

73.

The letter "G" in G1 and G2 stands for "genetic."

a)

True

b)

False

74.

The cells produced by meiosis are all genetically alike.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

The exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes is known as which of the following?

a)

DNA

b)

Crossing over

c)

RNA

d)

Allele

76.

In mammals, the male carries a set of identical chromosomes for sex determination.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Genes are parts of the chromosomes which control the development of certain characteristics.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

In RNA, the nitrogen base thymine is replaced by which of the following bases?

a)

Adenine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Guanine

d)

Uracil

79.

Genotype and phenotype are essentially the same.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

In what molecule are genes located?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

mRNA

d)

Chromosomes

81.

The DNA molecule is usually found in what form?

a)

Double helix

b)

Single strand

c)

Hexagon

d)

Nucleotide

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